Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AVIA 101 > Air Law > Flashcards

Air Law Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Physics 101 flashcards Psychology 101 flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards Biology 101 flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards Sociology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are CARs?

A

Canadian Aviation Regulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who publishes the Aeronautical Information Manual and how often is it updated?

A

Transport Canada, and twice a year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Canada Flight Supplement? Who is it issued by? And how often is it published?

A

List of all aerodromes in Canada. Issued by NAV Canada. Published every 56 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PPL Cost Reimbursement: When are licensed private pilots allowed to receive reimbursement?

A

The flight is conducted for purposes other than hire, the passengers are carried incidentally, or the compensation provided shares the costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PPL Cost Reimbursement: When can a private pilot receive compensation from an employer?

A

Employed for a purpose other than flying, the flying is incidental, and compensation can’t exceed costs of flying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Reckless Negligent Operation

A

No person shall operate an aircraft is a reckless or negligent manner to endanger or likely endanger human life or property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fitness of Flight Crew Members

A

No person shall act as a flight crew member if there is reason to believe they are fatigued, or cannot carry out the duties of their job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long after you drink can you fly a plane?

A

12 hours after consuming alcohol, cannot be drunk or high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What allows people to consume “intoxicating liquor” onboard an aircraft?

A

If it has been served by the operator, or on behalf of the operator of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Refuelling with Engine Running

A

Not permitted while an engine used for propulsion is running, with passengers onboard or if they are disembarking, unless airline allows it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What must be in place to start an engine?

A

The pilot’s seat is occupied by a competent person, or there are measures in place to prevent the aircraft from moving when unattended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dropping of Objects

A

Can’t drop something that could pose a hazard to people or property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Are people allowed to enter or leave the aircraft during flight?

A

Unless given permission by PIC and they have a parachute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the restrictions behind parachute descents?

A

Cannot be within controlled airspace or on an air route, or over a built-up area or an assembly of people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What two components make up a safety belt?

A

The lap belt and the shoulder harness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When shall people on board be wearing seatbelts?

A

During movement of aircraft on surface, during take-off/landing, and any time the PIC deems necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What 4 things must be true of child restraint systems?

A
  1. Must be certified
  2. Must be within weight limits
  3. Must be secured
  4. Must be accompanied by an adult or guardian
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Smoking?

A

NOOOOOOOOO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Are portable electronic devices allowed on aircraft?

A

Cannot use if impairs aircraft systems or equipment, only operator can grant permission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Aircraft Operating Limitations

A

Don’t fly beyond limitations in AFM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What must be true for use of 2-way radio?

A

Must be able to communicate on 121.5 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When are flight control locks permitted?

A

When they are incapable of becoming engaged when aircraft is being operated, and a warning indicates they are engaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the critical surfaces of an aircraft?

A

Wings, control surfaces, propellers, or any stabilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Can you fly with any frost, ice, or snow on any of these critical surfaces?

A

No (decreases lift by 30%, and increases drag by 40%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What 8 pieces will be included in a passenger briefing?

A
  1. Location of exits
  2. Operation of safety belts
  3. Positioning of seats and seat backs
  4. Stowage of baggage
  5. Location and operation of oxygen equipment
  6. Prohibitions on smoking (maybe eating and drinking)
  7. Location of first-aid/survival kits
  8. If flying over water, location and use of life preservers/rafts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What must you do when given an ATC clearance?

A

Comply with the clearance and read back if requested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What must you do if you deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

Inform ATC as soon as practicable, and return to last accepted clearance from ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is it ok to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

In accordance with ACAS/TCAS, or response from GPWS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Requirements of life preservers/flotation devices on seaplanes

A

Must carry life preservers for each person on board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Can landplanes operate beyond gliding distance from shore without life preservers or flotation devices?

A

No a life preserver or flotation device must be carried for each person on board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Life preserves/flotation device requirements for flights beyond 50 NM from shore

A

Life preserver for each person on board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When are life rafts required on board?

A

Flights beyond 100 NM from shore or the distance covered in 30 minutes from a suitable landing site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where is smoking allowed within aerodromes?

A

Only in designated enclosed shelter on apron away from hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the frequency an ELT transmits at, and how long does the signal last for?

A

121.5 MHz and/or 243.0 MHz for 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Two main types of ELTs?

A

Type F/AF remains in aircraft, and type AP can be removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Two main types of ELTs?

A

Type F/AF remains in aircraft, and type AP can be removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When are you allowed to test the ELT signal?

A

First 5 minutes of any UTC hour for max of 5 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Would a flight training unit, who operated within 25 NM from aerodrome of departure, require an ELT?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Other requirements for not having an ELT on board

A
  1. It is a new aircraft operating for manufacturing, preparation or delivery purposes
  2. The ELT is being removed for repairs
  3. There is a placard stating the ELT has been removed
  4. Must be re-equipped within 30 days of removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Oxygen requirements for flights above 10,000’ ASL, not exceeding 13,000’ ASL

A

Each crew member wears oxygen mask and supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight at these altitudes lasting more than 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Oxygen requirements above 13,000’ ASL

A

Each person on board must wear oxygen mask for duration of flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When shall the pilot at controls wear an oxygen mask?

A

The aircraft isn’t equipped with quick-donning masks and is operated at or above FL 250, or it is equipped with quick-donning masks, and is operated above FL 410

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What must happen when a communication failure takes place between ATC and a VFR aircraft within Class B, C, or D airspace

A
  1. Must leave the airspace (land at closest aerodrome, or by shortest route possible)
  2. Set 7600 into transponder
  3. Inform ATC ASAP of the actions taken
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Steady green light

A

Cleared for take-off/landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Flashing green light

A

Cleared to taxi/Return for landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Steady red light

A

STOP/Give way, Continue circling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Flashing red light

A

Taxi clear of runway/Airport unsafe do not land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Flashing white light

A

Return to starting point on airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Alternating red and green light

A

Exercise extreme caution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What defines an aeroplane?

A

Power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft deriving lift from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces that remain fixed in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Requirements for a Category 1 Medical

A

Required for CPL or ATPL, under 40: valid to first day of 13th month, 40 or over: valid to first day of 7th month, reverts to cat 3 after validity period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Requirements for Category 2 Medical

A

Required for ATC or flight engineers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Requirements for Category 3 Medical

A

Required for PPL, under 40: valid to first day of 61st month, 40 or over: valid to first day of 25th month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Requirements for Category 4 Medical

A

Required for RPP and SPP, Complete a medical declaration form, Under 40: valid to first day of 61st month, 40 or over: valid to first day of 25th month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Student Pilot Permit Requirements:

A
  1. 14 Years of Age
  2. PSTAR
  3. Radio Licence
  4. Medical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Student Pilot Permit Privileges:

A

Act as PIC of any aircraft within the category the permit relates: For flight training/flight tests, flight in Canada under day VFR, Under the supervision of a flight instructor, no passengers carried on board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Recreational Pilot Permit Requirements:

A
  1. 16 Years of Age
  2. 60% on Exam
  3. Category 1, 3 Medical
  4. 25 Hours
  5. Flight Test
  6. 15 Hours dual (2 hours x/c) and 5 solo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Recreational Pilot Permit Privileges:

A

Day VFR, Single engine aeroplane, max 4 seats, One passenger maximum, no trans-border flights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Private Pilot Licence Requirements:

A
  1. 17 Years of Age
  2. 60% on Exam
  3. Category 1 or 3 Medical
  4. 45 Hours Total Time
  5. Flight Test
  6. Minimum of 17 dual (3 hrs x/c, 5 hrs instrument) and 12 solo (5 hrs x/c)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Private Pilot Licence Privileges:

A

PIC or co-pilot of aeroplanes of a class and type endorsed on your licence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Night Rating Requirements:

A
  1. Private Licence
  2. 10 hrs at night (5 dual (including 2hrs x/c) 5 solo (including 10 take-offs and landings)
  3. 10 hrs instrument (includes 5 from private)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Land to Sea Licence Conversion

A

7 hrs training (Minimum 5 hrs dual), and 5 solo take-offs and landings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sea to Land Conversion

A

3 hrs training (minimum 2 hrs dual), and 5 solo take-offs and landings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

5-Year Recency Requirement:

A

Act as PIC once in last 5 years or else have to right PSTAR and complete flight review with instructor, or satisfy 5 take-offs and landings within 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

2 Year Recency Requirement:

A

Many different ways to become recent (safety seminar, flight review, training program, study program, etc.)

66
Q

What are type ratings:

A

Required for aircraft not under blanket rating (high-performance aircraft, min of 2 flight crew)

67
Q

Requirements for High Performance Aeroplanes:

A

Vne of 250 kts or greater

Vso of 80 kts or greater

68
Q

VFR Minimum Distances (Built-Up Area):

A

No lower than 1000’ within 2000’ radius of highest object (don’t create hazard to people on ground and not in an emergency)

69
Q

VFR Minimum Distances (Non-Built Up Area):

A

Not lower than 500’ above highest obstacle within 500’ radius from any man-made thing)

70
Q

List the regular exceptions to minimum height requirements

A
  1. Police operations
  2. Saving a life
  3. Firefighting/air ambulance
  4. Surveying
  5. Flight Training
71
Q

What is the accepted minimum height over national and provincial parks?

A

2000’ AGL (can’t land within national parks)

72
Q

Speed limit below 10,000’ ASL

A

250 KIAS

73
Q

Speed limit below 3000’ ASL within 10 NM or controlled airport

A

200 KIAS

74
Q

VFR Weather Minima within Control Zones

A

3 SM Visibility, 1 NM Horizontal Distance from Clouds, 500’ Vertical Distance from Clouds, and 500’ AGL

75
Q

VFR Weather Minima in Other Controlled Airspace

A

3 SM Visibility, 1 NM Horizontal Distance from Clouds, 500’ Vertical Distance from Clouds

76
Q

VFR Weather Minima in Un-Controlled Airspace above 1000’ AGL

A

1 SM Visibility during the day, 3 SM Visibility during night, 2000’ Horizontal distance from Clouds, 500’ Vertical distance from Clouds

77
Q

VFR Weather Minima in Un-Controlled Airspace below 1000’ AGL

A

2 SM Visibility during the day, 3 SM Visibility at night, clear of clouds

78
Q

Requirements for Special VFR

A
  1. 2-Way Radio
  2. Operate clear of cloud and within sight of ground
  3. Only used for the purpose of landing
  4. Pilot must request
  5. Must have 1 mile Visibility
79
Q

VFR Over the Top Requirements:

A
  1. Day only
  2. Weather at destination scattered or better, and visibility of 5 SM and no precipitation
  3. Rating requires 15 hrs dual instrument
  4. Included in CPL, can be added to PPL
80
Q

Minimum Altitude Over Flying Aerodromes

A

2000’ (there are exceptions)

81
Q

Give the Right of Way Rules

A

Gliders gives way to balloons, airships give way to gliders, Power driven heavier-than-air gives way to airships, and aircraft towing objects

82
Q

What way should two aircraft on a collision course turn, and which side do you overtake an aircraft?

A

The right

83
Q

When approaching to land what decides who has the right of way?

A

Whoever is at the lower altitude

84
Q

What are the requirements to perform aerobatics?

A
  1. Over a non-built up area
  2. In uncontrolled airspace
  3. Visibility must be at least 3 miles
  4. Above 2000’ ft AGL unless have special flight certificate
85
Q

What is defined as aerobatics?

