AFT Cyber Flashcards
An aircraft is flying with its CG at the forward limit.
Compared with flying the aircraft at it’s aft limit, the induced drag is -
1 greater
2 lesser
3 the same
4 independent of the gross weight
1
A jet flying a the appropriate speed for max L/D will achieve best performance for -
1 angle of climb and endurance
2 angle of climb and range
3 rate of climb and range
4 rate of climb and endurance
1
Reverse thrust is not used at low forward aircraft speed because -
1 of excessive vibration
2 it is too effective at low speeds
3 hot or turbulent air can lead to engine damage through the ingestion of foreign objects
4 it is a waste of fuel
3
The variable most directly affecting aircraft hydroplaning speed is -
1 tyre pressure
2 aircraft weight
3 runway surface
4 tyre width
1
The least advisable combination of autopilot/flight director modes is -
1 to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot on
2 to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot on
3 to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot off
4 to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot off
4
Concerning the operation of autobrakes set at level 2 -
1 if the pilot applies any brake pressure during the landing, the autobrakes will disarm
2 if the pilot exceeds autobrake 2 pressure, the autobrakes will disarm, if the pilot applies less than autobrake 2
pressure, the system will supply autobrake 2 pressure
3 if the pilot applies any brake pressure during landing the system will continue to supply autobrake 2 pressure
4 the autobrake system may only be disconnected manually once armed
1
In an aircraft equipped with three autopilots, the C autopilot fails.
Assuming all autopilots were engaged on a coupled approach, the failure would be indicated by -
1 a change in the autoland status annunciator (ASA) from LAND 3 to LAND 2
2 a synthetic voice warning
3 both autopilots disconnecting completely
4 all control panel lights extinguishing
1
Blocker doors in a turbofan engine reverse thrust system are used to divert the -
1 cooling air
2 cold stream
3 hot stream
4 bleed air
2
The freezing point of Kerosene type aviation turbine fuel (AVTUR) is closest to -
1 -30 degrees C
2 -40 degrees C
3 -70 degrees C
4 -50 degrees C
4
Weather radar returns may be displayed on the EHSI when -
1 in Map, VOR or ILS with an expanded compass scale selected
2 a full compass scale has been selected
3 in any mode
4 in Map mode only
1
If the FMC detects a difference between the FMC computed (calculated) fuel quantity and the fuel gauge indicated (sensed) quantity, the system will -
1 automatically use the higher value for subsequent navigational computations
2 automatically use the lower value for subsequent navigational computations
3 alert the pilot(s) to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message
4 recalibrate the sensed fuel quantity shown on EICAS to agree with the computed quantity
3
In a turbo jet, the right engine fails after takeoff in IMC. The pilot maintains balance control of the aircraft with rudder input and 5 degrees bank towards the live engine. The bank minimises the -
1 weight side force
2 assymetric thrust
3 side slip force
4 torque effect
3
In a large jet transport category aircraft, fuel moving around in the tanks could cause uncommanded attitude changes after pitching or rolling manoeuvres. This is prevented by -
1 high speed fuel pumps
2 baffles in the fuel tanks
3 fuel orifices
4 flying the aircraft in balance during all stages of flight
2
On the CDU of an FMC some pages contain lines for data entry by the crew to programme the FMC for the flight under the prevailing conditions of weather and gross weight.
Concerning the entry of data into the CDU -
1 data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by boxes on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by dashed lines
2 data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by dashed lines on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by boxes
3 all crew data inputs to the FMC are mandatory for the computation of flight plan performance
4 the FMC is able to perform all functions without any crew data inputs, however data input by crew members will enhance FMC flight performance efficiency
1
The reason for the use of oil/fuel heat exchangers in the fuel system of a large turbine powered aircraft is -
1 to prevent fuel vaporisation
2 to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel lines
3 to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel filter
4 to heat the oil and prevent excessive viscosity
3
The two most critical factors in determining the in flight relight capability of a turbo jet engine are -
1 altitude and fuel pressure
2 fuel pressure and starter torque
3 igniter energy and starter torque
4 altitude and airspeed
4
With regard to the operation of powered controls in an aircraft with 3 independent hydraulic systems consisting of 2 main systems plus a standby system -
1 all three systems supply the flight controls at all times providing automatic backup
2 only one system supplies the flight controls at any one time with the other systems providing backup automatically
3 the standby system only operates when selected to supply the flight controls in the event of a failure of one of the other systems
4 one system supplies the ailerons, one supplies the elevator and another supplies the rudder
3
A rupture of the starboard engine bleed air pneumatic duct, which supplies wing and engine anti ice will result in a DUCT LEAK caution message on the EICAS, and an associated DUCT LEAK light to illuminate. The correct response to this situation would be to -
1 shut down the right hand side engine to prevent structural damage to the interior of the wing
2 isolate the leak and turn off the bleed source to prevent structural damage
3 increase bleed air flow on the left engine to ensure adequate supply for anti ice operation
4 decrease bleed air flow to prevent overheating of the interior wing structures
2
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) fitted to a particular aircraft alerts the flight crew when one of the following mode thresholds are exceeded between 50 ft and 2450 ft radio altitude:
1 excessive descent rate
2 excessive terrain closure rate
3 altitude loss after take off or go around
4 unsafe terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration 5 below glideslope deviation
A ‘WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP’ aural warning can be given by -
1 modes 1, 2 and 5
2 modes 2 and 4
3 all modes
4 modes 1 and 2
4
The principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design is -
1 an increase in M CRIT
2 an increase in the changes of the size of the force coefficients due to compressibility
3 an acceleration of the onset of compressibility effects
4 a decrease in M CRIT
1
As altitude increases, the indicated minimum control speed airborne VMCA with the critical engine inoperative and the
other engine(s) at maximum continuous thrust, will -
1 increase as directional stability decreases
2 decrease up to the altitude where the stall speed becomes the limiting factor
3 remain constant
4 increase or decrease, depending on aircraft and engine type
2
On an aircraft with fully powered controls, manual reversion capability is required -
1 on all control surfaces
2 on elevator and ailerons only
3 on a minimum of pitch trim and rudder
4 on all primary flight controls unless triple redundancy is provided
4
Stalling speed is relatively higher for an aircraft with wing sweep. This is because of the effective -
1 increase in chordwise airflow
2 decrease in chordwise airflow
3 decrease in spanwise airflow
4 increase in spanwise airflow
2
The pilot of a large, heavy aircraft on approach to land with an excessively aft CG will experience -
1 heavy elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
2 heavy elevator controls and increased pitch stability
3 light elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
4 light elevator controls and increased pitch stability
3
The primary purpose of leading and trailing edge flaps on jet transport aircraft is to -
1 increase drag to improve speed stability on the approach
2 improve visibility on the approach by permitting a high lift coefficient at a reasonable body angle
3 increase wing area
4 reduce landing and take-off speeds and distances required
4
As an aircraft gross weight decreases during cruise -
1 the available speed range increases, and drift down altitude increases
