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AV Laet QC > Air launched guided weapons 7316 > Flashcards

Air launched guided weapons 7316 Flashcards

1
Q

whats the definitions of a guided missile

A

contains or is connected to equipment which enables the flight path of the missile to be monitored and altered

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2
Q

definitions of a guided weapon

A

everything required to convey a guided missile from its storage site to a selected target

this includes:

missile

launching equipment

radars and fire control equipment

as well as the equipment for servicing testing and operating tyhe missile

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3
Q

describe the requirements of a guided missile airframe

A
  1. strong enough to contain missile components and withstand massive ‘G’ forces during captive and free flight
  2. hoisting and carriage facilities, and attachment ponts for control surfaces
  3. light to provide max range without having an overley large propulsion
  4. aerodynamic for max efficiency
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4
Q

what are the classifications of missiles?

A

A.A.M: AIR TO AIR MISSILE

S.A.M: SURFACE TO AIR MISSILE

A.S.M: AIR TO SURFACE MISSILE/ ANTISHIP

S.S.M: SURFACE TO SURFACE/SHIP TO SHIP MISSILE

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5
Q

Describe a blast warhead

A

relies on the blast wave caused ny the detonation to create excessive forces on the target

if combined with tamping can also create fragmentation effect

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6
Q

describe a fragmentation warhead and how is the effectivness of fragmentation determined

A

metal casing is designed to break-up when detonation occurs, to cause maximum damage from fragmentation travelling at high velocity

this is determined by:

A. increasing the number of fragments

B. decreasing the size of fragments (this causes a decrease momentum and therefore penatration effect)

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7
Q

describe annular fragmentation warhead

A

wrapped with titanium metal rods the explosive effect acts outwards in a cone or petal shaped pattern, with little blast going backwards/forwards

uses a proximity shaped fuze or impact fuze

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8
Q

describe expanding rings

A

continuous rods

expanding ring that breaks when it reaches max distance, and carries on as fragments

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9
Q

what is a blast pentatration warhead

A

heavy casing and stable explosive filling to withstand shock of penetration with a delayed fuze to aid with maximum structural damage

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10
Q

what is a tandem charge warhead

A

armour piercing shape and delayed action fuze penetrates the target before detonation occurs

dual blast to penetrate armour and detonate inside target

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11
Q

explain shaped charge warhead

A

munnro effect

instantanious impact fuzing

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12
Q

briefly describe contact fuzing

A

upon direct contact with target it will either be initaited simultaneously or with a delay to impart maximum damage,

types of contact:

electrical crush fuze

piezo-electric crystal

or inertia strikers

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13
Q

what is proximity fuzing

A

ususally used in A.A.M. aircraft are quite fragile so they will be effected by detonations that occure close by, (type of warhead) so the missile doesnt need to score a direct hit,

useally uses optical/radio/radar systems to detect targets

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14
Q

what are variable time fuzes?

A

allows the warhead to function after a pre-set delayed time using mechanical or electrical timers generally used with stationary targets

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15
Q

with reference to fuzes explain self-destruct

A

this is when the onboard electronics which run a clock to provide a timed self-destruct.

failing power output from internal power can also initiate a self destruct

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16
Q

what safety features are integrated within the safe arming unit (SAU)

A
  • the shutter retains the detonator and pyro out of alignment
  • acceleration latch arm prevent movement of the shutter prior to missile release
  • withdrawal lanyard locks acceleration sensitive latch arm in position
  • the latch arm can re-engage with shutter if accleration isnt maintained
  • the igniter firing lines are short-circuited until the piston gas motor is fired
  • RF filters prevent ignitition due to spurious RF radiation
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17
Q

state the purpose of the fuzing system

and

stringent requirements for arming

A

purpose: ensures warhead detonates at the correct time and prevents detonation during normal handling carriage and storage.

must have:

sufficient sustained acceleration,

time

safe separation distance

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18
Q

explain liquid fuel (turbojet)

A

used in long range missiles where economy is an advantage,

contains mini-jet engine, burning low cost conventional jet fuel

expensive

complex

limited in altitude

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19
Q

solid fuel rockets

A

burns fuel in atmospheric oxygen

rocket contains fuel and oxygen

can be used in a variety of specialist missiles

high operating speed and no altitude limits

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20
Q

what are the pros and cons between solid and liquid fuel

A

liquid is slower and limited in altitude,

solid is faster and no altitude restrictions

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21
Q

why is venturi effect used in propulsion nozzles

A

a narrow ‘thoat’ at the exhaust exit, venturi increase speed of exhaust gasses

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22
Q

how may you improve rocket motor performance

A

change the construction of the propellant either by shaping the cross sectional area or forming the proppellant into different sized granules or sticks to change the burn area

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23
Q

briefly discuss the construction of the ignition system

A
  • booster motors

large surface area high thrust for short period

  • sustainer motors

burning surface lessened and controlled to give a steady burn, low thrust over a long period of time

  • composite motors

combination of both booster and sustainer motors

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24
Q

where are the limits of drop distance damages and temperature ranges laid down

A

SEXSSI/MTP

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25
Q

what can cause rocket motor damage

A
  • cracks/ misshaping:

results in a change of the propellant burn are which could cause an increase to burst pressure in the rocket tube

  • incomplete initiation of the propellant

would prevent the missile accelerating at its design rate and therefore may not meet the requierments for arming

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26
Q

what is guidance in missiles used to overcome or at least reduce

A
  • initiial aiming errors
  • unpredictable variations in the flight of the missile
  • evasive action taken by the target
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27
Q

describe beam riding guidance

A

illuminated by an EM beam

the missile stays within the beam

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28
Q

explain command guidance

A

target detected by one radar

missile launched at target tracked by another radar

computer steers missile to intercept point

info transmitted via data link

line of sight:

short range

human aimer

controlled via joystick

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29
Q

describe homing guidance

A

missiles home in on received signals from target either from outside source or by missile and responds to that signal

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30
Q

with reference to homing explain types of homing

A

active: missile contains a transmitter/receiver transmits some form of energy towards target and follows received energy (similar to radar)

semi-active: missile receives reflected energy from outside source

passive: has a detector that receives energy from target (radio, sound waves IR or light)

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31
Q

describe proportional navigation

A

calculates target heading and velocity to calculate collision course,

avoids excessive manoeuvres for a pursuit course

constant bearing gives a better range

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32
Q

state the advantages of an IR guidance missile

A

accuracy

lethality

simplicity

security

tactical freedom

difficulty of applying countermeasures

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33
Q

what are the functions of the control services

A
  • provides roll and roll rate stabilisation
  • to correct any missile instability
  • accepts the manoeuvre demands and convert them into the control movements
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34
Q

what is meant by cartesian control

A

the control surfaces are at a right angle to each other and operate as pairs with guidance demands supplied as “up/down”, “left/right” signals

can move in both planes silultaneously

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35
Q

what is meant by polar control

A

has only one pair of moving surfaces

can only move in one plane at a time

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36
Q

name and briefly describe the 3 fixed or moving nozzle systems

A
  • jet deflectors/vanes

mechanical vanes are used to deflect motor exhaust to one side

  • jet tabs

similar in principle to jet deflectors/vanes but zero thrust lost since the tabs are outside the jet

  • jetevators

a ring placed around the circumference of the nozzle moves to deflect the vanes/tabs does not interfere with exhaust flow

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37
Q

what must a missile power supply be capable of doing

A
  • capable of remaining in storage for years, but quick to activate
  • checked prior to launching to ensure it will function as intended
  • activated without causing either a voltage surge or voltage drop when compared to pre-launch electrical power
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38
Q

describe the workings of a thermal battery

A

this is a dry battery with a solid gel electrolyte, this becomes a liquid when exposed to extreme heat caused by an explosive squib activating the battery

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39
Q

describe the working of a turbo generator

A

generators driven directly by the turbine exhaust, or a pre-charged cylinder within the missile

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40
Q

explain how an IR guidance control system works

A

chopper disc/reticule: pics up IR light

precession coils: move the seaker head towards the IR light source, through EMF, due to the out of phase IR light on the chopper disc

phase detector: detects the phase diference between the IR source from the chopper disc and the direction the missile is actually going

reference coils: detects homing head displacement, (from permanent magnetic) becomes unbalanced, signal compared with the error signal in the phase detector

controls fins: moves missile in desired direction

servo pistons: ensures gas outflow is correct pressure

balance chamber: ensures gas outflow is is same as inflow

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41
Q

describe pyrotechnic igniters

A

used to initiate liquid and solid fuel propusion systems

ignited by either a spark dishcharge or hot wire

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42
Q

describe a torque balance system

A

torque balance control system is basically the servo assembly, a method of driving the fins to either one of two positions

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43
Q

name the components of a generic sidewinder missile

A

Guidance control section

canards

active optical target detector

safe arming device (SAD)

warhead

Rocket motor

wings

rollerons

44
Q

name and describe the sidewinder variants

A

operational - used to acquire, track and destroy targets

acquisition - used during aircrew training to acquire and track a target

Telemetry - usedto prove operational missile under test conditions, warhead replaced with an electronics unit to downlink useable data

45
Q

3 marks

name and describe the 3 main guidance control sections (GCS)

A

infrared seeker assembly - used for detecting and tracking the target

electronics assembly - used for converting detected target information to tracking and guidance command signals

Servo assembly - converts electrical guidance commands to mechanical movement

46
Q

what is the Base block

A

Houses an inertia switch that uses deceleration (contact of the targetof 250G) to activate a switch creating a fireing pulse

47
Q

two functions of the umbilical cover

A

prevents and dirt and particles getting into the umbilical coolant gas pipeline

create a short circuit to isolate the firing circuit from the rocket motor

48
Q

purpose of the umbilical connector

A

two way data transfer between missile and A/C and pipeline for missile coolant

49
Q

describe the purpose of the Active optical target detector (AOTD)

A

detects the presence of a target to maximum effective range,

and generates an electrical firing signal to initate warhead detonation

50
Q

briefly state the purpose of SAD

A
  • prevents the warhead from functioning during storage, handling and transportation
  • designed to arm at a safe distance from launched aircraft (SSD)
  • detonates warhead upon command
51
Q

what is the purpose of the safe-arm key

A

miss aligns the propulsive train to provide maximum safety by preventing accidental inadvertant rocket igniton

52
Q

purpose of the rolleron

A

helps stabilise the missile and provides roll stabilisation

53
Q

3 main operations of missile launch

the GCS thermal battery operates?

A

initiates the AOTD thermal squib

applies a fireing voltage to the GCS servo gas grain generator squid

activates the SAD to electro-mechanically allow the arming process to continue

54
Q

describe missile free flight operation

A

uses proportional navigation through cartesian control until proximity or impact detonation

55
Q

warhead arming cannot be achieved unless

and

what happens if one of these conditions isn’t met

A
  1. deliberately launched
  2. sufficient acceleration
  3. sufficient time has elapsed following live release (SSD)

self destruct signal is sent to SAD

56
Q

how does the focal plane array work

A

recognises specific target profiles rather then a heat seeker

uses an array of detector elements (cooled to 77K) that identify energy from the missile’s surroundings to allow it to build a spatial map of the scene

the cryogenic engine ensures there is coolant for the entire mission

57
Q

breifly describe a cryogenic engine

A

negates the need for nitrogen cooling via the launcher

ensures there is coolant available for the entire mission

58
Q

what are the precautions to observe when handling the 9X sidewinder

A

do not lift or handle missle by jet vanes

ensure sheer wires aren’t removed

59
Q

what is the arm and fire device?

A

same as the safe arm key

safe arm selector handle uses a cross design

the safe or armed condition is indicated by the position of the white extension

it miss aligns the propulsive train to prevent inadvertant firing of the rocket

60
Q

briefly describe a meteor missiles with regards to the data link

A

has a data link facility that allows the launch aircraft or third parties to provide mid-course target updates or retargeting commands before an active homing radar seeker is employed for the terminal phase

61
Q

name and briefley describe the 4 variants of paveway P4

A

operational - this is a live warshot

practice - same flight characterisitcs as operational its cleard for flight, but with inert warhead and fuze

drill - known as the ground crew training weapon, not cleard for flight

telemetry - used to provide firing data

62
Q

name the 4 main component parts

A

warhead

enhance computer control group (ECCG)

P4 multi event hard target fuze (MEHTF)

bomb convdrsion kit

63
Q

describe how the P4 has been improved

A

to improve penatration survivability the case uses stronger alloy design combined with minimal increase in case thickness

64
Q

name and describe the 3 major sub assemblies of the (ECCG)

A

Guidance electronic detector assembly (GEDA)

control actuation section (CAS)

laser seeker

65
Q

need 3

explain the parts of the GEDA with referencce to ECCG

A

contains:

selective availability anti-spoofing module (SAASM)

GPS Aided inertial navigation system (GAINS)

two GPS antennas

height of burst (HOB)

keep alive battery port

66
Q

only need 3

parts in the control actuation section (CAS)

A

thermal battery

system battery firing device (BFD)

gas bottle/squib

67
Q

two environmental conditions of P4

A

detects SSD with a timer and perfroms a ballistic weapon arming manoeuvre (BWAM)

68
Q

what is late arming conditons

A

late arming is when the bomb will arm 1 sec before impact a long as it bomb is:

on course

serviceable

not being jammed or spoofed

and can only function when guidance is via GPS or INS

69
Q

how are boosters and fuzes matched

A

there must be matched serial number pairs

70
Q

especially the AFG

what are the P4 acceptance checks

A
  • aerofoil group

AFG securing screws

Tail unit release lever safety pin

Tail unit safety pin

71
Q

what are the purposes of the Forward adapter assembly and the nose plug

A

forward adapter assembly - provides mechanical interface between the warhead body and the ECCG

nose plug - used to interface with the forward adaptor and the enhanced penetration performance

72
Q

safety handling precautions with the P4 AFG

A

has a fragile construction at rear of each wing quadrant and therefore is not to be placed upright standing on the wing end

73
Q

precautions for the keep alive battery for the P4

A
  • must be replaced after every weapon sortie or after 24hrs if not flown
  • tendency to over heat
74
Q

what is the safety arrangement for the BFD

A

the safety wire is to pass through the firing pin, around the BFD twice, and have a safety pennant fitted

75
Q

what are the personnel safety precautions should you see signs of thermal battery activation

A

if any discolouration of the P4 ECCG due to heat then do not touch and leave for atleast 4 to 6 hours for cooling

76
Q

what are the indications the thermal battery is operated

A

heat sensitive pad colouration

white = servicable

black = unservicable/ operated

77
Q

ECCG storage container precautions

A

follow the relevent 5X preparation procedures

  • undo the latches at the four corners first, listen for escaping gases, if gases heard leave area let gases vent
  • undo the latch adjacent to the operator ensuring there is no obstruction opposite
  • under the final latch on opposite side and remove lid
78
Q

what is selective availability (SA)

A

deliberate error to deny potential aggressors with the most accurate positional data available

79
Q

what is anti-spoofing

A

a facility that is able to decrypt the GPS signal to authenticate their source and validity

80
Q

4 points

during prep and assembly what is the purpose of the readiness test set

A
  • supply operating voltages to the ECCG
  • monitor voltages from the ECCG and indicate pass or fail
  • test gas bottle firing pulse
  • check the acquisition and guidance circuits of the ECCG using a simulator ‘wand’
81
Q

what is the purpose of the chamelon laptop

A

checks power circuit responses and directional signals and checks the GAINS system

82
Q

what are the general armament safety precautions (GASPS)

A

missile returned unservicable if dropped more that is laid down in releavent SEXSSI (JSP862)

protective covers and pins are to remain fitted to missiles for as long as possible

do not roll or tumble rocket motor

avoid touching the rocket motor firing contacts

83
Q

what actions are to be taken in the event of a damaged infrared glass dome

A
84
Q

what would you use in the event of a missile fire and for how long

A

AFFF to extinguished the fire water to cool for 30 mins

this alleviates mechanical expansion stresses

and increased sensitivity of explosive content

85
Q

why is the defects reports procedure in place

A

to report all failures and faults within a timescale

ensures the incident is quckly investigated and identified

and helps to ensure corrective actions can be implemented

86
Q

how is the MF760 defect report to be distributed out

A
  • translucent form with equipment to defence munitions
  • one copy to the DM where equipment is to be landed
  • one copy to administrative authority so precautionary step can be carried out
  • one copy retained by the originator
87
Q

Requirements of a launcher

A
  • to be able to carry and restrain missiles in captive flight
  • enable armed release or safe jettison
  • aircraft stores managment system (SMS)
  • pre - launch power supplies and information to missile
88
Q

state the components of a typical GW launcher

A

outer housing assembly

electronics unit

mechanical assembly

safety pin

coolant gas bottle

arming units

snubbers (wedges)

‘L’ connectors

89
Q

when would the fire button be pressed

A

when target is within range - “FIRE” button pressed

90
Q

purpose of the 2 way umbilical of the P4

A

2 way data transfer

91
Q

what is monitored by the launcher electronics unit

A

missile internal power unit

92
Q

when the launcher electronics unit achieves the requirements met what will it do

A

launcher electronics unit issues motor ignition signal and arming signal if required

93
Q

with regards to SEA SKUA what components make up the missile centre assembly

A
  • an E-pack
  • autopliot
  • thermal batteries
  • radar altimeter transmitter aerial
  • the radar altimeter data processing unit
94
Q

with SEA SKUA how is guidance achieved

A

semi-active homing in azimuth

Rad Alt for heigth control

95
Q

what happens if SEA SKUA loses target lock

A

if radar lock is lost, the missile’s electronics and auto pilot will carry on the attack using stored information until the target is re-acquired (last known position)

96
Q

with reference to SEA SKUA what are the modes of operation for the warhead

A

2 milli second delay (provides improved penatration/blast effect)

instantaneous operation on impact with target (to overcome threat of lightly constructed fast patrol craft during gulf operation)

97
Q

what is the purpose of the SEA SKUA safe arming unit

A

isolate the warhead, physically or electronically

deliberately released armed or safe

initiate on impact with target or self destruct

98
Q

how is control achieved

A

control surfaces are operated by four separate electrical motors, powered by the thermal battery

99
Q

purpose of the MIDU in the SEA SKUA

A

successfully released the ignition of the motors is delayed until clear of the aircraft

inhibits motor ignition missiles release attitude is incorrect

visual indication of the ignition circuits condition

100
Q

what are the indication colours of the MIDU

A

safe condition:

GREEN/WHITE diagonal stripes

unsafe (armed)

RED

safe but operated condition:

YELLOW/BLACK stripes

101
Q

what is visible on the upper surface of the missile between the two rocket motors

A

ground safety pin/pennant

a sight tube for checking of visual display

green (safe - shorting plug)

black/yellow (arming plug)

102
Q

what does the MIDU and SAU ensure

A
  • deliberatly selected for release in an armed role
  • release sequence is correct
  • missiles attitude after release is correct
  • warhead is not armed unless it is deliberately selected
103
Q

what does the tactical datalink of the SEA VENOM do

A
  • remain on control of up to 4 missiles at the same time
  • positively identify intended targets
  • re-designate targets while the missile is in flight
  • perform a missile abort
  • specify a precise aim point on the intended target/building
104
Q

what is the propulsion system of the SPEAR CAP 3

A

liquid fuel turbojet propulsion system

105
Q

what are the guidance modes of the FASGW (L) and why is it chosen

A

laser beam riding or laser designation

semi-active laser homing

impossible to jam works with low reflectivity targets (rubber boats)

106
Q

what are the Paveway 4, 4 main components

A

P4 warhead

enhanced computer control group (ECCG)

P4 multi event hard target fuze (MEHTF)

bomb conversion kit

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