A

Change in attitude with bank angle greater than 60 degrees, abnormal attitudes or abnormal acceleration

86
Q

Requirements to conduct aerobatics with passengers:

A
  1. 10 hrs dual instruction or 20 hrs conducting maneuvers

2. PIC flown 1 hr of maneuvers in last 6 months

87
Q

Aerobatic Airspace

A

Class F airspace (may be boxes extending length of runway, to top of control zone)

88
Q

Equipment for Day VFR (MOOFACTA)

A 
M - Manifold Pressure Gauge (or Tachometer)
O - Oil Temperature Gauge
O - Oil Pressure Gauge
F - Fuel Quantity Gauge
A - Altimeter (Pressure Sensitive Within Controlled Airspace)
C - Compass (Magnetic)
T - Timepiece
A - Airspeed Indicator
89
Q

Canadian Domestic Airspace is made up of two parts

A

Northern Domestic Airspace and Southern Domestic Airspace

90
Q

What is the difference between NDA and SDA

A

NDA uses degrees true and SDA uses degrees magnetic

91
Q

What is a Flight Information Region?

A

Area of defined dimensions within which flight information service and alerting services are provided

92
Q

What is High Level Controlled Airspace?

A

18,000’ ASL and above in Southern Control Area
FL 230 and above in Northern Control Area
FL 270 and above in Arctic Control Area

93
Q

What are the dimensions of control zones?

A

Surface of the Earth to 3000’ AAE, and a radius of 5 NM

94
Q

What special characteristics do military and TCA control zones have?

A

radii of 10 and 7 NM respectively

95
Q

What are low level airways?

A

Controlled airspace extending from 2200’ AGL up to but not including 18,000’ ASL

96
Q

What are Control Area Extensions used for?

A

Connecting areas of controlled airspace, and extend upwards from 2200’ AGL

97
Q

What are Transition Areas used for?

A

Established when it is considered advantageous to provide additional airspace for the containment of IFR operations (based at 700’ AGL to the base of overlying controlled airspace with a radius of 15 NM)

98
Q

What shape does a Terminal Control Area take?

A

Upside down wedding cake

99
Q

What is the purpose of Terminal Control Areas?

A

Controlled airspace of defined dimensions serving arriving, departing, and enroute aircraft

100
Q

Class A Airspace

A
  1. High-level controlled airspace to FL 600
  2. Only IFR aircraft permitted (requires a clearance)
  3. Mode C transponder
  4. Two-way communication
101
Q

Class B Airspace

A
  1. IFR and CVFR permitted (requires a clearance)
  2. Low-level controlled airspace above 12,500’ ASL up to but not including 18,000’ ASL
  3. Can be control zones and terminal control areas
  4. Mode C transponder
  5. Two-way Communication
102
Q

Class C Airspace

A
  1. Controlled, both IFR and VFR
  2. VFR requires clearance
  3. Two-way communication
  4. Mode C transponder
  5. Becomes Class E when ATC not in operation
103
Q

Class D Airspace

A
  1. Controlled, both VFR and IFR
  2. VFR must establish communication before entering
  3. Two-way communication
  4. Mode C transponder, if designated as transponder airspace
  5. Becomes Class E when ATC not in operation
104
Q

Class E Airspace

A
  1. When control is needed but does not conform with other airspace
  2. IFR and VFR permitted
  3. No special requirements for VFR
  4. Transponder only if designated
  5. Control zones, low level airways, control area extensions, or transition areas
  6. No active control of VFR
105
Q

Class F Airspace

A
  1. Two types: advisory (enter with caution), and restricted (do not enter)
  2. Can be controlled or uncontrolled
  3. When not active integrates into surrounding airspace
  4. Information in Designated Airspace Handbook
106
Q

Class G Airspace

A
  1. All remaining airspace

2. Surface up to but not including 18,000’ ASL, or surface to overlying airspace

107
Q

What are low-level air routes?

A

Contained entirely within Class G airspace, same dimensions as low-level airways

108
Q

When do cruising altitudes come into effect?

A

When flying 3000’ AGL or higher

109
Q

When flying between 0 and 179 degrees what altitudes do you cruise at? And when you are flying 180 to 359 degrees, what altitudes do you cruise at?

A

0 - 179: Odd 1000’s + 500

180 - 359: Even 1000’s + 500

110
Q

What is the altimeter operation in the Altimeter Setting Region?

A
  1. Set to current altimeter setting of aerodrome for take-off
  2. During cruise set to nearest station along route
  3. For landing set to altimeter setting of destination before descending
111
Q

What is the altimeter operation in the Standard Pressure Region?

A
  1. Set to current altimeter setting before take-off
  2. Set to 29.92” for cruise
  3. Set to destination altimeter before beginning descent
112
Q

Transition between pressure regions

A

Set to standard pressure when entering SPR, and set to current altimeter setting when entering ASR

113
Q

What requirements are in place to fly through an Air Defence Identification Zone?

A

Must file a DVFR flight plan or itinerary to enter, limits on flight path entry are +- 20NM or centreline of track and +- 5 minutes of entry time

114
Q

What is ESCAT?

A

Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic - Instructs aircraft during an air defence emergency

115
Q

How do you handle and interception?

A

Follow all instructions given to you, advise air traffic services, attempt to make radio contact with intercepting aircraft, and set transponder to 7700

116
Q

Name the three transponder modes and what they do

A

Mode A - code and position
Mode C - code, position and altitude
Mode S - code, position, and other info

117
Q

What are the 2 VFR Standard Transponder Codes?

A

1200 VFR at and below 12 500’ ASL

1400 VFR above 12 500’ ASL

118
Q

Emergency Transponder Codes

A

7500 Hijacking
7600 Communication Failure
7700 Emergency

119
Q

List the operational equipment required on board an aircraft

A
  1. Checklists
  2. Fire Extinguisher
  3. Timepiece
  4. First Aid Kit
  5. Current Publications and Charts (VFR OTT, Night VFR, or IFR)
  6. Flashlight (Night)
120
Q

What are the minimum requirements for survival equipment?

A
  1. Starting a fire
  2. Providing shelter
  3. Purifying water
  4. Signalling distress
121
Q

In addition to MOOFACTA, what else is required for Night VFR? (FATDAPPILOV)

A
  1. Sensitive Pressure Altimeter
  2. Turn and Slip Indicator/Turn Coordinator
  3. Adequate Source of Energy for Electrics
  4. Spare Fuses Totalling 50% of Required Fuses for Each Fuse Rating
  5. Heading Indicator (Operating Away From an Airport)
  6. Instrument Illumination
  7. Landing Light (Passengers)
  8. Anti-Collision and Position Lights
122
Q

What is defined as night?

A

1/2 hour after sunset, 1/2 before sunrise

123
Q

What do blinking runway lights indicate?

A

People and vehicles must clear the runway immediately

124
Q

What are the VFR Fuel Requirements for Day flying?

A

Sufficient fuel to reach destination (account for delays, and taxiing), plus 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

125
Q

What are the VFR Fuel Requirements for flying at night?

A

Sufficient fuel to reach destination (account for delays and taxiing), plus 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

126
Q

What is an Aerodrome?

A

Any area of land or water or supporting surface intended for the arrival, departure, movement, and servicing of aircraft

127
Q

What is an Airport?

A

An aerodrome with a certificate in force

128
Q

What is the Maneuvering Area?

A

The part of an aerodrome intended to be used for the taking off and landing of aircraft and for the movement of aircraft associated with take-off and landing, excluding aprons

129
Q

What is the Movement Area?

A

The part of an aerodrome intended to be used for the surface movement of aircraft, and include the maneuvering area and aprons

130
Q

Name 4 markings that are usually on runways

A
  1. Threshold
  2. Touchdown Zone
  3. 500’ Markers
  4. 1000’ Markers
131
Q

What is a displaced threshold used for?

A

Area available for taxiing, takeoff and landing rollout, may not be used for landing

132
Q

What is a Blast Pad/Stopway used for?

A

Yellow markings indicate pavement is not suitable for aircraft movement

133
Q

What side of the hold short line do you stay on?

A

The solid line

134
Q

If there are no hold short lines on the edges of runways, how far away from the runway should you stop?

A

200 Feet

135
Q

What must be in place for operations on intersecting runways to occur?

A

Must be cleared by ATC, and be in a controlled airport

136
Q

What must be in place for a land and hold short instruction issued?

