Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

WELL AP Exam > Air Concept > Flashcards

Air Concept Flashcards

1
Q

How many deaths are caused by air pollution annually?

A

50,000 in US

7 million worldwide (1 in 8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much air do we breathe per day?

A

15,000 liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 6 major air pollutants?

A
  1. Carbon Monoxide (CO)
  2. Lead (Pb)
  3. Nitrogen dioxode
  4. Ozone
  5. Particultates (PM10 and PM 2.5)
  6. Sulfur Dioxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many Air features are there and how many preconditions/optimizations?

A

29 features
12 Preconditions
17 optimizations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

01 - Air Quality, part 1, VOCs:

what are the levels for Formaldehyde and total VOCs?

A

Formaldehyde is 27 ppb

VOCs less than 500 ug/m3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

01-part 2, particulates and inorganics:

what are the 4 types?

A
  1. Carbon monoxoide
  2. Fine Particles (PM 2.5)
  3. Coarse Particles (PM 10)
  4. Ozone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

01-Part3, Radon:

where is it measured and what’s the threshold?

A

4 pCi/L at lowest occupied level of building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

02-Smoking Ban:

How much does smoking shorten life expectancy?

A

10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

02-Smoking Ban:

how many ingredients are in a cigarette and how many are toxic?

A

600 ingredients burn to form 7,000 compounds of which 69 are known carcinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

02-Smoking Ban, part 2: Outdoor Ban

How large is the area in which smoking is banned?

A

Full Ban Within 25ft of entrances,
and all decks patios balconies,
and signage about smoking hazards along all walkways beyond 25ft with signs every 100’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

03 Ventilation effectiveness -

which regulation sets standards for adequate ventilation?

A

ASHRAE 62.1.2013

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

03 Ventilation effectiveness - part 1 - design

Projects demonstrate that ambient air quality within 1 mi is compliant with what?

A

EPA’s NAAQs for 95% of all hours in previous year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

03 Ventilation effectiveness - part 2 - (DCV) Demand Controlled Ventilation
A DCV system is used to keep CO2 levels below ___ppm, when the space is ___ or larger and occupancy is more than ___ people per _____ SF

A 
CO2 = 800 ppm
space = 500 SF or larger
occupancy = 25 people per 1,000 SF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

03 Ventilation effectiveness - part 3 System Balancing

When does HVAC system get tested and balanced and what is the documentation required?

A

Systems get balanced after completion and before occupancy;

doc is an annotated CX Report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

04 VOC Reduction - part 1 interior paints:

need to meet one of which 3 requirements?

A
  1. 100% of CARB or SCAQMD Rule 1113
  2. 90% by volume of CDPH
  3. ASTM standards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What’s ASTM

A

American Society of Testing & Materials, 12,000 standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

04 VOC Reduction - part 2 Adhesives and Sealants:

need to meet one of which 3 requirements?

A
  1. 100% SCAQMD Rule 1113
  2. 90% by volume of CDPH
  3. ASTM standards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

04 VOC Reduction - part 3&4 - flooring and insulation:

both must meet what standard?

A
  1. 100% by volume of CDPH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

04 VOC Reduction - part 5 - Furniture

must meet what standard?

A

95% by cost ANSI/BIFMA e3-2011

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

05 Air Filtration, Part 1 - Filter Accomodation

What two things must recirculated air systems be able to accomodate?

A
  1. rack space and fan capacity for future carbon filters

2. additional filters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

05 Air Filtration, Part 2 - Particle Filtration:

What size MERV filter is used for outdoor air?

A

MERV 13 or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ambient outdoor PM10 and PM 2.5 levels measured ____ distance from building are measured below WELL standards for ____how long

A

1 mile

95% of all hours throughout demonstration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How often do projects need to provide IWBI with air filtration maintenance records?

A

annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

06 Microbe and Mold Control:

  1. What devices are used, where?
  2. What should be inspected and how often?
A
  1. UVGI - ultraviolet germicidal irradiation;
    on cooling coils and drain pans;
  2. ceilings, walls and floors for discoloration, visible mold, water damage, pooling - quarterly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

07 Construction Pollution, Part 1?

A

Duct Protection - they are sealed during construction and vacuumed out prior to installing grills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

07 Construction Pollution, Part 2 - Filter Replacement

When are they replaced?

A

If used during construction, all filters replaced Prior to occupancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What 3 techniques are used to reduce/contain/remove dust during construction?

A
  1. seal doors and windows with temporary barriers
  2. walk-off matts
  3. tools have dust guards/collectors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

08 Healthy Entrance - Part 1 walk off mats: Size?

A

width of entrance and 10ft long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

09 Cleaning Protocol (for air quality):

Part 1 Cleaning Plan - Which 4 elements must be in the plan?

A
  1. list of high-touch and low-touch surfaces
  2. a schedule
  3. cleaning protocol (covers evaluation, product selection, disinfection, entryway maint., and waste stream) and dated logs
  4. List of approved product seals
30
Q

09 Cleaning Protocol - Cleaning Products

Which standards must products meet and which cleaning guidelines are followed?

A

a) DfE, EcoLogo, Green Seal

b) LEED EBOM v4, Green Seal 42

31
Q

10- Pesticide Management:

a Plan of use must be based on _______ and products used must have a hazard tier ranking of ____.

A

a) San Francisco Environment Code IPM Program

b) Tier 3 (lowest)

32
Q

Atrazine, is a pesticide that may cause what?

A

endocrine disruptor, cardiovascular problems

33
Q

Glyphosate (the active ingredient in ___) may lead to___ and ____.

A

RoundUp
Kidney problems
Reproductive difficulties

34
Q

11 - Fundamental Material Safety - P1 Asbestos and Lead Restriction - What are the limits?

A

No asbestos

100 ppm lead

35
Q

11 - Fundamental Material Safety - P2 Lead Abatement: When does it occur?

A

On buildings constructed prior to banning laws (1970s) in accordance with 40 CFR Part 745

36
Q

11 - Fundamental Material Safety - P3 Asbestos Abatement: How often and using what standard on applicable buildings?

A

inspect every 3 years using NESHAP;

abate (repair, encapsulate, enclose, maintain, remove) with AHERA 40 CFR part 763

37
Q

11 - Fundamental Material Safety - P4 PCB abatement;

when, remove what, according to which standard?

A

buildings between 1950 and banning laws -
PCB containing fluorescent light balasts
EPA Steps to Safe PCB

38
Q

11 - Fundamental Material Safety - P5 Mercury Limitation - which 5 products should be avoided?

A

Mercury containing thermometers, switches, electrical relays, mercury vapor lamps

39
Q

12 - Moisture Management (Last Air Precondition)

What are the 4 ways moisture can enter?

A

bulk water
capillary water
air transported moisture
vapor diffusion

40
Q

Designers must describe how exterior liquid is addressed for which 4 areas of concern -

A
  1. Site Drainage
  2. Local Water Table
  3. Building Penetrations
  4. Porous exterior materials
41
Q

Designers must describe how interior H2O is managed for these 4 areas of concern:

A
  1. plumbing leaks
  2. hard-piped appliances (clothes washers etc.)
  3. Porous interior materials
  4. New building materials wetted during construction
42
Q

Which resource can be used as a reference for Moisture Management?

A

EPA’s “Moisture Control Guidance for Building Design, Construction, and Maintenance”

43
Q

Part 3 and 4 of Feature 12 Moisture management are called:

A

Part 3: Condensation Management

Part 4: Material Selection and Protection

44
Q

Feature 13 - Air Flush:

Once construction is complete, a flush is conducted with indoor air temp of at least ___ degrees and humidity _____

A

59 degrees

below 60%

45
Q

A single stage Air Flush Volume should have a volume of:

A

4,500 m3 outdoor air per m3 of floor area

46
Q

A 2-stage air flush can be done - with a pre-occupancy volume of ____ followed by ____ after occupancy

A

1,066 m3/m2 floor

3,200 m3/m2

47
Q

Feature 14 - Air Infiltration Management:

Air Leakage testing (Envelope Commissioning) is performed _____(when), according to _____(what) and what_____?

A

After substantial completion but Before occupancy,

according to ASHRAE 0-2005 and NIBS 3-2012.

48
Q

Feature 15 - Increased Ventilation:

Buildings must supply fresh air ___% than ASHRAE?

A

30% higher

49
Q

16 - Humidity Control: Ventilation must maintain humidity between ___ and ___.

A

30% to 50%

50
Q

Climates with narrow humidity ranges are encouraged to show that Modeled humidity is ____ for what period of time?

A

modeled as between 30-50%

for 95% of all business hours

51
Q

An increase in Humidity by ___% can lead to formaldehyde off-gassing by ___.

A

35%

factor of 1.8-2.6

52
Q

17 - Direct Source Ventilation:

a) which rooms need to be separated,
b) what are the potential contaminants and
c) what methods of separation can be used?

A

a) cleaning & chemical storage units, bathrooms, printer/copier rooms
b) VOCs, Ozone, mold and mildew (cause asthma and allergies)
c) self-closing doors, exhausting air

53
Q

18 - Air Quality Monitoring

a) which pollutants are measured
b) how often is data collected,
c) who is data sent to, and
d) how often is it transmitted?

A

a) particle count, carbon dioxide, ozone
b) once an hour
c) occupants and IWBI
d) annually

54
Q

18 - Air Quality Monitoring part 2, records:

how long are records kept?

A

min of 3 years

55
Q

Which 3 parameters need to be displayed on the air quality display and how large is the screen?

A
  1. temperature
  2. humidity
  3. Carbon dioxode

15 cm x 13 cm

56
Q

19 - Operable Windows:

what needs to be analyzed before integrating these into a design?

A

local outdoor air quality conditions including:

1) annual prevailing breeze patterns
2) average contaminant levels

57
Q

19 - Operable Windows, Part 2 -

outdoor levels of what 4 parameters are measured, and where

A
  1. ozone
  2. PM10
  3. temp
  4. humidity
    at a data gathering station within 1 mile
58
Q

19, part 3 - Window Operation management -
open windows discouraged when poor air quality exists and should be indicated on smartphones and indicator lights if
a) Ozone exceeds ____ or PM 10 is _____
b) Temp is ___ degrees different than indoor, or
c) humidity is above _____%

A

a) Ozone 51 ppb or PM10 over 50 ug/m3
b) temp 15 degrees +/-
c) humidity over 60%

59
Q

20 - Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems (DOAS) - ASHRAE doesn’t have a standard for them - what should be used instead?

A

a design review by an independent registered Mechanical Engineer

60
Q

21 - Displacement Ventilation:

makes air change more effective by placing vents where and meeting what requirements?

A

a) supply at floor level slightly cooler or warmer than desired temp
b) ASHRAE 55-2013 for comfort for 75% of space

61
Q

22 - Pest Control

all food is stored (where) ___ and all indoor trash cans have a lid and less than 30 gal have ______

A

in sealed containers;

hands-free operation, or under cabinetry in a pull-out drawer

62
Q

23- Advanced Air Purification: Part 1

____ filtration is used to reduce VOCs

A

activated carbon

63
Q

In spaces with more than ____ occupants, ____ is used to sanitize recirculated air.

A

10 regular occupants

UVGI or Photocatalytic oxidation

64
Q

24 - Combustion minimization, Part 3

What should be visible from pick-up/drop off parking areas:

A

No Idling over 30 seconds

65
Q

25 - Toxic Material Reduction, Part 1 - PFCs:

a) What are they and b) what’s the req for furniture or furnishings?

A

a) Perflourinated chemicals/ PFOA - stain repellants, Scotchguard, Goretex, Non-stick cookware.
b) no more than 100ppm in 5% by weight of goods

66
Q

25 - part 2 - Flame Retardants:

Where are they found and what’s the limit?

A

100 ppm; found in -

1) window and waterproof membranes
2) flooring, ceiling tiles, wallpaper
3) piping and electrical cables
4) insulation
5) upholstered furniture, textiles, fabrics

67
Q

Phthalate - Where are they found and what’s the limit?

A

100 ppm;

Plasticizers - DNOP (in PVC) in flooring, window blinds, vinyl shower curtains, plumbing pipes

68
Q

25 - Toxic Material Reduction, Part 5 - Urea Formaldehyde:

Where are they found and what’s the limit?

A

100 ppm;

  1. furniture/composite wood
  2. laminating adhesives
  3. Thermal Insulation
69
Q

26 - Enhanced Material Safety - project completes all imperatives of the Materials Petal in Living Building Challenge; or products are ___% by ____ certified

A

25% by cost are

a) Cradle to Cradle;
b) have no Green Screen Benchmark over 1,000 ppm

70
Q

27 - Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces;

High touch surfaces are cleaned with ___

A

a UV cleaning device with an output of 4 mW/cm2

71
Q 
28 - Cleanable Environment - 
Materials need to be 
1) smooth and \_\_\_\_\_\_
2) finished to maintain \_\_\_\_\_\_
3) free of sharp internal \_\_\_\_, \_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_.
A

1) free of defects to the naked eye
2) smooth welds and joints
3) angles, corners and crevices

72
Q

29 - Cleaning Equipment:

mops and dusters are made out of ____, and vacuums have____

A

microfiber Denier 1.0

HEPA filters

WELL AP Exam (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions