AG Set 1 of 4 Flashcards

1
Q

____________________ authority does
not involve actual physical contact with
the subject, but involves the use of the
law enforcement officer’s authority to exert
control over a subject.

A

Constructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An officer authorized to use a CED or
a less-lethal device pursuant to this Policy
may fire, discharge, or utilize drive
stun mode of the device during an actual
operation only against a threatening
assailant who will not voluntarily submit
to custody after having been given a
____________________ opportunity to
do so considering the exigency of the
situation and the immediacy of the need
to employ law enforcement force.

A

reasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A law enforcement officer may only use
deadly force to apprehend a fleeing suspect
in the rare case when the suspect’s
escape would create an imminent
______________________ of death or
serious bodily injury to the officer or a
member of the public if the suspect is not
immediately apprehended.

A

danger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

As soon as any local, county, or state
law enforcement agency learns of a
law enforcement incident, the agency
should ____________________ notify
the County Prosecutor’s Office of the
county in which the incident occurred,
who shall in turn immediately notify the
OPIA Director or their designee.

A

immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Any deployment of a conducted energy
device, or less-lethal device falls under
the definition of ___________________
mechanical force

A

enhanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_________________
_________________ means a
non-contact demonstration of a
conducted energy device’s ability to
discharge electricity that is done as an
exercise of constructive authority to
convince an individual to submit to
custody.

A

Spark display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A CED shall not be used against a
person who is a passive or an active
__________________.

A

resistor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A conducted energy device shall not be
fired or discharged for the sole purpose
of preventing a person from committing
___________________ damage.

A

property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Subjects against whom a conducted energy
device has been deployed shall be
transported to a medical facility for examination
if the subject was exposed to
three or more discharges from a CED
during the encounter or the subject has
been exposed to a continuous discharge
lasting __________________ seconds
or longer.

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An officer authorized to use a less-lethal
device pursuant to this policy may fire
or discharge the device during an actual
operation, only against an active
__________________.

A

assailant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

________________
__________________ refers to
surrounding a violator’s moving vehicle
with moving pursuit vehicles which are
then slowed to a stop along with the
violator’s vehicle.

A

Boxing in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All officers are required to attend pursuit
training __________________.

A

annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The ______________________ of AG
Law Enforcement Directive No. 2019-4
- Independent Investigation of Criminal
Cases Involving Police Use of Force or
In-Custody Deaths is to outline clear procedures
governing such investigations
and to ensure that they are done fully,
fairly, and independently of any potential
bias.

A

purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

____________________ shall serve as
the “default” independent investigator in
the following circumstances, subject to
a conflict check conducted pursuant to
Review for Conflicts of Interest section:
- The use of force by a law enforcement
officer resulting in death or serious bodily
injury likely to result in death;
- The death of a civilian during an encounter
with a law enforcement officer;
- The death of a civilian while in the
custody of law enforcement, where the
death could be plausibly linked to the
actions of a law enforcement officer,
whether through the intentional use of
force or a reckless indifference to human
life; (In cases involving a death inside
a prison, jail, or other detention
facility, the investigation shall be subject
to the protocols described under
Death-in-Custody Investigations section
of this Directive.

A

OPIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If any individual or organization sends
a written request to the independent investigator
seeking the release of LE Incident
footage, the independent investigator
shall authorize the release of
such footage once they have concluded
that the initial investigation is sub-stantially complete, subject to the conditions
below and any other legal restrictions
that would limit public release.
Generally speaking, the initial investigation
shall be deemed substantially complete
once all available material witnesses
have been interviewed and the physical
and documentary evidence most relevant
to the case has been gathered.
Typically, these steps take no more than
____________________ days to complete.

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The independent investigator may, in
their discretion, authorize the digital blurring
of footage to obscure the identity
of any person, including a law enforcement
officer, if the independent investigator
concludes that the public release
would substantially threaten the safety
or privacy of that individual. The editing
shall be done in a way that does not
conceal the actions of any person who
is using physical force against another.
Any digital blurring shall be made to a
____________________ of the recording
intended for public release; under no
circumstances may the independent investigator
alter in any way the master
copy of the recording.

A

copy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For all other cases involving LE Incidents
(i.e., those not resulting in death),
the independent investigator shall present
the matter to a Grand Jury, except
that the independent investigator
may decline to do so in cases where
the independent investigator and the Independent
Supervisory Reviewer agree
that the undisputed facts indicate that the Principal’s use of force in the LE Incident
was ____________________.

