Air Law Flashcards
1
Q
What are CARs?
A
Canadian Aviation Regulations
2
Q
Who publishes the Aeronautical Information Manual and how often is it updated?
A
Transport Canada, and twice a year
3
Q
What is the Canada Flight Supplement? Who is it issued by? And how often is it published?
A
List of all aerodromes in Canada. Issued by NAV Canada. Published every 56 days
4
Q
PPL Cost Reimbursement: When are licensed private pilots allowed to receive reimbursement?
A
The flight is conducted for purposes other than hire, the passengers are carried incidentally, or the compensation provided shares the costs
5
Q
PPL Cost Reimbursement: When can a private pilot receive compensation from an employer?
A
Employed for a purpose other than flying, the flying is incidental, and compensation can’t exceed costs of flying
6
Q
Reckless Negligent Operation
A
No person shall operate an aircraft is a reckless or negligent manner to endanger or likely endanger human life or property
7
Q
Fitness of Flight Crew Members
A
No person shall act as a flight crew member if there is reason to believe they are fatigued, or cannot carry out the duties of their job
8
Q
How long after you drink can you fly a plane?
A
12 hours after consuming alcohol, cannot be drunk or high
9
Q
What allows people to consume “intoxicating liquor” onboard an aircraft?
A
If it has been served by the operator, or on behalf of the operator of the aircraft
10
Q
Refuelling with Engine Running
A
Not permitted while an engine used for propulsion is running, with passengers onboard or if they are disembarking, unless airline allows it
11
Q
What must be in place to start an engine?
A
The pilot’s seat is occupied by a competent person, or there are measures in place to prevent the aircraft from moving when unattended
12
Q
Dropping of Objects
A
Can’t drop something that could pose a hazard to people or property
13
Q
Are people allowed to enter or leave the aircraft during flight?
A
Unless given permission by PIC and they have a parachute
14
Q
What are the restrictions behind parachute descents?
A
Cannot be within controlled airspace or on an air route, or over a built-up area or an assembly of people
15
Q
What two components make up a safety belt?
A
The lap belt and the shoulder harness
16
Q
When shall people on board be wearing seatbelts?
A
During movement of aircraft on surface, during take-off/landing, and any time the PIC deems necessary
17
Q
What 4 things must be true of child restraint systems?
A
- Must be certified
- Must be within weight limits
- Must be secured
- Must be accompanied by an adult or guardian
18
Q
Smoking?
A
NOOOOOOOOO
19
Q
Are portable electronic devices allowed on aircraft?
A
Cannot use if impairs aircraft systems or equipment, only operator can grant permission
20
Q
Aircraft Operating Limitations
A
Don’t fly beyond limitations in AFM
21
Q
What must be true for use of 2-way radio?
A
Must be able to communicate on 121.5 MHz
22
Q
When are flight control locks permitted?
A
When they are incapable of becoming engaged when aircraft is being operated, and a warning indicates they are engaged
23
Q
What are the critical surfaces of an aircraft?
A
Wings, control surfaces, propellers, or any stabilizer
24
Q
Can you fly with any frost, ice, or snow on any of these critical surfaces?
A
No (decreases lift by 30%, and increases drag by 40%)
25
What 8 pieces will be included in a passenger briefing?
1. Location of exits
2. Operation of safety belts
3. Positioning of seats and seat backs
4. Stowage of baggage
5. Location and operation of oxygen equipment
6. Prohibitions on smoking (maybe eating and drinking)
7. Location of first-aid/survival kits
8. If flying over water, location and use of life preservers/rafts
26
What must you do when given an ATC clearance?
Comply with the clearance and read back if requested
27
What must you do if you deviate from an ATC clearance?
Inform ATC as soon as practicable, and return to last accepted clearance from ATC
28
When is it ok to deviate from an ATC clearance?
In accordance with ACAS/TCAS, or response from GPWS
29
Requirements of life preservers/flotation devices on seaplanes
Must carry life preservers for each person on board
30
Can landplanes operate beyond gliding distance from shore without life preservers or flotation devices?
No a life preserver or flotation device must be carried for each person on board
31
Life preserves/flotation device requirements for flights beyond 50 NM from shore
Life preserver for each person on board
32
When are life rafts required on board?
Flights beyond 100 NM from shore or the distance covered in 30 minutes from a suitable landing site
33
Where is smoking allowed within aerodromes?
Only in designated enclosed shelter on apron away from hazard
34
What is the frequency an ELT transmits at, and how long does the signal last for?
121.5 MHz and/or 243.0 MHz for 48 hours
35
Two main types of ELTs?