2 the available speed range decreases, and drift down altitude decreases
3 the available speed range increases, and drift down altitude decreases
4 the available speed range decreases, and drift down altitude increases
1
The last minute addition of 1000 kg of fuel to a large transport category aircraft before take off will most seriously affect -
1 the take off distance required
2 the climb speed
3 the cruise altitude
4 the landing distance available
1
The factor most significantly affecting the cockpit cut off angle is -
1 the pilot’s eye position and seat height
2 the instrumentation placement
3 the pilot’s posture
4 VREF
1
On a conventional Machmeter/ASI (MASI), a masked Mach speed display indicates that -
1 the instrument has failed
2 the data from the CADC is unreliable
3 the Mach number is below M 0.6
4 the power supply to the instrument has been interrupted
2
On a conventional attitude indicator, the fast/slow indicator opposite the glideslope deviation indicator shows the current speed as fast or slow relative to -
1 V1
2 VREF
3 the command bug speed
4 V2
3
A central air data computer (CADC) fitted to an aircraft receives -
1 static and pitot pressure from the pitot head and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
2 electrical signals from the pitot head and converts this data into static and pitot pressure for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
3 static and pitot pressure from the instrument display and converts this data into electrical signals for the pitot head and use by the flight management system
4 static and pitot pressure from the flight management system and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the pitot head
1
The unsafe takeoff configuration warning system on a large jet transport will activate when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff and an incorrect selection is made on the -
1 flaps and spoilers, stabiliser trim or brakes
2 flaps, elevator trim, brakes or flight director
3 spoilers, stabiliser trim or GPWS
4 EADI, EHSI, autothrottle or stabiliser trim
1
The flight modes not able to be selected simultaneously on a typical autoflight system are -
1 THR HOLD, N1, V/S and FD
2 SPD, VNAV, LNAV and CMD
3 N1, V/S, HDG SEL and CMD
4 IDLE, G/S, LOC and F/D
1
The highest gas pressure in a gas turbine engine is found -
1 at the combustion chamber entry
2 at the compressor inlet
3 at the nozzle guide vanes
4 in the exhaust duct
1
In an axial flow compressor, the blades experiencing the greatest air loads are -
1 the stators
2 the large front rotors
3 the small rear rotors
4 the inlet guide vanes
3
With regard to jet transport electrical systems -
1 with a split bus system the generators are always paralleled
2 with a parallel bus system the generators are paralleled
3 with a split bus system the generators are connected in series
4 with a parallel bus system the generators are connected in series
2
A method of airflow control in an axial flow compressor of a gas turbine engine is -
1 variable nozzle guide vanes
2 variable propelling nozzles
3 variable stator vanes
4 variable rotor blades
3
A pressurised aircraft is climbing to cruise altitude and maximum cabin pressure differential is reached before top of climb.
Concerning further climb -
1 this is not permitted
2 maximum cabin pressure differential will be exceeded
3 maximum cabin pressure differential will be maintained as the cabin altitude rises
4 the system will depressurise
3
The artificial feel system of a powered flight control system operates by feeding back control forces based on -
1 the difference between ambient pressure and dynamic pressure
2 the difference between static pressure and dynamic pressure
3 the difference between static pressure and pitot pressure
4 the difference between ambient pressure and total pressure
3
For a turbojet aircraft flying at a particular altitude at a constant power lever setting, an increase in air density will result in -
1 an increase in thrust and a decrease in fuel flow
2 an increase in thrust and an increase in fuel flow
3 a decrease in thrust and an increase in fuel flow
4 a decrease in thrust and a decrease in fuel flow
2
Various chemical methods are used in large jet aircraft to improve forward visibility in rain. To ensure optimal performance of rain repellent fluid, it should be used -
1 only in conjunction with windshield wipers
2 only in light rain
3 periodically in heavy rain
4 prior to entering rain
3
The angle of attack of compressor blades in a gas turbine engine depends primarily on -
1 compressor outlet pressure, air temperature and density
2 compressor inlet pressure, indicated airspeed and RPM
3 true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure
4 compressor inlet temperature, indicated airspeed and RPM
3
The power response of a turbojet engine compared to a turboprop at various RPM settings is -
1 faster at high RPM
2 faster at both high and low RPM
3 slower at high RPM
4 slower at low RPM
4
Bleed air for thermal ice protection on a modern jet transport aircraft should be used -
1 continuously in icing conditions
2 for short periods cyclically in icing conditions
3 for long periods cyclically in icing conditions
4 continuously in all phases of flight
1
The Flight Management Computer of a large transport category jet aircraft does not provide -
1 aircraft systems warnings and cautions
2 fuel monitoring
3 navigational information
4 descent planning
1
Conditional waypoints are shown on the Legs Page of the CDU -
1 in italics
2 within parentheses
3 in bold type
4 in reverse video (highlighted)
2
On the MAP mode of the B767 EHSI display, the aircraft current position is depicted by -
1 the apex of the triangle symbol
2 the base of the triangle symbol
3 the centre of the triangle symbol
4 different symbols at different ranges
1
The least important factor in determining aircraft tyre hydroplaning risk is -
1 tyre pressure
2 tyre size
3 tyre tread pattern
4 tyre wear
2
The fuel boost pumps in a jet transport category aircraft fuel system are located -
1 in the fuel manifold
2 in the fuel tanks
3 in the nacelle
4 in the fuel control unit
2
In a pure turbojet, compared to a high by pass turbofan of the same thrust output, the rear (LP) turbine wheels are -
1 larger and rotate faster
2 smaller and rotate faster
3 larger and rotate slower
4 smaller and rotate slower
2
Concerning aircraft CG position -
1 at the aft limit the aircraft is less stable
2 at the aft limit the aircraft is more stable
3 at the forward limit the aircraft is less stable
4 the position of the CG has no effect on aircraft stability
1
If X is the speed for the maximum L/D ratio, the speed you would fly at for best angle of climb is -
1 X
2 greater than X
3 less than X
4 1.32 times X
1
The main difference between blocker type and clamshell type engine thrust reversers is -
1 none, both operate to reverse the fan air
2 none, both operate to reverse the engine air
3 blockers reverse fan air and clamshells reverse engine air
4 blockers reverse engine air and clamshells reverse fan air
3
In a gas turbine engine at engine design RPM -
1 an OAT decrease leads to thrust decrease
2 an OAT increase leads to thrust increase
3 an OAT increase leads to thrust decrease
4 humidity increase leads to thrust increase
3
The primary purpose of a propeller brake fitted to a turboprop aircraft is -
1 to slow the propeller on descent
2 to allow the propeller to enter the groundfine range
3 to stop the propeller when in feather on the ground and rapidly decelerate the propeller after shutdown or when idling
4 to stop the propeller when in feather in the air
3
The nose attitude of an aircraft on approach with both the leading edge and trailing edge flaps extended as compared with only the trailing edge flaps would be -
1 lower
2 higher
3 the same
4 either higher or lower depending on the approach speed
2
The incorrect statement regarding the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is -
1 to act as a pressure reservoir
2 to reduce peak pump demand
3 to smooth out system pressure variation
4 to act as a fluid reservoir
4
VMCA of a twin engine turbo prop aircraft is determined on control after engine failure under a number of conditions, one of which is CG position which shall be -
1 most forward
2 mid range
3 CPposition
4 most rearward
4
You are descending at 3000 ft/min in V/S with the autopilot and autothrottle engaged to the preselected altitude of 9000 ft.
As you approach this altitude -
1 the VS light will come on and the alt hold light will extinguish
2 the VS digital display will change to zero
3 the GPWS will advise you aurally that the desired altitude is approaching
4 the VS annunciator will go out and the ALT CAP then ALT HOLD annunciator will come on
4
A control surface activated by a main control linkage with a hinge moment causing deflection of the primary control surface is called a -
1 trim tab
2 spring loaded tab
3 servo tab
4 lagging tab
3
The GPWS will provide no warning for -
1 excessive sink rate near the ground
2 an early touchdown in the landing configuration
3 going below the glidepath
4 sink rate after take-off
2
Concerning the effect of increasing altitude on the spiral stability of a particular aircraft -
1 spiral stability increases with increase in altitude
2 spiral stability decreases with increase in altitude
3 spiral stability remains the same with increase in altitude
4 spiral stability only changes with changing CG position
1
A B767 aircraft is in cruise with the L autopilot engaged and the FMC is commanding the autopilot with LNAV and VNAV engaged. The autothrottle is engaged in SPEED mode.
If the pilot wished to fly the aircraft manually and deselected the autothrottle, FMC, and autopilot, the correct statement concerning the IAS/MACH speed selector and display window is -
1 the window would be blanked
2 the window would show the FMC flight plan speed and could not be changed unless VNAV was again selected
3 the window would show the current speed and could only be changed by entering the new speed on the CDU
4 the window would show the speed at the time VNAV was deselected and could be used to control the command
airspeed bug on the ASI
4
The purpose of a restrictor valve in the undercarriage hydraulic system of a large aircraft is -
1 to prevent the undercarriage from extending past the stop position and to hold the undercarriage in the up position when pressure is removed from the system
2 to limit the maximum PSI in the system
3 to prevent hammering in the lines
4 limit the speed of operation of the system and prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension
4
The indication that self sustaining speed has been achieved during the start cycle of a large gas turbine turbofan engine is -
1 the EGT first rises
2 the turbine first starts to drive the compressor
3 the starter disengages
4 the pressure starts to rise in the compressor
3
The main hazards associated with undissolved water in the fuel system of a turbine powered aircraft are -
1 corrosion, lowered specific gravity and microbial infestation
2 corrosion, ice crystal formation and microbial infestation
3 static build up, lowered specific gravity and corrosion
4 excess weight, lowered specific gravity and microbial infestation
2
The specific gravity (SG) of a particular turbine fuel is 0.787. This means that
1 100 kg of the fuel will occupy a volume of 78.7 lt
2 100 lt of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg
3 1000 kg of the fuel will occupy a volume of 787 lt
4 1000 lt of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg
2
With respect to yaw damper operation in an aircraft with two independent yaw dampers, which are used in all flight conditions -
1 only one yaw damper operates at any one time with the other available as a backup with the rudder pedals moving as the yaw damper inputs are made
2 both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and do not cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
3 both systems operate when desired to improve lateral stability and cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
4 both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
2
In a large jet transport category aircraft, the ailerons can be subjected to high loads at high speed. To prevent excessive stress on the ailerons some aircraft designs incorporate -
1 an aileron lockout device and flight spoilers
2 yaw dampers
3 reverse thrust
4 powered controls
1
If wing sweepback is increased for the same wing area, wing section and aspect ratio, for a given angle of attack -
1 lift coefficient will decrease, drag will increase
2 lift coefficient will increase, drag will decrease
3 lift coefficient and drag will both increase
4 lift coefficient and drag will both decrease
4
As the speed of a large jet transport aircraft increases from the stall speed flaps up to the maximum allowable cruise speed, the power required to fly straight and level will -
1 increase
2 decrease
3 increase then decrease
4 decrease then increase
4
During a climb at constant Mach number, angle of attack will -
1 increase
2 decrease
3 remain constant
4 increase to the tropopause, then remain constant
1
If the Angle of Attack is increased on a swept wing compared with an unswept wing of similar area and aspect ratio, the swept wing will produce -
1 less lift and more drag
2 less lift and less drag
3 more lift and more drag
4 more lift and less drag
1
When an aircraft is climbed or descended using the Flight Level Change function of the auto flight system, with regard to the thrust settings used -
1 on climb, thrust is automatically set to max climb thrust and on descent, the throttles are automatically retarded to
idle thrust
2 on climb or descent the thrust setting is determined according to the current IAS
3 in Flight Level Change mode, the autothrottle is disabled so all thrust settings must be manually selected by the pilot
4 on climb, thrust will be set to Max Continuous Thrust and on descent the thrust will be set to 50% N1
1
A typical flight control system uses 3 separate and independent hydraulic systems to power flight controls. If all functions are normal the system/s which power the pilot controls are -
1 all systems at all times
2 one system at a time
3 two systems at all times
4 the system with highest pressure
5 the system with highest accumulator pressure
1
In a supersonic air stream, the static pressure behind the expansion wave -
1 decreases
2 increases
3 experiences no change
4 increases then decreases
5 increases to ambient static pressure
1
In the turbine of an air cycle machine, bleed air supplied from engines undergoes -
1 an increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
2 an increase in pressure and an increase in temperature
3 a decrease in pressure and a decrease in temperature
4 a decrease in pressure and an increase in temperature
5 a decrese in pressure and no change in temperature
3
In order to be able to provide the desired pressure schedule in pressurised aircraft, the ranges the cabin pressure control system operates in are the -
1 isobaric and differential range
2 positive and differential range
3 negative and differential range
4 negative and positive range
5 isobaric and negative range
1
A cockpit voice recorder provides a record of the -
1 captain’s radio transmissions between take off and landing
2 captain’s and first officer’s radio calls and cockpit dialogue with engines running
3 flight crew’s voices and radio transmissions from ATC
4 sounds on the flight deck including voices when power is supplied to the cockpit
4
Large fast high flying jet transport aircraft use flight spoilers for -
1 pitch control
2 altitude control
3 yaw control
4 roll control
4