A

justified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In regards to Arrestee’s Dependents,
if unable to make arrangements,
the _____________________
___________________ or arresting officer
notifies the appropriate municipal,
county or state agency of the arrest and
need for alternate care.

A

shift supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If a person in police custody is
likely to be detained more than
__________________ hours, that person
shall be questioned whether any
child or other person is dependent solely
upon the arrestee for care, sustenance
or supervision.

A

two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Local law enforcement agencies shall
report all confirmed or suspected bias
incidents through the eUCR system as
soon as is practicable, but not more than
___________________ hours from the
initial law enforcement response.

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The local law enforcement agency shall
immediately notify the Bias Crimes Unit
at DCJ in cases of suspected or confirmed
bias incidents involving:
1. ____________________, aggravated
sexual assault, sexual assault, aggravated
assault or arson,
2. An organized
_____________________ group as the
suspected perpetrator, and
3. The potential to generate large scale
public ____________________ .

A

homicide / hate / unrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A minor is considered emancipated from
his parents when the minor:
- Has been ___________________;
-Has entered military service;
- Has a child or is
___________________; or
- Has been previously declared by a
court or an administrative agency to be
emancipated.

A

married / pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The domestic violence assailant must be
the age of ____________________ or over or ____________________ at
the time of the offense.

A

18 / emancipated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In determining which party in a domestic
dispute is the victim, the officer should
consider:
1. The comparative extent of
__________________ suffered;
2. The _____________________ of domestic
violence between the parties, if
any, or
3. Other relevant factors.

A

injuries / history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In a domestic violence incident, if
the owner of the weapon refuses
to surrender the weapon, the officer
should obtain a ___________________
__________________ Warrant for the
Search and Seizure of Weapons.

A

Domestic Violence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Under New Jersey law,
___________________ orders of protection
are prohibited. However, each
party may obtain a separate restraining
order against the other party. And this
would not be considered a mutual order
of protection.

A

mutual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If an out-of-state court order appears
to be facially valid, the officer
should arrest the defendant for violating
the terms of the court order. The defendant should be charged with
_______________________.

A

contempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Officers who are involved in any domestic
violence incident involving a
police response, regardless of jurisdiction,
must immediately notify the
________________ supervisor of their
department.

A

on-duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Upon arrival on the scene of a domestic
violence call or incident involving
a law enforcement officer, the primary
patrol unit will immediately notify
dispatch and request the primary
patrol ____________________ or
____________________ commander to
report to the scene, regardless of the
involved officer’s jurisdiction.

A

supervisor / shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The primary patrol supervisor or shift
commander will immediately report to
the scene of all law enforcement officer
domestic violence incidents regardless
of the involved officer’s jurisdiction.
The on-scene supervisor
will immediately notify the on-scene
supervisor’s ____________________
__________________ Office of any domestic
violence incident involving a law
enforcement officer for direction on handling
the case regardless of whether
criminal charges are filed or a restraining
order is issued.

A

County Prosecutor’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

According to the model policy for officers
involved in a domestic violence incident,
if the law enforcement officer’s
duty and off-duty firearms and weapons
have not already been turned in pursuant
to the Attorney General Weapons
Seizure Directives, the weapons shall be __________________
___________________ by the Department.

A

immediately seized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A law enforcement officer who is alleged
to be involved in an act of Domestic
Violence who has had his/her
weapons seized pursuant to an act of
Domestic Violence must immediately report
that fact to the officer’s departmental
___________________.

A

supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When an officer is arrested for domestic
violence, the arresting officers’
supervisor must notify the prosecutor’s
office in the county where
the charge has __________________
__________________.

A

been filed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When an officer is arrested for domestic
violence, all weapons other than his department
issued one will be forwarded to
the County prosecutor’s office where the
__________________ took place.

A

seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The Extremer Risk Protective Order
Act’s ____________________ is to save
lives in New Jersey, including the lives of
the respondents and those around them

A

goal

36
Q

Law enforcement and prosecutors shall
establish and request that the search
warrant associated with an ERPO application
be issued by the court under
the standard of _______________
______________.

A

probable cause

37
Q

In determining whether to issue a TERPO
or a FERPO, the court may consider
all relevant evidence and the list of fifteen
factors a court may consider in accordance
to the Administrative Office of the
Courts (AOC) Guideline which will be known as the “____________________
factors.”

A

ERPO

38
Q

The law enforcement agency must immediately,
or as soon as possible initiate
an ERPO internal affairs investigation,
which must be completed in
____________________ hours but may
request an extension of time from the
county prosecutor’s office or the Division
of Criminal Justice to complete the
ERPO internal affairs investigation upon
a showing of good cause.

A

48

39
Q

All other weapons owned, possessed,
or controlled by the respondent-officer
that are seized or surrendered are to be
promptly forwarded to the county prosecutor’s
office of the county in which
the law enforcement agency conducting
the ERPO internal affairs investigation
is ____________________, or for State
agencies, where the respondent resides,
in accordance with the county prosecutor’s
procedures for the seizure and
transportation of weapons.

A

located

40
Q

If the court finds good cause to believe
that the respondent poses an immediate
and present danger, the court shall order
the _____________________.

A

TERPO

41
Q

_____________________
_____________________ shall be
issued under standard of probable
cause.

A

Search warrant

42
Q

If the court finds by a preponderance of
evidence that the respondent poses a
significant danger, the court shall order
the _____________________.

A

FERPO

43
Q

Information provided by law enforcement
for the ERPO is only for the court’s consideration,
not other parties’ inspection,
and only the ____________________
has the right to this information.

A

respondent

44
Q

Under Megan’s Law, incarcerated
offenders are required to register
prior to release, and within
____________________ hours of release,
shall also register with the chief
law enforcement officer.

A

48

45
Q

Sex offenders moving to New Jersey
from Out-of-State, must notify the Chief
Law Enforcement Officer of the Municipality,
or the State Police within
_______________ days of their arrival in
New Jersey.

A

10

46
Q

Sex offenders who have been found
to be repetitive and compulsive
must verify their address every
_________________ days. All others
must verify __________________.

A

90 / annually

47
Q

Upon a change of school employment
or school enrollment status, a
Megan’s Law registrant shall notify the
law enforcement agencies with which
the person is registered no later than
____________________ days after any
such change.

A

5

48
Q

Under John’s Law, the vehicle operated
by the person placed under arrest
shall be impounded by the law enforcement
agency making the arrest for
________________ hours from the time
of the arrest.

A

12

49
Q

Under John’s Law, if the vehicle is owned
or leased by the arrested person, then the vehicle may be released to another
person, if the arrestee has given
his or her ______________________
to the other person to operate the
vehicle, the person given permission
accepts the conditions of the release
of the vehicle, and the person
given permission acknowledges
in _____________________, receipt of
the potential liability warning.

A

permission / writing

50
Q

Under John’s Law, if the person to whom
the vehicle will be released is not the
______________________ or lessee,
and has refused or declined to accept receipt
of the potential liability warning, the
vehicle shall not be released before the
end of the 12-hour period of impoundment.

A

owner

51
Q

The DWI zero tolerance law addresses
operation of a motor vehicle by a person
who has a blood alcohol concentration
of ______________________ or more,
but less than .08% who is under the legal
age to purchase alcoholic beverages.

A

0.01%

52
Q

In regards to DWI enforcement, blood
test results obtained by a hospital
are generally protected by the physician-
patient privilege. If there is an evidentiary
need to obtain these results,
they may be obtained by obtaining a
___________________.

A

subpoena

53
Q

Whenever an officer obtains information
from the subject of a DWI arrest
that the subject has consumed
alcoholic beverages at a commercial
establishment, the officer shall also
complete a LD-1 (_________________
_________________ location report).

A

Last Drink

54
Q

To conduct a strip search, if
not in custodial confinement, with
no exigent circumstances, you
must have a ___________________
___________________ or consent.
With exigent circumstances, you must
have ___________________ cause.

A

search warrant / probable

55
Q

A strip search is allowed during custodial
confinement circumstances, when
the officer in charge authorizes confinement
in a municipal detention facility
or transfer to an adult correctional
facility, and authorizes search, and
ONE of the following: search warrant, or
consent, or _____________________
__________________ to believe that
the person is concealing a weapon, contraband
or Controlled Dangerous Substances.

A

reasonable suspicion

56
Q

The procedures to follow in conducting
a body cavity search require
that it be conducted by licensed
physician or registered nurse
of __________________ sex, conducted
in ________________________, in a
medically acceptable manner and environment,
and under sanitary conditions,
and in accordance with Department of
Corrections regulations.

A

same / private

57
Q

Law enforcement’s overriding
___________________ therefore must
be to treat individuals in a manner that
is appropriate to their gender identity or
expression, which may be different from
the gender they were assigned at birth or
the gender that is listed on their official
identification. To that end, this Directive
- and an Appendix included at the end - will help officers better understand the
right language to use, the appropriate
searches to conduct, and more, whether
we are interacting with victims, witnesses,
suspects, arrestees, or members of
the public.

A

goal

58
Q

The general rule under this Directive
is simple: whenever the action that
an officer takes depends at least in
part on an individual’s gender, then
that action shall be performed in accordance
with the individual’s gender
____________________, regardless of
the gender that individual was assigned
at birth and/or their anatomical characteristics.
In other words, officers must
treat a transgender woman as they
would treat any other woman, and they
must treat a transgender man as they
would treat any other man.

A

identity

59
Q

Transporting a transgender person
alone, when requested and when doing
so is practicable and ensures that individual’s
___________________.

A

safety

60
Q

Studies show that transgender, non-binary,
and gender non-conforming individuals
face higher risks of abuse and
__________________ when held in detention
than other individuals, and are
therefore more likely than other individuals
to warrant such accommodations.
When a law enforcement officer is made
aware of such risks to a person’s safety
or well-being, the officer should be particularly
sensitive to these concerns.

A

violence

60
Q

Officers shall respectfully inquire of
non-binary or gender non- conforming
individuals as to their preference with respect to the gender of the searching
officer and perform searches in accordance
with that preference where possible.
Any search that is not conducted
in accordance with the individual’s stated
preference must, where practicable,
be reviewed and approved by a supervisor.
The denial shall be documented in
___________________.

A

writing

61
Q

Officers shall transport such individuals
with arrestees of the gender that is safest
for them, taking into account which gender
that individual expresses to be safest
for them. Any transportation that is not
done in accordance with the individual’s
stated preference must, where practicable,
be reviewed and approved by a
_________________.

A

supervisor

62
Q

Gender ___________________: A person’s
gender-related appearance and
behavior, whether or not stereotypically
associated with the person’s gender assigned
at birth. It is the manner in which
a person represents or expresses their
gender to others, such as through their
behavior, clothing, hairstyles, activities,
voice, or mannerisms.

A

Expression

63
Q

So where an individual does not have
any form of official identification with
them, where an individual has an identification
with an “X” marking, where an individual
indicates to the officer that their
gender identity does not match the gender
on their documentation, or where
the officer does not know the individual’s
gender identity, law enforcement officers
may ____________________ for additional information to ensure the dignity,
safety, and legal rights of the individual.

A

ask

64
Q

Any individual’s chosen name and chosen
pronouns should be noted appropriately
in all relevant documentation
as “____________________ name” and
“chosen pronouns” (in addition to separate
spaces already included for an
“alias” or “nickname”). Officers should
record an individual’s legal name as stated
on a government-issued identification
document or other legal paperwork
under “Legal name” in all Departmental
forms and records.

A

chosen

65
Q

The grading of shoplifting is
based on the _________________
_________________ value of merchandise
taken.

A

full retail

66
Q

Shoplifting is a crime of the third degree
if the full retail value exceeds
____________________ but is less than
$75,000.00.

A

$500.00

67
Q

Shoplifting is a crime of the fourth degree
if the full retail value was at least
________________ but does not exceed
_____________________.

A

$200.00 / $500.00

68
Q

Some criteria that define semi-automatic
pistols as assault weapons includes:
1. Ammunition magazine that attaches
to the pistol outside of the pistol grip;
2. Threaded barrel capable of accepting
a barrel extender, flash suppressor,
forward handgrip, or silencer; 3. Shroud
that is attached to, or partially or completely
encircles, the barrel and that permits
the shooter to hold the firearm
with the non-trigger hand without being burned; 4. Manufactured weight of
__________________ ounces or more
when the pistol is unloaded; and 5.
Semi-automatic version of an automatic
firearm.

A

50

69
Q

Criteria that defines semi-automatic
shotguns as assault weapons includes
a folding or telescoping stock; pistol
grip that protrudes conspicuously
beneath the action of the weapon;
fixed magazine capacity in excess of
_________________ rounds; and ability
to accept a _____________________
magazine.

A

5 / detachable

70
Q

When a law enforcement agency
seizes or recovers any firearm under
any circumstances, the agency
shall promptly enter information concerning
the make, model, caliber and
serial number of the weapon into
_______________________ to determine
whether the firearm was reported
stolen.

A

NCIC

71
Q

When a law enforcement agency seizes
or recovers a firearm that was unlawfully
possessed or used, or that was recovered
from a crime scene or is otherwise
reasonably believed to have been
involved in the commission of a crime,
or that was found property (e.g., abandoned
or discarded), the agency shall
enter e-Trace-related information directly
into the NJ _______________________
System, which is part of the Criminal
Justice Information System (CJIS) available
to all law enforcement agencies.
The information shall be entered as soon
as practicable, but no later than with-in ____________________ hours of the
time that the weapon was recovered.

A

Trace / 24

72
Q

When a law enforcement agency on or
after the effective date of this Directive
seizes or recovers a firearm that
was unlawfully possessed or used, or
that was recovered from a crime scene
or that is otherwise reasonably believed
to have been involved in the commission
of a crime, or that was found
property (e.g., abandoned or discarded),
the agency shall make arrangements
to have any such weapon that is suitable
for ____________________ examination
submitted to a forensic laboratory
that has ____________________ capabilities
within two business days to determine
whether the weapon is related to
any other criminal episode or person.

A

NIBIN / NIBIN

73
Q

This Directive instructs all law enforcement
agencies in New Jersey to participate
in the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol,
Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives
(ATF) eTrace System “Collective Data
_______________” program, and share
all crime gun trace result data they receive
from ATF with participating state
law enforcement agencies.

A

sharing

74
Q

Pursuant to Attorney General Directive
2008-1, agencies must supply NJSP and
the ROIC with information on each crime
gun recovered, including the type of gun
and the town where the gun was recovered,
as well as information regarding
any individual(s) involved. In turn, NJSP
and the ROIC will use this statewide data
to identify _______________, high-risk individuals, and any individuals violating
our criminal laws.

A

patterns

75
Q

Law enforcement agencies should exercise
discretion in sharing sensitive information
only where the agency’s chief
law enforcement officer determines that
sharing the trace information would jeopardize
the __________________ of individuals
involved in an investigation or
otherwise compromise an investigation.

A

safety

76
Q

New Jersey’s law enforcement officers
protect the public by investigating state
criminal offenses and enforcing state
criminal laws. They are not responsible
for enforcing ____________________
immigration violations except in narrowly
defined circumstances. Such responsibilities
instead fall to the federal government
and those operating under its
authority.

A

civil

77
Q

Under federal and state law, local law
enforcement agencies are not required
to enforce civil administrative warrants
or detainers issued by federal immigration
____________________ rather
than federal or state judges.

A

officers

78
Q

One of the limitations on assisting federal
immigration authorities in enforcing
federal civil immigration law includes
providing notice of a detained individual’s
upcoming release from custody,
_____________ the detainee: * is currently
charged with, has ever been convicted
of, or has ever been adjudicated
delinquent for a violent or serious
offense, as that term is defined in Appendix
A; * in the past five years, has
been convicted of an _______________ crime other than a violent or serious offense;
or * is subject to a Final Order
of Removal that has been signed by a
federal judge and lodged with the county
jail or state prison where the detainee is
being held.

A

unless / indictable

79
Q

All state, county, and local law enforcement
agencies must put in place a set of
procedures for processing requests for
T- and U-visa certifications from potential
victims of crime or human trafficking
within ____________________ days of
the request being made.

A

120

80
Q

For T-visa certification requests, each
agency’s certification procedure shall include
a determination of whether, pursuant
to the standards set forth in federal
law and instructions to USCIS Form
I-914 Supplement B, the requester is or
has been a victim of a severe form of
_______________ in persons; and has
complied with requests for assistance
in an investigation or prosecution of the
crime of trafficking.

A

trafficking

81
Q

On an ____________________ basis,
each state, county, and local law enforcement
agency shall report, in a manner
to be prescribed by the Attorney General,
any instances in which the agency
provided assistance to federal civil immigration
authorities for the purpose of
enforcing federal civil immigration law.

A

annual

82
Q

CPR refresher training is recommended
and can be accomplished
in _____________ to
_________________ hours, according
to American Heart Association.

A

1 / 4

83
Q

The New Jersey Domestic Security Preparedness Task Force has approved
minimum training requirements for all
first responders to include the basic
Incident Command System Course
(ICS-100), Hazardous Materials Awareness,
Weapons of Mass Destruction
Awareness and, for law enforcement officers,
Counter ____________________
Awareness.

A

Terrorism

84
Q

All potential first responders to a terrorist
attack, including all law enforcement
officers, shall complete a course
of training in domestic security preparedness.
The mandatory minimum training
will include instruction on the following
subjects: Incident Command System
(ICS-100), ______________________
Awareness, Weapons of Mass Destruction
and Counter-Terrorism.

A

HAZMAT