A
  1. Must be able to stop 200 feet from intersecting runway
  2. Weather minima: 1000 ft ceiling, 3 SM Vis
  3. Runway dry
  4. Tailwind less than 5 Kts
  5. ATC clearance read back
137
Q

What are some things you can do to avoid runway incursions?

A
  1. Write down all clearances
  2. Ask for clarification
  3. Ask for progressive taxi
  4. Look for traffic
  5. Monitor tower when crossing runways
  6. Look outside
  7. Ensure beacon light is on, and nav lights at night
  8. Be familiar with airport
138
Q

When the wind sock is parallel to the horizontal, how fast is the wind? When it is 30 degrees below the horizon, how fast is the wind?

A

15 and 6 Knots respectively

139
Q

Red sign with numbers

A

Runway hold short sign

140
Q

Black sign with yellow lettering

A

Taxiway location signs

141
Q

Yellow sign with black writing

A

Direction signs

142
Q

In VASIS what do 2 sets of white lights, 2 sets of red lights, and 1 set of each lights mean?

A

Above glide path, below glide path, and on glide path respectively

143
Q

In PAPI, what does 4 white lights mean, what does 2 white and 2 red lights mean, and what does 4 red lights mean?

A

High, On Glide Path, and Low, respectively

144
Q

How far away must runway lighting be visible?

A

2 NM

145
Q

What is required to activate Type J and Type K ARCAL?

A

Both: Within 15 NM of Airport
Type J: 5 Clicks within 5 Seconds of push to talk, only one setting
Type K: 7, 5, 3, Clicks within 5 Seconds, depending on required brightness

146
Q

NOTAMN
NOTAMR
NOTAMC

A

New NOTAM
Replacing NOTAM
Cancelling NOTAM

147
Q

What does a RWYCC of 6, and a RWYCC of 0 mean?

A

6 is perfect runway conditions, 0 is very slippery

148
Q

Can a person operate an aircraft under VFR without a flight plan or flight itinerary?

A

No, unless they conduct the flight within 25 NM of the departure airport

149
Q

Who can a flight plan be filed with?

A

An ATC Unit, a Flight Service Station or a Community Aerodrome Radio Station

150
Q

When should an arrival report be filed for a flight plan?

A

As soon as practical, but no later than SAR time, if no SAR time 1 hour after last reported ETA

151
Q

In addition to who you can file a flight plan with, who can you file a flight itinerary with?

A

A responsible person

152
Q

If no SAR time is given on a flight itinerary when should you file an arrival report?

A

No later than 24 hours after the last reported ETA

153
Q

Which way do most traffic patterns go?

A

Left-handed

154
Q

What is an ATF?

A

Aerodrome Traffic Frequency, for active uncontrolled aerodromes, radio call made to “traffic”

155
Q

What is a UNICOM?

A

Established as some ATF to advise about the conditions and traffic in the area

156
Q

What is an MF?

A

Mandatory Frequency, used at uncontrolled aerodromes, calls made to “Radio”

157
Q

When should you make calls through an MF?

A

Pretty much whenever you are changing your position/intention

158
Q

What are the 7 required documents on board an aircraft?

A
  1. Certificate of Airworthiness
  2. Certificate of Registration
  3. Operating Manual
  4. Weight and Balance Report
  5. Journey Log
  6. Proof of Insurance
  7. Crew Licences
159
Q

What is an Aviation Occurrence?

A

Any accident or incident associated with the operation of an aircraft, or any situation/condition, if left unattended could lead to an accident or incident

160
Q

What is the definition of an Aviation Accident?

A

An accident resulting directly from the operation of an aircraft, where a person sustains a serious injury or is killed, the aircraft sustains damage or failure, or the aircraft is missing or inaccessible

161
Q

What is the definition of a Reportable Aviation Incident?

A

An incident resulting directly from the operation of an airplane having a maximum take-off weight greater than 5700 kg, where an engine fails, smoke or fire occurs, the aircraft is difficult to control, fails to land, fuel shortage, a collision, or risk of collision

162
Q

Should you interfere with an aviation occurrence site?

A

No unless someone is dying

AVIA 101 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions