AFT Cyber Flashcards
1
Q
An aircraft is flying with its CG at the forward limit.
Compared with flying the aircraft at it’s aft limit, the induced drag is -
1 greater
2 lesser
3 the same
4 independent of the gross weight
A
1
2
Q
A jet flying a the appropriate speed for max L/D will achieve best performance for -
1 angle of climb and endurance
2 angle of climb and range
3 rate of climb and range
4 rate of climb and endurance
A
1
3
Q
Reverse thrust is not used at low forward aircraft speed because -
1 of excessive vibration
2 it is too effective at low speeds
3 hot or turbulent air can lead to engine damage through the ingestion of foreign objects
4 it is a waste of fuel
A
3
4
Q
The variable most directly affecting aircraft hydroplaning speed is -
1 tyre pressure
2 aircraft weight
3 runway surface
4 tyre width
A
1
5
Q
The least advisable combination of autopilot/flight director modes is -
1 to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot on
2 to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot on
3 to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot off
4 to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot off
A
4
6
Q
Concerning the operation of autobrakes set at level 2 -
1 if the pilot applies any brake pressure during the landing, the autobrakes will disarm
2 if the pilot exceeds autobrake 2 pressure, the autobrakes will disarm, if the pilot applies less than autobrake 2
pressure, the system will supply autobrake 2 pressure
3 if the pilot applies any brake pressure during landing the system will continue to supply autobrake 2 pressure
4 the autobrake system may only be disconnected manually once armed
A
1
7
Q
In an aircraft equipped with three autopilots, the C autopilot fails.
Assuming all autopilots were engaged on a coupled approach, the failure would be indicated by -
1 a change in the autoland status annunciator (ASA) from LAND 3 to LAND 2
2 a synthetic voice warning
3 both autopilots disconnecting completely
4 all control panel lights extinguishing
A
1
8
Q
Blocker doors in a turbofan engine reverse thrust system are used to divert the -
1 cooling air
2 cold stream
3 hot stream
4 bleed air
A
2
9
Q
The freezing point of Kerosene type aviation turbine fuel (AVTUR) is closest to -
1 -30 degrees C
2 -40 degrees C
3 -70 degrees C
4 -50 degrees C
A
4
10
Q
Weather radar returns may be displayed on the EHSI when -
1 in Map, VOR or ILS with an expanded compass scale selected
2 a full compass scale has been selected
3 in any mode
4 in Map mode only
A
1
11
Q
If the FMC detects a difference between the FMC computed (calculated) fuel quantity and the fuel gauge indicated (sensed) quantity, the system will -
1 automatically use the higher value for subsequent navigational computations
2 automatically use the lower value for subsequent navigational computations
3 alert the pilot(s) to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message
4 recalibrate the sensed fuel quantity shown on EICAS to agree with the computed quantity
A
3
12
Q
In a turbo jet, the right engine fails after takeoff in IMC. The pilot maintains balance control of the aircraft with rudder input and 5 degrees bank towards the live engine. The bank minimises the -
1 weight side force
2 assymetric thrust
3 side slip force
4 torque effect
A
3
13
Q
In a large jet transport category aircraft, fuel moving around in the tanks could cause uncommanded attitude changes after pitching or rolling manoeuvres. This is prevented by -
1 high speed fuel pumps
2 baffles in the fuel tanks
3 fuel orifices
4 flying the aircraft in balance during all stages of flight
A
2
14
Q
On the CDU of an FMC some pages contain lines for data entry by the crew to programme the FMC for the flight under the prevailing conditions of weather and gross weight.
Concerning the entry of data into the CDU -
1 data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by boxes on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by dashed lines
2 data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by dashed lines on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by boxes
3 all crew data inputs to the FMC are mandatory for the computation of flight plan performance
4 the FMC is able to perform all functions without any crew data inputs, however data input by crew members will enhance FMC flight performance efficiency
A
1
15
Q
The reason for the use of oil/fuel heat exchangers in the fuel system of a large turbine powered aircraft is -
1 to prevent fuel vaporisation
2 to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel lines
3 to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel filter
4 to heat the oil and prevent excessive viscosity
A
3
16
Q
The two most critical factors in determining the in flight relight capability of a turbo jet engine are -
1 altitude and fuel pressure
2 fuel pressure and starter torque
3 igniter energy and starter torque
4 altitude and airspeed
A
4
17
Q
With regard to the operation of powered controls in an aircraft with 3 independent hydraulic systems consisting of 2 main systems plus a standby system -
1 all three systems supply the flight controls at all times providing automatic backup
2 only one system supplies the flight controls at any one time with the other systems providing backup automatically
3 the standby system only operates when selected to supply the flight controls in the event of a failure of one of the other systems
4 one system supplies the ailerons, one supplies the elevator and another supplies the rudder
A
3
18
Q
A rupture of the starboard engine bleed air pneumatic duct, which supplies wing and engine anti ice will result in a DUCT LEAK caution message on the EICAS, and an associated DUCT LEAK light to illuminate. The correct response to this situation would be to -
1 shut down the right hand side engine to prevent structural damage to the interior of the wing
2 isolate the leak and turn off the bleed source to prevent structural damage
3 increase bleed air flow on the left engine to ensure adequate supply for anti ice operation
4 decrease bleed air flow to prevent overheating of the interior wing structures
A
2
19
Q
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) fitted to a particular aircraft alerts the flight crew when one of the following mode thresholds are exceeded between 50 ft and 2450 ft radio altitude:
1 excessive descent rate
2 excessive terrain closure rate
3 altitude loss after take off or go around
4 unsafe terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration 5 below glideslope deviation
A ‘WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP’ aural warning can be given by -
1 modes 1, 2 and 5
2 modes 2 and 4
3 all modes
4 modes 1 and 2
A
4
20
Q
The principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design is -
1 an increase in M CRIT
2 an increase in the changes of the size of the force coefficients due to compressibility
3 an acceleration of the onset of compressibility effects
4 a decrease in M CRIT
A
1
21
Q
As altitude increases, the indicated minimum control speed airborne VMCA with the critical engine inoperative and the
other engine(s) at maximum continuous thrust, will -
1 increase as directional stability decreases
2 decrease up to the altitude where the stall speed becomes the limiting factor
3 remain constant
4 increase or decrease, depending on aircraft and engine type
A
2
22
Q
On an aircraft with fully powered controls, manual reversion capability is required -
1 on all control surfaces
2 on elevator and ailerons only
3 on a minimum of pitch trim and rudder
4 on all primary flight controls unless triple redundancy is provided
A
4
23
Q
Stalling speed is relatively higher for an aircraft with wing sweep. This is because of the effective -
1 increase in chordwise airflow
2 decrease in chordwise airflow
3 decrease in spanwise airflow
4 increase in spanwise airflow
A
2
24
Q
The pilot of a large, heavy aircraft on approach to land with an excessively aft CG will experience -
1 heavy elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
2 heavy elevator controls and increased pitch stability
3 light elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
4 light elevator controls and increased pitch stability
A
3
25
The primary purpose of leading and trailing edge flaps on jet transport aircraft is to -
1 increase drag to improve speed stability on the approach
2 improve visibility on the approach by permitting a high lift coefficient at a reasonable body angle
3 increase wing area
4 reduce landing and take-off speeds and distances required
4
26
As an aircraft gross weight decreases during cruise -
1 the available speed range increases, and drift down altitude increases
2 the available speed range decreases, and drift down altitude decreases
3 the available speed range increases, and drift down altitude decreases
4 the available speed range decreases, and drift down altitude increases
1
27
The last minute addition of 1000 kg of fuel to a large transport category aircraft before take off will most seriously affect -
1 the take off distance required
2 the climb speed
3 the cruise altitude
4 the landing distance available
1
28
The factor most significantly affecting the cockpit cut off angle is -
1 the pilot's eye position and seat height
2 the instrumentation placement
3 the pilot's posture
4 VREF
1
29
On a conventional Machmeter/ASI (MASI), a masked Mach speed display indicates that -
1 the instrument has failed
2 the data from the CADC is unreliable
3 the Mach number is below M 0.6
4 the power supply to the instrument has been interrupted
2
30
On a conventional attitude indicator, the fast/slow indicator opposite the glideslope deviation indicator shows the current speed as fast or slow relative to -
1 V1
2 VREF
3 the command bug speed
4 V2
3
31
A central air data computer (CADC) fitted to an aircraft receives -
1 static and pitot pressure from the pitot head and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
2 electrical signals from the pitot head and converts this data into static and pitot pressure for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
3 static and pitot pressure from the instrument display and converts this data into electrical signals for the pitot head and use by the flight management system
4 static and pitot pressure from the flight management system and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the pitot head
1
32
The unsafe takeoff configuration warning system on a large jet transport will activate when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff and an incorrect selection is made on the -
1 flaps and spoilers, stabiliser trim or brakes
2 flaps, elevator trim, brakes or flight director
3 spoilers, stabiliser trim or GPWS
4 EADI, EHSI, autothrottle or stabiliser trim
1
33
The flight modes not able to be selected simultaneously on a typical autoflight system are -
1 THR HOLD, N1, V/S and FD
2 SPD, VNAV, LNAV and CMD
3 N1, V/S, HDG SEL and CMD
4 IDLE, G/S, LOC and F/D
1
34
The highest gas pressure in a gas turbine engine is found -
1 at the combustion chamber entry
2 at the compressor inlet
3 at the nozzle guide vanes
4 in the exhaust duct
1
35
In an axial flow compressor, the blades experiencing the greatest air loads are -
1 the stators
2 the large front rotors
3 the small rear rotors
4 the inlet guide vanes
3
36
With regard to jet transport electrical systems -
1 with a split bus system the generators are always paralleled
2 with a parallel bus system the generators are paralleled
3 with a split bus system the generators are connected in series
4 with a parallel bus system the generators are connected in series
2
37
A method of airflow control in an axial flow compressor of a gas turbine engine is -
1 variable nozzle guide vanes
2 variable propelling nozzles
3 variable stator vanes
4 variable rotor blades
3
38
A pressurised aircraft is climbing to cruise altitude and maximum cabin pressure differential is reached before top of climb.
Concerning further climb -
1 this is not permitted
2 maximum cabin pressure differential will be exceeded
3 maximum cabin pressure differential will be maintained as the cabin altitude rises
4 the system will depressurise
3
39
The artificial feel system of a powered flight control system operates by feeding back control forces based on -
1 the difference between ambient pressure and dynamic pressure
2 the difference between static pressure and dynamic pressure
3 the difference between static pressure and pitot pressure
4 the difference between ambient pressure and total pressure
3
40
For a turbojet aircraft flying at a particular altitude at a constant power lever setting, an increase in air density will result in -
1 an increase in thrust and a decrease in fuel flow
2 an increase in thrust and an increase in fuel flow
3 a decrease in thrust and an increase in fuel flow
4 a decrease in thrust and a decrease in fuel flow
2
41
Various chemical methods are used in large jet aircraft to improve forward visibility in rain. To ensure optimal performance of rain repellent fluid, it should be used -
1 only in conjunction with windshield wipers
2 only in light rain
3 periodically in heavy rain
4 prior to entering rain
3
42
The angle of attack of compressor blades in a gas turbine engine depends primarily on -
1 compressor outlet pressure, air temperature and density
2 compressor inlet pressure, indicated airspeed and RPM
3 true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure
4 compressor inlet temperature, indicated airspeed and RPM
3
43
The power response of a turbojet engine compared to a turboprop at various RPM settings is -
1 faster at high RPM
2 faster at both high and low RPM
3 slower at high RPM
4 slower at low RPM
4
44
Bleed air for thermal ice protection on a modern jet transport aircraft should be used -
1 continuously in icing conditions
2 for short periods cyclically in icing conditions
3 for long periods cyclically in icing conditions
4 continuously in all phases of flight
1
45
The Flight Management Computer of a large transport category jet aircraft does not provide -
1 aircraft systems warnings and cautions
2 fuel monitoring
3 navigational information
4 descent planning
1
46
Conditional waypoints are shown on the Legs Page of the CDU -
1 in italics
2 within parentheses
3 in bold type
4 in reverse video (highlighted)
2
47
On the MAP mode of the B767 EHSI display, the aircraft current position is depicted by -
1 the apex of the triangle symbol
2 the base of the triangle symbol
3 the centre of the triangle symbol
4 different symbols at different ranges
1
48
The least important factor in determining aircraft tyre hydroplaning risk is -
1 tyre pressure
2 tyre size
3 tyre tread pattern
4 tyre wear
2
49
The fuel boost pumps in a jet transport category aircraft fuel system are located -
1 in the fuel manifold
2 in the fuel tanks
3 in the nacelle
4 in the fuel control unit
2
50
In a pure turbojet, compared to a high by pass turbofan of the same thrust output, the rear (LP) turbine wheels are -
1 larger and rotate faster
2 smaller and rotate faster
3 larger and rotate slower
4 smaller and rotate slower
2
51
Concerning aircraft CG position -
1 at the aft limit the aircraft is less stable
2 at the aft limit the aircraft is more stable
3 at the forward limit the aircraft is less stable
4 the position of the CG has no effect on aircraft stability
1
52
If X is the speed for the maximum L/D ratio, the speed you would fly at for best angle of climb is -
1 X
2 greater than X
3 less than X
4 1.32 times X
1
53
The main difference between blocker type and clamshell type engine thrust reversers is -
1 none, both operate to reverse the fan air
2 none, both operate to reverse the engine air
3 blockers reverse fan air and clamshells reverse engine air
4 blockers reverse engine air and clamshells reverse fan air
3
54
In a gas turbine engine at engine design RPM -
1 an OAT decrease leads to thrust decrease
2 an OAT increase leads to thrust increase
3 an OAT increase leads to thrust decrease
4 humidity increase leads to thrust increase
3
55
The primary purpose of a propeller brake fitted to a turboprop aircraft is -
1 to slow the propeller on descent
2 to allow the propeller to enter the groundfine range
3 to stop the propeller when in feather on the ground and rapidly decelerate the propeller after shutdown or when idling
4 to stop the propeller when in feather in the air
3
56
The nose attitude of an aircraft on approach with both the leading edge and trailing edge flaps extended as compared with only the trailing edge flaps would be -
1 lower
2 higher
3 the same
4 either higher or lower depending on the approach speed
2
57
The incorrect statement regarding the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is -
1 to act as a pressure reservoir
2 to reduce peak pump demand
3 to smooth out system pressure variation
4 to act as a fluid reservoir
4
58
VMCA of a twin engine turbo prop aircraft is determined on control after engine failure under a number of conditions, one of which is CG position which shall be -
1 most forward
2 mid range
3 CPposition
4 most rearward
4
59
You are descending at 3000 ft/min in V/S with the autopilot and autothrottle engaged to the preselected altitude of 9000 ft.
As you approach this altitude -
1 the VS light will come on and the alt hold light will extinguish
2 the VS digital display will change to zero
3 the GPWS will advise you aurally that the desired altitude is approaching
4 the VS annunciator will go out and the ALT CAP then ALT HOLD annunciator will come on
4
60
A control surface activated by a main control linkage with a hinge moment causing deflection of the primary control surface is called a -
1 trim tab
2 spring loaded tab
3 servo tab
4 lagging tab
3
61
The GPWS will provide no warning for -
1 excessive sink rate near the ground
2 an early touchdown in the landing configuration
3 going below the glidepath
4 sink rate after take-off
2
62
Concerning the effect of increasing altitude on the spiral stability of a particular aircraft -
1 spiral stability increases with increase in altitude
2 spiral stability decreases with increase in altitude
3 spiral stability remains the same with increase in altitude
4 spiral stability only changes with changing CG position
1
63
A B767 aircraft is in cruise with the L autopilot engaged and the FMC is commanding the autopilot with LNAV and VNAV engaged. The autothrottle is engaged in SPEED mode.
If the pilot wished to fly the aircraft manually and deselected the autothrottle, FMC, and autopilot, the correct statement concerning the IAS/MACH speed selector and display window is -
1 the window would be blanked
2 the window would show the FMC flight plan speed and could not be changed unless VNAV was again selected
3 the window would show the current speed and could only be changed by entering the new speed on the CDU
4 the window would show the speed at the time VNAV was deselected and could be used to control the command
airspeed bug on the ASI
4
64
The purpose of a restrictor valve in the undercarriage hydraulic system of a large aircraft is -
1 to prevent the undercarriage from extending past the stop position and to hold the undercarriage in the up position when pressure is removed from the system
2 to limit the maximum PSI in the system
3 to prevent hammering in the lines
4 limit the speed of operation of the system and prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension
4
65
The indication that self sustaining speed has been achieved during the start cycle of a large gas turbine turbofan engine is -
1 the EGT first rises
2 the turbine first starts to drive the compressor
3 the starter disengages
4 the pressure starts to rise in the compressor
3
66
The main hazards associated with undissolved water in the fuel system of a turbine powered aircraft are -
1 corrosion, lowered specific gravity and microbial infestation
2 corrosion, ice crystal formation and microbial infestation
3 static build up, lowered specific gravity and corrosion
4 excess weight, lowered specific gravity and microbial infestation
2
67
The specific gravity (SG) of a particular turbine fuel is 0.787. This means that
1 100 kg of the fuel will occupy a volume of 78.7 lt
2 100 lt of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg
3 1000 kg of the fuel will occupy a volume of 787 lt
4 1000 lt of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg
2
68
With respect to yaw damper operation in an aircraft with two independent yaw dampers, which are used in all flight conditions -
1 only one yaw damper operates at any one time with the other available as a backup with the rudder pedals moving as the yaw damper inputs are made
2 both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and do not cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
3 both systems operate when desired to improve lateral stability and cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
4 both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
2
69
In a large jet transport category aircraft, the ailerons can be subjected to high loads at high speed. To prevent excessive stress on the ailerons some aircraft designs incorporate -
1 an aileron lockout device and flight spoilers
2 yaw dampers
3 reverse thrust
4 powered controls
1
70
If wing sweepback is increased for the same wing area, wing section and aspect ratio, for a given angle of attack -
1 lift coefficient will decrease, drag will increase
2 lift coefficient will increase, drag will decrease
3 lift coefficient and drag will both increase
4 lift coefficient and drag will both decrease
4
71
As the speed of a large jet transport aircraft increases from the stall speed flaps up to the maximum allowable cruise speed, the power required to fly straight and level will -
1 increase
2 decrease
3 increase then decrease
4 decrease then increase
4
72
During a climb at constant Mach number, angle of attack will -
1 increase
2 decrease
3 remain constant
4 increase to the tropopause, then remain constant
1
73
If the Angle of Attack is increased on a swept wing compared with an unswept wing of similar area and aspect ratio, the swept wing will produce -
1 less lift and more drag
2 less lift and less drag
3 more lift and more drag
4 more lift and less drag
1
74
When an aircraft is climbed or descended using the Flight Level Change function of the auto flight system, with regard to the thrust settings used -
1 on climb, thrust is automatically set to max climb thrust and on descent, the throttles are automatically retarded to
idle thrust
2 on climb or descent the thrust setting is determined according to the current IAS
3 in Flight Level Change mode, the autothrottle is disabled so all thrust settings must be manually selected by the pilot
4 on climb, thrust will be set to Max Continuous Thrust and on descent the thrust will be set to 50% N1
1
75
A typical flight control system uses 3 separate and independent hydraulic systems to power flight controls. If all functions are normal the system/s which power the pilot controls are -
1 all systems at all times
2 one system at a time
3 two systems at all times
4 the system with highest pressure
5 the system with highest accumulator pressure
1
76
In a supersonic air stream, the static pressure behind the expansion wave -
1 decreases
2 increases
3 experiences no change
4 increases then decreases
5 increases to ambient static pressure
1
77
In the turbine of an air cycle machine, bleed air supplied from engines undergoes -
1 an increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
2 an increase in pressure and an increase in temperature
3 a decrease in pressure and a decrease in temperature
4 a decrease in pressure and an increase in temperature
5 a decrese in pressure and no change in temperature
3
78
In order to be able to provide the desired pressure schedule in pressurised aircraft, the ranges the cabin pressure control system operates in are the -
1 isobaric and differential range
2 positive and differential range
3 negative and differential range
4 negative and positive range
5 isobaric and negative range
1
79
A cockpit voice recorder provides a record of the -
1 captain's radio transmissions between take off and landing
2 captain's and first officer's radio calls and cockpit dialogue with engines running
3 flight crew's voices and radio transmissions from ATC
4 sounds on the flight deck including voices when power is supplied to the cockpit
4
80
Large fast high flying jet transport aircraft use flight spoilers for -
1 pitch control
2 altitude control
3 yaw control
4 roll control
4
81
If the SPD annunciator on the EADI changes to a blank display while on an ILS, accompanied by an aural warning, the likely cause is -
1 autopilot disengagement
2 autothrottle disengagement
3 vertical navigation mode disengagement
4 lateral navigation mode disengagement
2
82
The purpose of the bogie wheel landing gear configuration compared to a single wheel on a main gear leg is -
1 cost effectiveness
2 reduced tyre pressures and lower ACN's
3 reduced tyre surface area contact
4 softer main gear landings
2
83
Hydraulic fluid pumps are lubricated and cooled by -
1 turbine oil
2 hydraulic fluid
3 air
4 turbine fuel
2
84
The highest gas temperature a gas turbine engine is found -
1 in the dilution zone of the combustion chamber
2 at the combustion chamber exit
3 in the primary zone of the combustion chamber
4 in the nozzle guide vanes
3
85
The main reason for the combustion of fuel in a gas turbine engine is -
1 to raise gas pressure
2 to raise gas temperature
3 to raise gas velocity
4 to raise gas density
3
86
Buffet boundaries for a jet transport category aircraft will increase with an increase in -
1 altitude
2 gross weight
3 mach number
4 fuel burn
4
87
An advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal flow compressor in a gas turbine engine is -
1 shorter length
2 higher compression ratio
3 more resistant to foreign object damage
4 cheaper to manufacture
2
88
On a turboprop aircraft the purpose of the safety coupling is to -
1 disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque
2 disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque
3 disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of excessive engine RPM
4 disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive torque
2
89
In an aircraft equipped with an autoland system incorporating three autopilots, the maximum number of autopilot failures which may be sustained without losing autoland capability is -
1 one
2 two
3 three
4 none
1
90
Airflow behind a normal (vertical) shockwave compared to ahead of the shock will have a decrease in -
1 static pressure
2 energy (total pressure)
3 density
4 temperature
2
91
The nosewheel centering system of large jet aircraft operates to straighten the nose wheel -
1 prior to gear retraction
2 during gear retraction
3 after gear retraction
4 prior to gear extension
1
92
In an aircraft equipped with a Flight Management Computer (FMC), a holding pattern programmed into the FMC LNAV active route will command the holding pattern track taking account of -
1 the wind in the CASA wind model
2 the forecast wind
3 the actual wind
4 nil wind
3
93
The correct procedure to follow in the event of a hot start to prevent torching in a gas turbine engine is to -
1 gradually open the throttle to richen the mixture and cool the combustion temperatures
2 open the bleed valves to increase the mass air flow through the compressor
3 motor the engine with the fuel supply cut off
4 close the bleed valves to decrease mass flow through the compressor
3
94
The input not used by the autothrottle system of a large jet transport category aircraft is -
1 N1
2 EGT
3 INS
4 AIR/GROUND LOGIC
3
95
On the MAP mode of the B767 EHSI display the track trend vector shows -
1 the predicted path of the aircraft over the ground based on current bank angle and groundspeed using segments representing 30, 60 and 90 second time intervals
2 the angle of bank required for a rate one turn based on current airspeed
3 the recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern (direct, offset, parallel) based on track crossing the holding fix
4 the recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern (direct, offset, parallel) based on heading crossing the holding fix
1
96
An aircraft landing gear tyre replacement should be considered essential with -
1 a metal object imbedded in the tread
2 a deep cut in the tread
3 worn tread
4 a bulge in the tyre
4
97
The function of the follow up linkage in the nose wheel landing gear system of a jet transport category aircraft is -
1 to prevent nose wheel shimmy
2 to hold the nose wheel steering at the correct angle
3 to stop tyre scuffing
4 to permit the tiller to turn the nose wheel
2
98
A method of reducing the engine air bleed load in an air cycle airconditioning system of a jet transport aircraft is to -
1 increase the vapour pressure
2 recirculate the air
3 lower the cabin temperature
4 lower the cabin altitude
2
99
The tracks provided between waypoints by the Flight Management Computer in a jet transport aircraft are -
1 great circles
2 rhumb lines
3 constant bearings
4 varying bearings
1
100
With regard to the cancellation of warnings and cautions in the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) of a jet transport aircraft -
1 warnings and cautions can both be cancelled regardless of system status by using the cancel button
2 warnings and cautions may only be cancelled if the associated fault no longer exists
3 warnings are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but cautions may be cancelled using the cancel button
4 cautions are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but warnings may be cancelled using the cancel button
3
101
The APU compressor mass air flow is greater than needed to run itself -
1 because of the extra cooling needed
2 because it needs to supply the hydraulic system
3 so that bleed air is available in large quantities for use by the pneumatic system
4 to keep the exhaust noise to reasonable levels
3
102
Flap should not be lowered at high flight levels. One reason for this is -
1 the possibility of CAT
2 flap extension speed may be below the aircraft stall speed at high altitude
3 the increased effective wing camber would lead to early shockwave formation
4 the flap mechanism is disabled above FL150
2
103
In a turboprop powered aircraft, the pilot controls the engine power output in flight -
1 by direct CSU control
2 by varying the fuel flow via the fuel control unit
3 by increasing prop RPM
4 by varying the prop blade angle directly
2
104
The combination of flight director/autopilot modes not selectable together is -
1 HDG SEL and V/S
2 HDG SEL and ALT HOLD
3 HDG HOLD and LOC
4 HDG SEL and HDG HOLD
4
105
Regarding the EHSI, the difference between the display in Plan and Map mode is -
1 Plan is the normally used display and shows information against a moving map background
2 Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed without current track and heading information
3 Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed with the current track and heading information at the top of the screen
4 Map shows the flight plan displayed against a small scale map of the route to be flown
3
106
On a B767 EHSI display, either a full or expanded compass scale is available in -
1 Plan and Map
2 VOR (NAV) and ILS
3 Plan and VOR (NAV)
4 Map and ILS
2
107
On a conventional flight director panel (not EFIS), regarding the difference between the APP AUTO mode and APP MAN mode -
1 APP AUTO mode arms capture of the ILS and GS when on an intercept heading and APP MAN mode commands an immediate capture of the ILS and GS with a selected intercept heading and a descent to acquire the glideslope from above
2 there is no difference between the modes for ILS capture but GS will not be captured from below in APP MAN
3 APP MAN mode arms capture of the ILS and GS when on an intercept heading and APP AUTO mode commands an immediate capture of the ILS and GS with a selected intercept heading and a descent to acquire the glideslope from above
4 there is no difference between the modes for ILS capture but GS will not be captured from above in APP MAN
1
108
Most large jet transport category aircraft have electrical windshield heating as an anti-ice and anti-fog system, and to increase resistance to bird-strike impact. Concerning electrical windshield heating -
1 some arcing is normal
2 the system may not be operated on the ground
3 the window may appear tinted when viewed with reflected light
4 the system is only installed on the captains front windshield and side windows
3
109
The 'ram ratio' in a gas turbine engine is defined as the ratio of -
1 total pressure to dynamic pressure in the compressor
2 total pressure to static pressure in the compressor
3 total pressure to dynamic pressure at the air intake
4 total pressure to static pressure at the air intake
4
110
In comparison to an unswept wing, a swept wing will have a -
1 higher MAX CL at subsonic but lower MAXCL at supersonic speeds
2 lower MAX CL at subsonic but higher MAXCL at supersonic speeds
3 higher MAX CL only at subsonic speeds
4 lower MAX CL only at supersonic speeds
2
111
In an aircraft with powered flight controls, the component which is always part of the system is -
1 artificial feel
2 manual reversion
3 hydraulics
4 pneumatics
1
112
The component of an aircraft electrical system providing the initial excitation field for a constant speed PMG type alternator is -
1 the permanent magnet generator or pilot exciter
2 the main exciter
3 the static inverter
4 there is no initial excitation required with an alternator
1
113
Concerning a jet transport aircraft flying below the speed of sound -
1 there is no possibility of shockwave formation on the wings or fuselage of an aircraft in subsonic cruise
2 shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air
3 shockwaves are present at all times on an aircraft in subsonic cruise
4 shockwaves maybe present on the wings at any speed below MCRIT
2
114
The autothrottle mode which will not provide the FMC commanded thrust setting is -
1 THR HOLD
2 N1
3 SPD
4 IDLE
1
115
High energy capacitor discharge igniter plugs as used in the ignition system of a gas turbine engine are used to provide -
1 a hot (high value) spark at high voltage
2 a cool (low value) spark at low voltage
3 a hot (high value) spark at low voltage
4 a cool (low value) spark at high voltage
1
116
For a constant RPM in a gas turbine engine, a decrease in air density will result in -
1 increased fuel flow and increased thrust output
2 decreased fuel flow and increased thrust output
3 increased fuel flow and decreased thrust output
4 decreased fuel flow and decreased thrust output
4
117
Rotating wheel Hydroplaning may occur at -
1 a maximum speed of 9 times the square of the aircraft tyre pressure
2 a minimum speed of 7 times the square root of the aircraft speed
3 a maximum speed of 7 times the square of the aircraft speed
4 a minimum speed of 9 times the square root of the aircraft tyre pressure
4
118
In a TCAS II equipped aircraft the pilot has the option of selecting either the Traffic Advisory (TA)/ Resolution Advisory (RA) mode or Traffic Advisory (TA) only mode of operation. With the TA only mode selected, RA's will -
1 only be available for other TCAS I equipped aircraft
2 be inhibited and appear as TA's
3 be displayed as in RA mode
4 only be available for other non transponder equipped aircraft
2
119
In a modern turbo-prop powered aircraft the power lever is used to control -
1 pitch and torque in the Beta range
2 pitch only in the reverse thrust range
3 pitch and torque in the normal flight (Alpha) range
4 pitch and torque in all operating ranges
1
120
When a sweptwing aircraft suffers a wingtip stall, the centre of pressure moves -
1 inwards and forward
2 outwards and aft
3 inwards and backwards
4 outwards and forwards
1
121
In steady asymmetric flight in a light twin piston engined aircraft -
1 the slip indicator (ball) must be centred with rudder
2 zero bank at zero sideslip is possible
3 bank and rudder are normally used to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine
4 bank is used to balance the drag of the dead engine
3
122
As altitude increases towards the aircraft's maximum cruising flight level -
1 the low speed buffet boundary approaches the high speed buffet boundary and the available speed range decreases significantly
2 aircraft manoeuvre capability is increased
3 increased pitch stability and Dutch Roll may become evident
4 the low speed buffet boundary approaches the high speed buffet boundary and the available speed range increases significantly
1
123
A variable incidence tailplane with stabiliser trim, as an alternative to a conventional elevator with trim -
1 is required to cope with high altitude and high gross weights
2 can produce excessively high control forces if out of trim
3 has very limited control authority
4 reduces residual control forces
2
124
On a large jet transport aircraft, the Leading Edge Devices cannot be deployed. The aircraft should approach at -
1 higher than normal speed and lower angle of attack
2 lower than normal speed and angle of attack
3 higher than normal speed and angle of attack
4 lower than normal speed and higher angle of attack
1
125
In high speed flight, aileron effectiveness may be reduced because of shock wave formation near the ailerons or wing twisting.
To overcome these problems, most jet airliners incorporate -
1 powered flight controls
2 spoilers to assist roll control
3 automatic coupling of rudder with aileron input
4 a moderate degree of sweepback
2
126
As altitude increases at constant EAS, for a large jet transport aircraft, spiral stability -
1 decreases
2 increases
3 remains the same
4 may increase or decrease, depending on aircraft type
2
127
Powered control systems require an artificial feel system to simulate air loads as feedback for the pilot. A common system uses 'q' feel, which means control feel feedback is a function of -
1 airspeed
2 control input force
3 centre of pressure movement
4 control input speed
1
128
A digital flight data recorder provides a record of -
1 airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude information and ADC data
2 control positions, airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude and ADC data
3 airspeed, altitude, heading, and cockpit voices
4 airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude, ADC data, and cockpit voices
2
129
The formula: nine times the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI gives the -
1 maximum speed for hydroplaning in meters per second
2 minimum speed for hydroplaning in knots
3 maximum speed for hydroplaning in knots
4 minimum speed for hydroplaning in meters per second
2
130
A ground proximity warning system (GPWS) has different modes of operation to protect an aircraft from premature or unintentional ground contact. The aural messages provided under various circumstances can often be either a soft warning or a hard warning, depending on the seriousness of the situation and the speed of response required for corrective action.
An example of a soft warning and a hard warning respectively are -
1 'whoop whoop, pull up', and 'don't sink'
2 'too low flap' and 'too low gear'
3 'whoop whoop, pull up', and 'too low flap'
4 'terrain', and 'whoop whoop, pull up'
4
131
A fly by wire system of control as used on the latest generation of jet transport aircraft uses -
1 electrical signals and wires in place of linkages and cables to connect the control surface actuating rams to the flight deck controls
2 wire cables instead of solid linkages to provide manual reversion capability
3 a combination of electrical signals and mechanical linkages to move the control surfaces
4 single power actuating units on all control surfaces and does not need manual reversion capability
1
132
On an EADI the ATT flag appears. Other affected elements of the display are -
1 pitch and roll information and airspeed
2 pitch and roll information, flight director bars and glideslope and localiser deviation
3 all display symbols
4 pitch and roll information and flight director bars
4
133
Modern airline aircraft have tubeless tyres fitted with fusible alloy plugs. The function of the plugs is to provide -
1 an emergency plug for a puncture inflicted on landing
2 pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat
3 termperature cooling during conditions of excessive tyre heat
4 indication of excessive hard braking during landing
5 allow heat to escape without deflating the tyre
2
134
Concerning the operation of the ground proximity warning system -
1 a hard warning is not always preceded by a soft warning
2 a soft warning is always followed by a hard warning
3 all modes provide both hard and soft warnings
4 all modes provide hard warnings
1
135
The purpose of a divergent passage in a gas turbine engine is to -
1 raise velocity, lower pressure and lower temperature
2 lower velocity, raise pressure and raise temperature
3 lower velocity, lower pressure and lower temperature
4 raise velocity, raise pressure and raise temperature
2
136
With regard to the thrust output of a jet engine -
1 approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 50% of RPM
2 approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 25% of RPM
3 approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 10% of RPM
4 approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 5% of RPM
2
137
A problem associated with NICAD aircraft batteries is -
1 low current at the end of the charge cycle
2 thermal runaway
3 acid spillage
4 low storage capacity
2
138
An aircraft in level flight with a relatively forward centre of gravity, compared to a rear centre of gravity will have -
1 more induced drag
2 less induced drag
3 reduced longitudinal stability
4 more parasite drag
1
139
The main advantage of kerosene compared to wide cut type fuel for use in a gas turbine engine is that kerosene has a relatively -
1 lower volatility and higher flash point
2 lower flash point and lower volatility
3 higher volatility and lower flash point
4 higher flash point and higher volatility
1
140
The item of information not displayed on the Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI) of a B767 is -
1 groundspeed
2 Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
3 heading
4 AFDS pitch mode annunciation
3
141
In order to delay flow separation on an aerofoil at the stall, the characteristics of the boundary layer should ideally be -
1 laminar due to the reduced surface friction
2 turbulent due to the increased surface friction
3 laminar due to the minimum boundary layer depth
4 turbulent due to the higher velocities at the wing surface
4
142
The thrust output of a turbojet powered aircraft be greatest -
1 on the brakes on the runway at full thrust
2 between V1 and VR on the runway during the takeoff roll
3 on climb at maximum thrust
4 at VMO/MMO
1
143
The CSD of a large jet aircraft electrical system is required to control -
1 DC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity
2 AC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity
3 AC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency
4 DC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency
3
144
Vortex generators may be used on the wings of a high speed aircraft to delay the onset of compressibility buffet and high speed drag associated with shock induced flow separation. In this case the vortex generators are placed on -
1 the upper wing surface only
2 the lower wing surface only
3 surfaces which do not suffer from high speed drag problems
4 both the upper and lower wing surfaces
1
145
The hydraulic reservoir in a jet aircraft hydraulic system is pressurised by bleed air to -
1 reduce foaming as altitude increases
2 ensure a positive fluid supply to the pumps at all times
3 maintain hydraulic fluid temperature at the required level
4 pressurise the supply lines to the using systems
2
146
In event of total generator failure in the electrical system of a modern jet transport aircraft, the component which
supplies AC power is -
1 the TRU
2 the voltage regulator
3 the rotary inverter
4 the full wave inverter
4
147
The component of the autopilot system which safeguards against a servomotor runaway is -
1 the artificial feel
2 the trim system
3 the comparitor
4 the torque limiter
4
148
The item of jet engine performance that remains constant in a climb if the thrust lever position remains unchanged is -
1 N1RPM
2 EGT
3 EPR
4 Fuel Flow
1
149
The function of a reverse current relay in a jet aircraft electrical system is to -
1 isolate the generator in the event of reverse current flow
2 deenergise the generator field
3 reverse the current flow direction
4 permit current to flow in the reverse direction
1
150
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) modes which are able to generate both soft and hard warnings are -
1 excessive descent rate and below glideslope deviation
2 unsafe terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration and excessive terrain closure rate
3 excessive terrain closure rate and below glideslope deviation
4 excessive descent rate and excessive terrain closure rate
4
151
Comparing a swept wing aircraft and a straight wing aircraft both with an increasing angle of attack -
1 the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase
2 the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a greater lift increase
3 the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a greater lift increase
4 the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a lesser lift increase
1
152
With an increase in altitude the directional stability of an aircraft -
1 decreases
2 increases
3 increases if EAS is less than 1.5Vs
4 decreases if EAS is less than 1.5Vs
1
153
You are about to descend through cloud containing heavy freezing rain.
The best descent configuration to minimise the risk of airframe ice in these conditions is -
1 engine RPM at idle and speedbrakes out
2 engine RPM at idle and speedbrakes in
3 engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes out
4 engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes in
3
154
The autothrottle and flight director are engaged and the autopilot is off during cruise. ALT HOLD is the pitch mode. SPD is the autothrottle mode. In this case -
1 the system is inoperable
2 the autothrottle will adjust thrust to hold a steady IAS while the flight director command bars command pitch to hold the reference altitude
3 the flight director will not engage in this situation
4 the flight director command bars will be hidden in this situation
2
155
The F/O is flying an aircraft equipped with 3 autopilots in cruise. The autopilot/s to engage are -
1 R or C only
2 L and R
3 C and R
4 L, C and R
1
156
Regarding the relationship between the different components of the Flight Management System (FMS) -
1 each component is dependent on the other system components for its operation and cannot operate in isolation
2 each component is independent of other system components and can be used separately or in conjunction with
the other system components
3 the flight director must be engaged for any other system component to operate
4 the autopilot must be engaged for any other system component to operate
2
157
The purpose of the interconnectors between the combustion chambers in a gas turbine engine is -
1 to provide pressure equalisation and consistent fuel propagation
2 to provide pressure equalisation and flame propagation
3 to provide temperature equalisation and flame propagation
4 to provide temperature equalisation and consistent fuel propagation
2
158
In a hydraulic system with an operating pressure of 3000 PSI, the force exerted by a piston actuator measuring 25 cm x 25 cm is -
1 100lb
2 300lb
3 300000 lb
4 30000 lb
3
159
Advantages of a tricycle undercarriage configuration include -
1 greater braking effectiveness, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies
2 the CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies, better rough strip capability, less drag
3 higher descent rates during approach and landing, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies
4 lower landing speeds, better rough strip capability, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies
1
160
The component used for converting 28 volts DC to 115 VAC at 400 Hz in large modern jet transport category aircraft is -
1 the static rectifier
2 the static (fullwave) inverter
3 the rotary inverter
4 the transformer-rectifier (TR)
2
161
A flap load relief system (flap limiter) on a large jet aircraft operates whenever -
1 the flap load limit is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever moving automatically and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded
2 the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever moving automatically and staying at the new setting
3 the flap load limit is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps staying at the new setting
4 the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded
4
162
The freezing point of Jet A-1 fuel is closest to -
1 -20 degrees C
2 -30 degrees C
3 -40 degrees C
4 -50 degrees C
4
163
Advantages of air spray nozzles in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine compared to conventional fuel nozzles include -
1 reduced carbon build up, cleaner combustion, and more even mixture distribution
2 cooler combustion temperatures and leaner mixtures
3 better flame stabilisation and better cooling
4 hotter combustion temperatures and leaner mixtures
1
164
The approximate percentage of the mass airflow through a gas turbine engine entering the combustion chamber through the front entry section is -
1 10%
2 15%
3 20%
4 50%
3
165
In an aircraft equipped with two flight management computers and the EHSI's selected to map mode, a failure of the
Captain's (L) FMC will cause -
1 the Captain's Map display on the EHSI to be supplied automatically from the opposite side FMC, with an FMC FAIL message on the EHSI
2 the Captain's Map display to show a map flag, with an FMC FAIL message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) FMC switch, which feeds the Captain's map display from the opposite side FMC
3 the Captain's Map display to show an FMC FAIL flag, with an FMC fail message on the CDU. The map display is automatically restored by data from the opposite side FMC
4 the Captain's Map display to go blank, with a map fail message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) map switch, which feeds the Captain's map display from the opposite side EHSI
2
166
In a flight management system, conditional waypoints may be used when programming a flight. The term conditional waypoint refers to -
1 a waypoint defined by an event or a condition which does not relate to a fixed geographical location
2 a manually entered waypoint without a name
3 a waypoint constructed by the crew which is not in the data base of the FMC
4 a waypoint which will only be overflown if certain in flight conditions are met
1
167
With regard to a conventional flight instrument display when an aircraft is on an ILS -
1 no manual pitch control is available
2 altitude hold is not available
3 the TO/FROM indicator covered by a red warning flag
4 the TO/FROM indicator is not displayed
4
168
The incorrect statement concerning the effects of sweepback on aircraft performance is -
1 sweepback increases lateral stability
2 sweepback increases directional stability
3 sweepback increases trailing edge device effectiveness
4 sweepback increases the tendency for a wing to stall tip first
3
169
The system used in large aircraft to prevent over stressing of the trailing edge flaps is the -
1 flap load relief system
2 flap lockout system
3 flap synch system
4 flap assymetry system
5 flap brake
1
170
The incorrect statement is -
1 the take-off should be rejected before V1 if an engine fails
2 VR must always be greater than V1
3 V1 may be increased to a maximum of VR, if surplus runway/stopway is available
4 the take-off should not be rejected above V1 if an engine fails
2
171
In an aircraft flying beyond M CRIT, turbulence felt through the elevator controls is likely to be due to -
1 high speed stall
2 high speed buffet
3 symptoms of MMO
4 Mach tuck
2
172
The primary function of ground spoilers on large jet transport aircraft is -
1 as a speed-brake to increase drag airborne
2 as the primary roll control
3 to dump lift on landing and increase braking effectiveness
4 to channel high energy air over flaps and ailerons on approach
3
173
As an aircraft Mach Number increases from subsonic, through M 1.0 to low supersonic speeds, the drag coefficient of the aircraft -
1 increases steadily
2 decreases steadily
3 remains approximately constant
4 increases, then decreases
4
174
As altitude increases, for a large jet transport aircraft, with regard to stall speeds -
1 stall EAS increases, stall IAS decreases
2 stall EAS and stall IAS both increase with stall IAS increasing by a greater margin
3 stall EAS and stall IAS both decrease with stall EAS decreasing by a greater margin
4 stall EAS decreases, stall IAS increases
2
175
On the typical EHSI display, the vertical deviation indicator shows variation from the profile during a descent. When the cursor reaches the extreme bottom end of the scale the aircraft is -
1 400 ft above the profile
2 400 ft below the profile
3 1000 ft above the profile
4 1000 ft below the profile
1
176
If an aircraft is flown with the centre of gravity ahead of the forward limit, it would display -
1 enhanced elevator authority
2 degraded elevator authority
3 improved lateral stability
4 decreased lateral stability
2
177
The speed in a jet aircraft which is not controlled by auto throttle is -
1 vertical speed
2 approach speed
3 descent speed
4 engine rotation speed
5 cruise speed
1
178
The auto pilot depends on devices to measure aircraft attitude changes so that information may be used to achieve controlled flight. Accelerometers assist in a -
1 coordinated turn
2 set rate of climb and descent
3 coordinated climb and descent
4 level turn
2
179
Dynamic hydroplaning occurs as a result of the combination of -
1 aircraft weight and a wet runway
2 aircraft speed and locked brakes
3 aircraft speed, weight and a wet runway
4 aircraft speed, tyre pressure and a wet runway
4
180
With an increase in altitude, the longitudinal stability of an aircraft -
1 increases
2 decreases
3 remains constant
4 increases to the tropopause then decreases
2
181
When configured for take off, the command speed bug on the airspeed indicator and speed tape on the EADI is referenced to -
1 V1
2 VREF
3 VR
4 V2
4
182
The TCAS system fitted to the modern jet transport category of aircraft is able to provide two main types of messages to alert crew to the presence of traffic in the area. These messages are traffic advisories (TA's) and resolution advisories (RA's).
The statement correctly listing the differences between TA's and RA's is -
1 traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
2 traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
3 resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
4 resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
1
183
On an aircraft with fully powered controls, manual reversion is required -
1 on all flight controls
2 on the rudder only
3 on the elevator only
4 unless triple redundancy is provided
4
184
The speed of operation of pneumatic brake systems compared to a hydraulic brake systems is -
1 faster for application and increased pressure for the same operating pressure
2 slower for application and increased pressure for the same operating pressure
3 faster for application and less pressure for the same operating pressure
4 slower for application and less force transmitted for the same operating pressure
4
185
Large transport category aircraft are often fitted with several artificial devices to provide protection against various undesirable flight characteristics. The yaw damper is one such device designed to prevent the development of uncommanded yaw at high altitude and speed by automatic rudder input controlled by a gyro stabilised feedback system. There are two main types of yaw dampers in common use today, the parallel type and the series type.
The statement which correctly describes the difference between these two types of yaw damper is -
1 the parallel type yaw damper uses two independent circuits to provide redundancy and both circuits operate simultaneously in normal operation. The series type yaw damper uses one circuit at a time with manual switching required to activate the backup in the event of a failure
2 the parallel type yaw damper operates in parallel with the autopilot's or pilot's rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The series type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight
3 the series type yaw damper uses two independent circuits to provide redundancy and both circuits operate simultaneously in normal operation. The parallel type yaw damper uses one circuit at a time with manual switching required to activate the backup in the event of a failure
4 the series type yaw damper operates in series with the autopilot's or pilot's rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The parallel type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight
2
186
A swept wing stalls at a higher speed than an equivalent unswept wing due to -
1 increased spanwise flow
2 decreased spanwise flow
3 increased chordwise flow
4 increased CL Max
1
187
A Flight Management Computer (FMC) uses data from a variety of sources which may be termed internal or external. An example of an external input would be -
1 airspeed
2 spiral stability
3 roll rate
4 pitch rate
1
188
An aircraft hydraulic system that employs a constant displacement pump requires -
1 a piston type accumulator
2 an in-line reservoir
3 a double action hand pump
4 a pressure regulator
4
189
The RPM of a gas turbine Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) in a large jet transport aircraft is controlled by -
1 the fuel governor
2 the speed sensitive switch
3 the tacho/gen
4 the throttle
1
190
Gas turbine engine mass air flow is governed primarily by -
1 the number of combustion chambers, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature
2 the RPM, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature
3 the turbine inlet temperature, the RPM and the number of combustion chambers
4 the RPM, the airspeed and the air density
4
191
The stall speed of an aircraft at a particular gross weight will be highest with -
1 a rearward centre of gravity
2 a forward centre of gravity
3 low altitude
4 power on
2
192
The fuel quantity indicating system on a modern jet transport aircraft may use capacitance type probes with compensators.
The compensators are designed to correct for variations in fuel -
1 temperature
2 density
3 volatility
4 viscosity
1
193
The function of a pressure relief valve in an aircraft pneumatic system is to -
1 prevent pump cavitation
2 prevent seals from blowing
3 preserve accumulator pressure
4 ensure pump supply at all times
2
194
Regarding aileron reversal -
1 aileron reversal can be reduced by increasing airspeed
2 aileron reversal can be aggravated by increasing wing stiffness
3 aileron reversal can be reduced by the use of inboard ailerons
4 aileron reversal can be aggravated by the use of spoilers
3
195
An advantage of NICAD batteries in an aircraft installation compared to lead acid batteries is -
1 no dangerous gases
2 no need for ventilation
3 greater load carrying capabilities
4 faster recharge cycle
4
196
The inlet duct of a jet engine at subsonic speeds is designed to convert -
1 kinetic energy into pressure energy
2 potential energy into kinetic energy
3 kinetic energy into potential energy
4 potential energy into pressure energy
1
197
Regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady climb -
1 lift equals weight and thrust equals drag
2 lift is greater than weight and thrust is greater than drag
3 lift is less than weight and thrust is less than drag
4 lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag
4
198
Regarding inner and outer loops of automatic flight control systems -
1 outer loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Inner loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
2 inner loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Outer loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
3 inner loops control the aircraft in pitch while outer loops control the aircraft in roll and yaw
4 inner loops control the aircraft based on air data such as airspeed and barometric altitude and rate gyro error sensing with feedback to maintain attitude. Outer loop control inputs are pilot inputs from the autopilot panel
2
199
The component of the autopilot system which monitors the gyro sensing signal and ensures that the correct attitude reference is being maintained is -
1 the feedback comparator
2 the servomotor
3 the control surface
4 the artificial feel
1
200
In an aircraft equipped with 2 Electronic Attitude Director Indicators (EADIs) and 2 Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicators (EHSIs), one each for the captain and first officer, the number of Symbol Generators (SGs) required is -
1 three
2 two
3 one
4 four
1