Type F/AF remains in aircraft, and type AP can be removed
36
Two main types of ELTs?
Type F/AF remains in aircraft, and type AP can be removed
37
When are you allowed to test the ELT signal?
First 5 minutes of any UTC hour for max of 5 seconds
38
Would a flight training unit, who operated within 25 NM from aerodrome of departure, require an ELT?
No
39
Other requirements for not having an ELT on board
1. It is a new aircraft operating for manufacturing, preparation or delivery purposes
2. The ELT is being removed for repairs
3. There is a placard stating the ELT has been removed
4. Must be re-equipped within 30 days of removal
40
Oxygen requirements for flights above 10,000' ASL, not exceeding 13,000' ASL
Each crew member wears oxygen mask and supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight at these altitudes lasting more than 30 minutes
41
Oxygen requirements above 13,000' ASL
Each person on board must wear oxygen mask for duration of flight
42
When shall the pilot at controls wear an oxygen mask?
The aircraft isn't equipped with quick-donning masks and is operated at or above FL 250, or it is equipped with quick-donning masks, and is operated above FL 410
43
What must happen when a communication failure takes place between ATC and a VFR aircraft within Class B, C, or D airspace
1. Must leave the airspace (land at closest aerodrome, or by shortest route possible)
2. Set 7600 into transponder
3. Inform ATC ASAP of the actions taken
44
Steady green light
Cleared for take-off/landing
45
Flashing green light
Cleared to taxi/Return for landing
46
Steady red light
STOP/Give way, Continue circling
47
Flashing red light
Taxi clear of runway/Airport unsafe do not land
48
Flashing white light
Return to starting point on airport
49
Alternating red and green light
Exercise extreme caution
50
What defines an aeroplane?
Power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft deriving lift from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces that remain fixed in flight
51
Requirements for a Category 1 Medical
Required for CPL or ATPL, under 40: valid to first day of 13th month, 40 or over: valid to first day of 7th month, reverts to cat 3 after validity period
52
Requirements for Category 2 Medical
Required for ATC or flight engineers
53
Requirements for Category 3 Medical
Required for PPL, under 40: valid to first day of 61st month, 40 or over: valid to first day of 25th month
54
Requirements for Category 4 Medical
Required for RPP and SPP, Complete a medical declaration form, Under 40: valid to first day of 61st month, 40 or over: valid to first day of 25th month
55
Student Pilot Permit Requirements:
1. 14 Years of Age
2. PSTAR
3. Radio Licence
4. Medical
56
Student Pilot Permit Privileges:
Act as PIC of any aircraft within the category the permit relates: For flight training/flight tests, flight in Canada under day VFR, Under the supervision of a flight instructor, no passengers carried on board
57
Recreational Pilot Permit Requirements:
1. 16 Years of Age
2. 60% on Exam
3. Category 1, 3 Medical
4. 25 Hours
5. Flight Test
6. 15 Hours dual (2 hours x/c) and 5 solo
58
Recreational Pilot Permit Privileges:
Day VFR, Single engine aeroplane, max 4 seats, One passenger maximum, no trans-border flights
59
Private Pilot Licence Requirements:
1. 17 Years of Age
2. 60% on Exam
3. Category 1 or 3 Medical
4. 45 Hours Total Time
5. Flight Test
6. Minimum of 17 dual (3 hrs x/c, 5 hrs instrument) and 12 solo (5 hrs x/c)
60
Private Pilot Licence Privileges:
PIC or co-pilot of aeroplanes of a class and type endorsed on your licence
61
Night Rating Requirements:
1. Private Licence
2. 10 hrs at night (5 dual (including 2hrs x/c) 5 solo (including 10 take-offs and landings)
3. 10 hrs instrument (includes 5 from private)
62
Land to Sea Licence Conversion
7 hrs training (Minimum 5 hrs dual), and 5 solo take-offs and landings
63
Sea to Land Conversion
3 hrs training (minimum 2 hrs dual), and 5 solo take-offs and landings
64
5-Year Recency Requirement:
Act as PIC once in last 5 years or else have to right PSTAR and complete flight review with instructor, or satisfy 5 take-offs and landings within 6 months
65
2 Year Recency Requirement:
Many different ways to become recent (safety seminar, flight review, training program, study program, etc.)
66
What are type ratings:
Required for aircraft not under blanket rating (high-performance aircraft, min of 2 flight crew)
67
Requirements for High Performance Aeroplanes:
Vne of 250 kts or greater
| Vso of 80 kts or greater
68
VFR Minimum Distances (Built-Up Area):
No lower than 1000' within 2000' radius of highest object (don't create hazard to people on ground and not in an emergency)
69
VFR Minimum Distances (Non-Built Up Area):
Not lower than 500' above highest obstacle within 500' radius from any man-made thing)
70
List the regular exceptions to minimum height requirements
1. Police operations
2. Saving a life
3. Firefighting/air ambulance
4. Surveying
5. Flight Training
71
What is the accepted minimum height over national and provincial parks?
2000' AGL (can't land within national parks)
72
Speed limit below 10,000' ASL
250 KIAS
73
Speed limit below 3000' ASL within 10 NM or controlled airport
200 KIAS
74
VFR Weather Minima within Control Zones
3 SM Visibility, 1 NM Horizontal Distance from Clouds, 500' Vertical Distance from Clouds, and 500' AGL
75
VFR Weather Minima in Other Controlled Airspace
3 SM Visibility, 1 NM Horizontal Distance from Clouds, 500' Vertical Distance from Clouds
76
VFR Weather Minima in Un-Controlled Airspace above 1000' AGL
1 SM Visibility during the day, 3 SM Visibility during night, 2000' Horizontal distance from Clouds, 500' Vertical distance from Clouds
77
VFR Weather Minima in Un-Controlled Airspace below 1000' AGL
2 SM Visibility during the day, 3 SM Visibility at night, clear of clouds
78
Requirements for Special VFR
1. 2-Way Radio
2. Operate clear of cloud and within sight of ground
3. Only used for the purpose of landing
4. Pilot must request
5. Must have 1 mile Visibility
79
VFR Over the Top Requirements:
1. Day only
2. Weather at destination scattered or better, and visibility of 5 SM and no precipitation
3. Rating requires 15 hrs dual instrument
4. Included in CPL, can be added to PPL
80
Minimum Altitude Over Flying Aerodromes
2000' (there are exceptions)
81
Give the Right of Way Rules
Gliders gives way to balloons, airships give way to gliders, Power driven heavier-than-air gives way to airships, and aircraft towing objects
82
What way should two aircraft on a collision course turn, and which side do you overtake an aircraft?
The right
83
When approaching to land what decides who has the right of way?
Whoever is at the lower altitude
84
What are the requirements to perform aerobatics?
1. Over a non-built up area
2. In uncontrolled airspace
3. Visibility must be at least 3 miles
4. Above 2000' ft AGL unless have special flight certificate
85
What is defined as aerobatics?
Change in attitude with bank angle greater than 60 degrees, abnormal attitudes or abnormal acceleration
86
Requirements to conduct aerobatics with passengers:
1. 10 hrs dual instruction or 20 hrs conducting maneuvers
| 2. PIC flown 1 hr of maneuvers in last 6 months
87
Aerobatic Airspace
Class F airspace (may be boxes extending length of runway, to top of control zone)
88
Equipment for Day VFR (MOOFACTA)
```
M - Manifold Pressure Gauge (or Tachometer)
O - Oil Temperature Gauge
O - Oil Pressure Gauge
F - Fuel Quantity Gauge
A - Altimeter (Pressure Sensitive Within Controlled Airspace)
C - Compass (Magnetic)
T - Timepiece
A - Airspeed Indicator
```
89
Canadian Domestic Airspace is made up of two parts
Northern Domestic Airspace and Southern Domestic Airspace
90
What is the difference between NDA and SDA
NDA uses degrees true and SDA uses degrees magnetic
91
What is a Flight Information Region?
Area of defined dimensions within which flight information service and alerting services are provided
92
What is High Level Controlled Airspace?
18,000' ASL and above in Southern Control Area
FL 230 and above in Northern Control Area
FL 270 and above in Arctic Control Area
93
What are the dimensions of control zones?
Surface of the Earth to 3000' AAE, and a radius of 5 NM
94
What special characteristics do military and TCA control zones have?
radii of 10 and 7 NM respectively
95
What are low level airways?
Controlled airspace extending from 2200' AGL up to but not including 18,000' ASL
96
What are Control Area Extensions used for?
Connecting areas of controlled airspace, and extend upwards from 2200' AGL
97
What are Transition Areas used for?
Established when it is considered advantageous to provide additional airspace for the containment of IFR operations (based at 700' AGL to the base of overlying controlled airspace with a radius of 15 NM)
98
What shape does a Terminal Control Area take?
Upside down wedding cake
99
What is the purpose of Terminal Control Areas?
Controlled airspace of defined dimensions serving arriving, departing, and enroute aircraft
100
Class A Airspace
1. High-level controlled airspace to FL 600
2. Only IFR aircraft permitted (requires a clearance)
3. Mode C transponder
4. Two-way communication
101
Class B Airspace
1. IFR and CVFR permitted (requires a clearance)
2. Low-level controlled airspace above 12,500' ASL up to but not including 18,000' ASL
3. Can be control zones and terminal control areas
4. Mode C transponder
5. Two-way Communication
102
Class C Airspace
1. Controlled, both IFR and VFR
2. VFR requires clearance
3. Two-way communication
4. Mode C transponder
5. Becomes Class E when ATC not in operation
103
Class D Airspace
1. Controlled, both VFR and IFR
2. VFR must establish communication before entering
3. Two-way communication
4. Mode C transponder, if designated as transponder airspace
5. Becomes Class E when ATC not in operation
104
Class E Airspace
1. When control is needed but does not conform with other airspace
2. IFR and VFR permitted
3. No special requirements for VFR
4. Transponder only if designated
5. Control zones, low level airways, control area extensions, or transition areas
6. No active control of VFR
105
Class F Airspace
1. Two types: advisory (enter with caution), and restricted (do not enter)
2. Can be controlled or uncontrolled
3. When not active integrates into surrounding airspace
4. Information in Designated Airspace Handbook
106
Class G Airspace
1. All remaining airspace
| 2. Surface up to but not including 18,000' ASL, or surface to overlying airspace
107
What are low-level air routes?
Contained entirely within Class G airspace, same dimensions as low-level airways
108
When do cruising altitudes come into effect?
When flying 3000' AGL or higher
109
When flying between 0 and 179 degrees what altitudes do you cruise at? And when you are flying 180 to 359 degrees, what altitudes do you cruise at?
0 - 179: Odd 1000's + 500
| 180 - 359: Even 1000's + 500
110
What is the altimeter operation in the Altimeter Setting Region?
1. Set to current altimeter setting of aerodrome for take-off
2. During cruise set to nearest station along route
3. For landing set to altimeter setting of destination before descending
111
What is the altimeter operation in the Standard Pressure Region?
1. Set to current altimeter setting before take-off
2. Set to 29.92" for cruise
3. Set to destination altimeter before beginning descent
112
Transition between pressure regions
Set to standard pressure when entering SPR, and set to current altimeter setting when entering ASR
113
What requirements are in place to fly through an Air Defence Identification Zone?
Must file a DVFR flight plan or itinerary to enter, limits on flight path entry are +- 20NM or centreline of track and +- 5 minutes of entry time
114
What is ESCAT?
Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic - Instructs aircraft during an air defence emergency
115
How do you handle and interception?
Follow all instructions given to you, advise air traffic services, attempt to make radio contact with intercepting aircraft, and set transponder to 7700
116
Name the three transponder modes and what they do
Mode A - code and position
Mode C - code, position and altitude
Mode S - code, position, and other info
117
What are the 2 VFR Standard Transponder Codes?
1200 VFR at and below 12 500' ASL
| 1400 VFR above 12 500' ASL
118
Emergency Transponder Codes
7500 Hijacking
7600 Communication Failure
7700 Emergency
119
List the operational equipment required on board an aircraft
1. Checklists
2. Fire Extinguisher
3. Timepiece
4. First Aid Kit
5. Current Publications and Charts (VFR OTT, Night VFR, or IFR)
6. Flashlight (Night)
120
What are the minimum requirements for survival equipment?
1. Starting a fire
2. Providing shelter
3. Purifying water
4. Signalling distress
121
In addition to MOOFACTA, what else is required for Night VFR? (FATDAPPILOV)
1. Sensitive Pressure Altimeter
2. Turn and Slip Indicator/Turn Coordinator
3. Adequate Source of Energy for Electrics
4. Spare Fuses Totalling 50% of Required Fuses for Each Fuse Rating
5. Heading Indicator (Operating Away From an Airport)
6. Instrument Illumination
7. Landing Light (Passengers)
8. Anti-Collision and Position Lights
122
What is defined as night?
1/2 hour after sunset, 1/2 before sunrise
123
What do blinking runway lights indicate?
People and vehicles must clear the runway immediately
124
What are the VFR Fuel Requirements for Day flying?
Sufficient fuel to reach destination (account for delays, and taxiing), plus 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
125
What are the VFR Fuel Requirements for flying at night?
Sufficient fuel to reach destination (account for delays and taxiing), plus 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
126
What is an Aerodrome?
Any area of land or water or supporting surface intended for the arrival, departure, movement, and servicing of aircraft
127
What is an Airport?
An aerodrome with a certificate in force
128
What is the Maneuvering Area?
The part of an aerodrome intended to be used for the taking off and landing of aircraft and for the movement of aircraft associated with take-off and landing, excluding aprons
129
What is the Movement Area?
The part of an aerodrome intended to be used for the surface movement of aircraft, and include the maneuvering area and aprons
130
Name 4 markings that are usually on runways
1. Threshold
2. Touchdown Zone
3. 500' Markers
4. 1000' Markers
131
What is a displaced threshold used for?
Area available for taxiing, takeoff and landing rollout, may not be used for landing
132
What is a Blast Pad/Stopway used for?
Yellow markings indicate pavement is not suitable for aircraft movement
133
What side of the hold short line do you stay on?
The solid line
134
If there are no hold short lines on the edges of runways, how far away from the runway should you stop?
200 Feet
135
What must be in place for operations on intersecting runways to occur?
Must be cleared by ATC, and be in a controlled airport
136
What must be in place for a land and hold short instruction issued?
1. Must be able to stop 200 feet from intersecting runway
2. Weather minima: 1000 ft ceiling, 3 SM Vis
3. Runway dry
4. Tailwind less than 5 Kts
5. ATC clearance read back
137
What are some things you can do to avoid runway incursions?
1. Write down all clearances
2. Ask for clarification
3. Ask for progressive taxi
4. Look for traffic
5. Monitor tower when crossing runways
6. Look outside
7. Ensure beacon light is on, and nav lights at night
8. Be familiar with airport
138
When the wind sock is parallel to the horizontal, how fast is the wind? When it is 30 degrees below the horizon, how fast is the wind?
15 and 6 Knots respectively
139
Red sign with numbers
Runway hold short sign
140
Black sign with yellow lettering
Taxiway location signs
141
Yellow sign with black writing
Direction signs
142
In VASIS what do 2 sets of white lights, 2 sets of red lights, and 1 set of each lights mean?
Above glide path, below glide path, and on glide path respectively
143
In PAPI, what does 4 white lights mean, what does 2 white and 2 red lights mean, and what does 4 red lights mean?
High, On Glide Path, and Low, respectively
144
How far away must runway lighting be visible?
2 NM
145
What is required to activate Type J and Type K ARCAL?
Both: Within 15 NM of Airport
Type J: 5 Clicks within 5 Seconds of push to talk, only one setting
Type K: 7, 5, 3, Clicks within 5 Seconds, depending on required brightness
146
NOTAMN
NOTAMR
NOTAMC
New NOTAM
Replacing NOTAM
Cancelling NOTAM
147
What does a RWYCC of 6, and a RWYCC of 0 mean?
6 is perfect runway conditions, 0 is very slippery
148
Can a person operate an aircraft under VFR without a flight plan or flight itinerary?
No, unless they conduct the flight within 25 NM of the departure airport
149
Who can a flight plan be filed with?
An ATC Unit, a Flight Service Station or a Community Aerodrome Radio Station
150
When should an arrival report be filed for a flight plan?
As soon as practical, but no later than SAR time, if no SAR time 1 hour after last reported ETA
151
In addition to who you can file a flight plan with, who can you file a flight itinerary with?
A responsible person
152
If no SAR time is given on a flight itinerary when should you file an arrival report?
No later than 24 hours after the last reported ETA
153
Which way do most traffic patterns go?
Left-handed
154
What is an ATF?
Aerodrome Traffic Frequency, for active uncontrolled aerodromes, radio call made to "traffic"
155
What is a UNICOM?
Established as some ATF to advise about the conditions and traffic in the area
156
What is an MF?
Mandatory Frequency, used at uncontrolled aerodromes, calls made to "Radio"
157
When should you make calls through an MF?
Pretty much whenever you are changing your position/intention
158
What are the 7 required documents on board an aircraft?
1. Certificate of Airworthiness
2. Certificate of Registration
3. Operating Manual
4. Weight and Balance Report
5. Journey Log
6. Proof of Insurance
7. Crew Licences
159
What is an Aviation Occurrence?
Any accident or incident associated with the operation of an aircraft, or any situation/condition, if left unattended could lead to an accident or incident
160
What is the definition of an Aviation Accident?
An accident resulting directly from the operation of an aircraft, where a person sustains a serious injury or is killed, the aircraft sustains damage or failure, or the aircraft is missing or inaccessible
161
What is the definition of a Reportable Aviation Incident?
An incident resulting directly from the operation of an airplane having a maximum take-off weight greater than 5700 kg, where an engine fails, smoke or fire occurs, the aircraft is difficult to control, fails to land, fuel shortage, a collision, or risk of collision
162
Should you interfere with an aviation occurrence site?
No unless someone is dying
