2 Flashcards
Dynamic Hydroplaning occurs as a result of the combination of:
a. Aircraft weight and a wet runway.
b. Aircraft speed, weight and a wet runway.
c. Aircraft speed, tyre pressure and a wet runway.
C
Powered control systems require an artificial feel system to simulate air loads as feedback for the pilot. A common system uses ‘Q’ Feel, which is a function of:
a. Air speed.
b. Control input force.
c. Centre of pressure movement.
A
Large transport jet aircraft use flight spoilers for:
a. Pitch control.
b. Yaw control.
c. Roll control.
C
On an EADI the ATT flag appears, other affected elements of the display are:
a. Pitch and roll and flight director bars.
b. Pitch and roll information.
c. Pitch and roll information, flight director bars and glideslope and localiser deviation.
A
Blocker doors in a turbofan engine reverse thrust system are used to divert the -
a. cooling air
b. cold stream
c. hot stream
d. bleed air
B
The least advisable combination of autopilot/flight director modes is -
a. to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot off
b. to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot on
c. to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot off
d. to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot on
C
Compressor overboard bleed valves are open when there is:
a. An increase in airflow in the forward stages of the compressor at low RPM.
b. A decrease in airflow in the forward stages of the compressor at low RPM.
c. An increase in airflow in the forward stages of the compressor at high RPM.
A
The battery of a large aircraft is being recharged in flight. The method would be:
a. Constant voltage with a reducing current.
b. Constant voltage and current.
c. Constant current with reducing voltage.
A
For measurement of gas temperature in the turbine section of a gas turbine engine, multiple thermocouples are used, and are connected:
a. In series and indicate maximum temperature.
b. In parallel and indicate average temperatures.
c. In parallel and indicate maximum temperature.
B
With reference to an auto-brake system, which of the following would provide maximum braking?
a. Max auto.
b. Manual braking.
c. R.T.O.
C
If the SPD annunciation of the EADI is extinguished:
a. The auto pilot has disconnected.
b. The required speed has been captured, and the AT will maintain selected speed.
c. The auto throttle has disconnected.
C
If the aircraft DME is not locked on and interrogating a ground station, the display will show:
a. All zeros.
b. All dashes.
c. Rolling digits.
B
Regarding the gas flow in the combustion section of an ideal gas turbine engine:
a. Pressure and temperature increase.
b. Pressure and temperature decrease.
c. Pressure is constant and temperature increases.
C
The combination of flight director/autopilot modes not selectable together is -
a. HDG SEL and HDG HOLD.
b. HDG SEL and V/S
c. HDG SEL and ALT HOLD
d. HDG HOLD and LOC
A
The item of jet engine performance that remains constant in a climb if the thrust lever position remains unchanged is -
a. N1 RPM
b. EGT
c. EPR
d. Fuel Flow
A
Regarding inner and outer loops of automatic flight control systems -
a. outer loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Inner loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
b. inner loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Outer loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
c. inner loops control the aircraft in pitch while outer loops control the aircraft in roll and yaw
d. inner loops control the aircraft based on air data such as airspeed and barometric altitude
and rate gyro error sensing with feedback to maintain attitude. Outer loop control inputs are pilot inputs from the autopilot panel
B
The means by which 115V AC is converted to 28V DC in a large aircraft electrical system is a:
a. CSD.
b. CDU.
c. TRU.
C
Regarding the influence of RAM effect on gas turbine engine thrust output:
a. RAM results in a partial recovery as A/C forward speed increases.
b. RAM results in a full recovery of thrust as forward speed increases.
c. RAM does not influence thrust because of temperature in cruise at the inlet.
A
On the MAP mode of the B767-300ER EHSI display the track trend vector shows -
a. the angle of bank required for a rate one turn based on current airspeed
b. the recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern (direct, offset, parallel) based on track crossing the holding fix
c. the predicted path of the aircraft over the ground based on current bank angle and groundspeed using segments representing 30, 60 and 90 second time intervals.
d. the recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern (direct, offset, parallel) based on heading crossing the holding fix
C
The Flight Management Computer of a large transport category jet aircraft does not provide -
a. fuel monitoring
b. navigational information
c. aircraft systems warnings and cautions.
d. descent planning
C
The angle of attack of compressor blades in a gas turbine engine depends primarily on -
a. compressor outlet pressure, air temperature and density
b. true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure
c. compressor inlet pressure, indicated airspeed and RPM
d. compressor inlet temperature, indicated airspeed and RPM
B
Gas turbine engine mass air flow is governed primarily by -
a. the number of combustion chambers, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature
b. the RPM, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature
c. the turbine inlet temperature, the RPM and the number of combustion chambers
d. the RPM, the airspeed and the air density
D
The CSD of a large jet aircraft electrical system is required to control -
a. DC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity
b. AC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity
c. AC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency
d. DC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency
C
In an aircraft equipped with an autoland system incorporating three autopilots, the maximum number of autopilot failures which may be sustained without losing autoland capability is -
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. None
A
The item of information not displayed on the Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI) of a B767 300 ER is
a. groundspeed
b. Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
c. heading
d. AFDS pitch mode annunciation
C
In an axial flow compressor, the blades experiencing the greatest air loads are -
a. the stators
b. the large front rotors
c. the small rear rotors
d. the inlet guide vanes
C
In the turbine of an air cycle machine, bleed air supplied from engines undergoes -
a. an increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
b. an increase in pressure and an increase in temperature
c. a decrease in pressure and a decrease in temperature
d. a decrease in pressure and an increase in temperature
e. a decrease in pressure and no change in temperature
C
In a supersonic air stream, the static pressure behind the expansion wave -
a. decreases
b. increases
c. experiences no change
d. increases then decreases
e. increases to ambient static pressure
A
If an aircraft is flown with the centre of gravity ahead of the forward limit, it would display
a. enhanced elevator authority
b. degraded elevator authority
c. improved lateral stability
d. decreased lateral stability
B
If the Angle of Attack is increased on a swept wing compared with an unswept wing of similar area and aspect ratio, the swept wing will produce -
a. less lift and more drag
b. less lift and less drag
c. more lift and more drag
d. more lift and less drag
A
In high speed flight, aileron effectiveness may be reduced because of shock wave formation near the ailerons or wing twisting.
To overcome these problems, most jet airliners incorporate -
a. powered flight controls
b. spoilers to assist roll control
c. automatic coupling of rudder with aileron input
d. a moderate degree of sweepback
B
In an aircraft flying beyond MCRIT, turbulence felt through the elevator controls is likely to be due to -
a. high speed stall
b. high speed buffet
c. symptoms of MMO
d. Mach tuck
B
On a large jet transport aircraft, the Leading Edge Devices cannot be deployed. The aircraft should approach at –
a. higher than normal speed and lower angle of attack
b. lower than normal speed and angle of attack
c. higher than normal speed and angle of attack
d. lower than normal speed and higher angle of attack
A
The system used in large aircraft to prevent over stressing of the trailing edge flaps is the
a. flap load relief system
b. flap lockout system
c. flap synch system
d. flap asymmetry system
e. flap brake
A
If wing sweepback is increased for the same wing area, wing section and aspect ratio, for a given angle of attack -
a. lift coefficient will decrease, drag will increase
b. lift coefficient will increase, drag will decrease
c. lift coefficient and drag will both increase
d. lift coefficient and drag will both decrease
D
On the CDU of an FMC some pages contain lines for data entry by the crew to programme the FMC for the flight under the prevailing conditions of weather and gross weight
Concerning the entry of data into the CDU
a. data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by boxes on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by dashed lines
b. data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by dashed lines on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by boxes
c. all crew data inputs to the FMC are mandatory for the computation of flight plan performance
d. the FMC is able to perform all functions without any crew data inputs, however data input by crew members will enhance FMC flight performance efficiency
A
In a turbo jet, the right engine fails after takeoff in IMC. The pilot maintains balance control of the aircraft with rudder input and 5 degrees bank towards the live engine. The bank minimises the -
a. weight side force
b. asymmetric thrust
c. side slip force
d. torque effect
C
A B767 aircraft is in cruise with the L autopilot engaged and the FMC is commanding the autopilot with LNAV and VNAV engaged. The auto-throttle is engaged in SPEED mode.
If the pilot wished to fly the aircraft manually and deselected the auto-throttle, FMC, and autopilot, the correct statement concerning the IAS/MACH speed selector and display window is -
a. the window would be blanked
b. the window would show the FMC flight plan speed and could not be changed unless VNAV was again selected
c. the window would show the current speed and could only be changed by entering the new speed on the CDU
d. the window would show the speed at the time VNAV was deselected and could be used to control the command airspeed bug on the ASI
D
A control surface activated by a main control linkage with a hinge moment causing deflection of the primary control surface is called a -
a. trim tab
b. spring loaded tab
c. servo tab
d. lagging tab
C
You are descending at 3000 ft/min in V/S with the autopilot and auto-throttle engaged to the pre-selected altitude of 9000 ft.
As you approach this altitude -
a. the VS light will come on and the alt hold light will extinguish
b. the VS digital display will change to zero
c. the GPWS will advise you aurally that the desired altitude is approaching
d. the VS enunciator will go out and the ALT CAP then ALT HOLD enunciator will come on
D
In a turboprop powered aircraft, the pilot controls the engine power output in flight -
a. by direct CSU control
b. by varying the fuel flow via the fuel control unit
c. by increasing prop RPM
d. by varying the prop blade angle directly
B
The incorrect statement regarding the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is -
a. to act as a pressure reservoir
b. to reduce peak pump demand
c. to smooth out system pressure variation
d. to act as a fluid reservoir
D
Reverse thrust is not used at low forward aircraft speed because -
a. of excessive vibration
b. it is too effective at low speeds
c. hot or turbulent air can lead to engine damage through the ingestion of foreign objects
d. it is a waste of fuel
C
Comparing a swept wing aircraft and a straight wing aircraft both with an increasing angle of attack -
a. the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase
b. the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a greater lift increase
c. the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a greater lift increase
d. the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a lesser lift increase
A
The function of the follow up linkage in the nose wheel landing gear system of a jet transport category aircraft is -
a. to prevent nose wheel shimmy
b. to hold the nose wheel steering at the correct angle
c. to stop tyre scuffing
d. to permit the tiller to turn the nose wheel
B
Conditional waypoints are shown on the Legs Page of the CDU
a. in italics
b. within parentheses
c. in bold type
d. in reverse video (highlighted)
B
The input not used by the auto-throttle system of a large jet transport category aircraft is -
a. N1
b. EGT
c. INS
d. AIR/GROUND LOGIC
C
The function of a pressure relief valve in an aircraft pneumatic system is to -
a. prevent pump cavitation
b. prevent seals from blowing
c. preserve accumulator pressure
d. ensure pump supply at all times
B
In an aircraft equipped with a Flight Management Computer (FMC), a holding pattern programmed into the FMC LNAV active route will command the holding pattern track taking account of -
a. the wind in the CASA wind model
b. the forecast wind
c. the actual wind
d. nil wind
C
The thrust output of a turbojet powered aircraft be greatest -
a. on the brakes on the runway at full thrust
b. between V1 and VR on the runway during the takeoff roll
c. on climb at maximum thrust
d. at VMO/MMO
A
x is the speed for max L/D. What speed would you fly at for best angle of climb in an aircraft with a pure turbo jet?
a. x.
b. Greater than x.
c. Less than x.
A
A jet flying at the appropriate speed for max L/D will achieve best performance for:
a. Angle of climb and endurance.
b. Angle of climb and range.
c. Rate of climb and range.
A
In a turbo jet, the right engine fails after takeoff in IMC. The pilot maintains balance control of aircraft with rudder input and 5 degrees bank towards live engine. The bank minimises:
a. Weight side force.
b. Asymmetric thrust.
c. Side slip force.
d. Torque effect.
C
VMCA of a twin-engine turbo prop aircraft is determined on control after engine failure under a number of conditions, one of which is CG position which shall be:
a. Most forward.
b. Mid range.
c. CP position.
d. Most rearward.
D
A swept wing stalls at a higher speed than an equivalent un-swept wing due to -
a. decreased spanwise flow
b. increased chordwise flow
c. increased spanwise flow
d. increased CL Max
C
Why is stalling speed relatively higher for an aircraft with wing sweep? Because of the effective:
a. Increase in chord-wise airflow.
b. Decrease in chord-wise airflow.
c. Decrease in span-wise airflow.
d. Increase in span-wise airflow.
B
A problem associated with NICAD aircraft batteries is
a. thermal runaway
b. low current at the end of the charge cycle
c. acid spillage.
d. low storage capacity
A
The purpose for a large commercial turbo jet aeroplane extending leading edge slats during approach is to increase:
a. CD by controlling chord-wise airflow over the wings.
b. CL by controlling chord-wise airflow over the wings.
c. CD by controlling span-wise airflow over the wings.
d. CL controlling span-wise airflow over the wings.
B
A typical flight control system as in the B767-300ER uses 3 separate and independent hydraulic systems to power flight controls, all functions are normal, which systems are pilot controls powered from?
a. All systems at all times.
b. One system at a time.
c. Two systems at all times.
d. The system with highest pressure.
A
The unsafe takeoff configuration warning system on a large jet transport will activate when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff and an incorrect selection is made on the -
a. flaps and spoilers, stabiliser trim or brakes
b. flaps, elevator trim, brakes or flight director
c. spoilers, stabiliser trim or GPWS
d. EADI, EHSI, auto throttle or stabiliser trim
A
A ground proximity warning system (GPWS) has different modes of operation to protect an aircraft from premature or unintentional ground contact. The aural messages provided under various circumstances could often be either a soft warning or a hard warning, depending on the seriousness of the situation and the speed of response required for corrective action.
An example of a soft warning and a hard warning respectively are -
a. ‘whoop whoop, pull up’, and ‘don’t sink’
b. ‘too low flap’ and ‘too low gear’
c. ‘terrain’, and ‘whoop whoop, pull up’
d. ‘whoop whoop, pull up’, and ‘too low flap’.
C
A central air data computer (CADC) fitted to an aircraft receives -
a. static and pitot pressure from the pitot head and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
b. electrical signals from the pitot head and converts this data into static and pitot pressure for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
c. static and pitot pressure from the instrument display and converts this data into electrical signals for the pitot head and use by the flight management system
d. static and pitot pressure from the flight management system and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the pitot head
A
Modern airline aircraft have tubeless tyres fitted with fusible alloy plugs. What is the function of the plug?
a. Emergency plug for puncture inflicted on landing.
b. Pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat.
c. Temperature cooling valves during conditions of excessive tyre heat.
d. Indicators of excessive hard braking during landing.
B
Which component in the hydraulic system can prevent excessive hydraulic fluid loss?
a. Shuttle valve.
b. In line check valve.
c. No such device.
d. Hydraulic fuse.
D
Stator vanes in an axial flow compressor convert airstream velocity into pressure by use of:
a. Divergent passages.
b. Axial force.
c. Air foil sections.
d. Convergent passages.
A
Why is it necessary to use cross over tubes (inter-connectors) in can and can-annular combustion chamber systems?
a. Pressure to equalise and fuel to propagate through all flame tubes.
b. Temperature to equalise and combustion to propagate through all flame tubes.
c. Pressure to equalise and combustion to propagate through all flame tubes.
d. Temperature to equalise and flame to propagate through all flame tubes.
C
In gas turbine engines, effective power in reverse thrust is less than forward thrust for the same throttle angle because during reverse:
a. Exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited.
b. Engine is rpm limited.
c. Turbine is not as effective due to build up of back-pressure.
d. Ingestion of exhaust gas causes loss of engine efficiency.
A
What are some warning flags that appear on a conventional ADI?
a. GS, gyro and computer.
b. GS, VOR/LOC and computer.
c. VOR/LOC, compass and computer.
d. Gyro, compass and computer
A
Which performance speed in a jet aircraft is not controlled by the auto throttle?
a. Vertical speed.
b. Approach speed.
c. Descent speed.
d. Engine rotation speed.
A
In a free power turbine engine, the free power turbine is :
a. Connected to the high-pressure compressor.
b. Connected to the low-pressure compressor.
c. Not connected to any compressor.
C
In a steady climb, an increase in headwind component will:
a. Increase rate and angle of climb.
b. Increase angle of climb.
c. Decrease rate of climb.
d. Not change angle or rate of climb.
B
In an aircraft without a digital data bus, the autopilot altitude information for altitude hold mode taken from:
a. The captain’s altimeter.
b. Co pilot’s altimeter/
c. The Air Data Computer (ADC)
d. The autopilot aneroid.
D
In a B767-300ER with 3 autopilots, for a fail operational auto-land approach, the number of separate electrical systems required to power the autopilots is:
a. 1 AC/DC system.
b. 2 AC/DC systems.
c. 3 AC/DC systems.
d. 4 AC/DC systems.
C
A digital flight data recorder provides a record of -
a. airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude information and ADC data
b. airspeed, altitude, heading, and cockpit voices
c. airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude, ADC data, and cockpit voices
d. control positions, airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude and ADC data
D
A typical EHSI displays heading and track information. If the Heading reference switch is selected on NORMAL, and the aeroplane is flying from Melbourne to Darwin, which of the following EHSI modes will NOT display magnetic track UP?
a. PLAN
b. VOR
c. MAP
B
A typical FMS incorporates two FMCs and two EHSIs. The pilot both have the MAP mode displayed on their respective EHSIs but have different range scales selected. The left FMC suddenly fails but the crew does NOT intervene with any manual corrective action. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the display on the left EHSI after the failure?
a. It will be totally blank.
b. It will switch to the display currently existing on the right EHSI.
c. It will be unaffected.
d. It will display MAP failure flag.
D
Hot air for engine and nacelle anti-icing is normally obtained from the:
a. High pressure compressor stages.
b. Low pressure compressor stages.
c. Turbine outlet.
d. Compressor outlet
A
One advantage of Ni-Cad batteries compared to lead acid batteries is:
a. Shorter charge time.
b. Less corrosive
c. Does not required venting
d. Higher load carrying capacity
A
As altitude increases, the indicated minimum control speed airborne VMCA with the critical engine inoperative and the other engine(s) at maximum continuous thrust, will -
a. increase as directional stability decreases
b. remain constant
c. increase or decrease, depending on aircraft and engine type
d. decrease up to the altitude where the stall speed becomes the limiting factor
D
What environmental effect will increase VMCA in a multi-engine aeroplane? An increase in:
a. Temperature.
b. Density.
c. Pressure altitude.
d. Aerodrome altitude.
B
To achieve max angle of climb to achieve obstacle clearance after takeoff a jet aircraft must climb at:
a. Min drag speed with zero flap.
b. Min drag speed with takeoff flap.
c. Min safe speed with zero flap.
d. Min safe speed with takeoff flap.
A
A large jet transport aircraft is in cruise at high altitude with stabiliser trim set correctly, the position of the elevator would be:
a. Up.
b. Down,
c. Faired.
C
The Right engine fails after takeoff with IMC. With no corrective action the balance ball will:
a. Move left.
b. Move right.
c. Stay centred.
A
On the EADI, brown and blue colours disappear because:
a. Overhead lights are too bright.
b. The screens are overheating.
c. The power source has failed.
d. The symbol generator has failed.
B
To achieve maximum endurance when holding in an aircraft fitted with a pure turbo jet. The ideal altitude should be:
a. As high as possible.
b. As low as possible.
c. Lower rather than higher.
d. Higher rather than lower.
D
An aircraft has 2 FMC’s which the pilots access through 2 control display units (CDU’s), the CDU’s will NOT allow the pilot’s to:
a. Simultaneously enter inputs to the FMC’s subsystems.
b. Enter the fuel on board and the required flight fuel reserves.
c. Input the AUW and CG position.
d. Change the original entered flight plan while in-flight.
e. Specify ETA’s for destination and en-route waypoints.
A
In the auto mode of most pressurisation systems the required inputs from the pilot pre-flight are:
a. Landing airfield elevation and cabin rate of change.
b. Cabin altitude and cruise altitude.
c. Required differential pressure and landing altitude.
d. Cruise altitude and destination elevation
D
An increase in gross weight will cause the position of the total drag curve to move:
a. Up and left.
b. Up and right.
c. Down and left.
d. Down and right.
B
The deployment of spoilers will cause the position of the total drag curve to move:
a. Up and left.
b. Up and right.
c. Down and left.
d. Down and right.
A
The extension of landing gear will cause the position of the total drag curve to move:
a. Up and left.
b. Up and right.
c. Down and left.
d. Down and right.
A
The failure of the bleed valve to close in gas turbine engine after start will result in:
a. EGT rise.
b. Compressor surge.
c. Compressor stall.
d. Thrust increase.
A
In a flight management system, conditional waypoints may be used when programming a flight.
The term conditional waypoint refers to -
a. a waypoint defined by an event or a condition which does not relate to a fixed geographical location
b. a manually entered waypoint without a name
c. a waypoint constructed by the crew which is not in the data base of the FMC
d. a waypoint which will only be overflown if certain in flight conditions are met
A
Under normal pressurisation what will the position of the outflow valve be from takeoff to cruise?
a. Fully closed until the desired cruise altitude is reached.
b. Automatically controlled by the cabin pressure controller.
c. Fully closed until the desired cabin altitude is reached.
d. Pilot selects position with outflow valve knob.
B
The high pressure turbine on a turbofan, compared to a turbojet of the same thrust output would be:
a. Larger because of the smaller mass air flow.
b. Larger because of the larger mass air flow.
c. Smaller because of the smaller mass air flow.
d. Smaller because of the large mass air flow.
C
In large jet aircraft, aeration in the fuel lines is prevented by:
a. Engine driven pumps.
b. The hand pump.
c. Boost pumps.
d. The Accumulator.
C
With regard to the operation of powered controls in an aircraft with 3 independent hydraulic systems such as a 767-300 ER
a. all three systems supply the flight controls at all times providing automatic backup
b. only one system supplies the flight controls at any one time with the other systems providing backup automatically
c. the third standby system only operates when selected to supply the flight controls in the event of a failure of one of the other systems
d. one system supplies the ailerons, one supplies the elevator and another supplies the rudder
A
High energy capacitor discharge igniter plugs as used in the ignition system of a gas turbine engine are used to provide -
a. a hot (high value) spark at high voltage
b. a cool (low value) spark at low voltage
c. a hot (high value) spark at low voltage
d. a cool (low value) spark at high voltage
A
The reason for the use of oil/fuel heat exchangers in the fuel system of a large turbine powered aircraft is -
a. to prevent fuel vaporisation
b. to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel lines
c. to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel filter
d. to heat the oil and prevent excessive viscosity
C
The component of an aircraft electrical system providing the initial excitation field for a constant speed PMG type alternator is -
a. the permanent magnet generator or pilot exciter
b. the main exciter
c. the static inverter
d. there is no initial excitation required with an alternator
A
In an aircraft with powered flight controls, the component which is always part of the system is -
a. manual reversion
b. hydraulics.
c. artificial feel
d. pneumatics
C
Primary control rate of climb is achieved through variations in:
a. Angle of attack
b. Power or thrust
c. Forward speed
d. The wing camber
e. The wing area
B
An aircraft has a tendency to stay in a spin. This shows:
a. A lack of directional stability
b. To much directional stability compared to lateral stability
c. That the tail fin is too small
d. That ventral strakes and/or a dorsal fin extension is required
e. That the aircraft needs anhedral or less dihedral
B
The compressor primarily converts:
a. Kinetic energy to potential energy
b. Kinetic energy to pressure energy
c. Potential energy into kinetic energy
d. Pressure energy into kinetic energy
B
In which of the situations would you expect the strength of wing tip vortices to be the greatest?
a. At high speed with leading and trailing edge high lift devices fully extended
b. At low speed, clean configuration, high gross weight
c. At low speed, landing flap selected, high gross weight
d. At low speed with leading and trailing edge high lift devices fully extended, low gross weight
B
Turbulent wake in the form of wing tip trailing vortices behave in what manner?
a. Flow down at about 1000 fpm, leveling off about 500 ft below the aircraft
b. Flow up at about 300-500 fpm, leveling off about 500 ft above the aircraft
c. Flow down at about 300-500 fpm, leveling off about 1000 ft below the aircraft
d. Flow down at about 700-80 fpm, leveling off about 1000 ft below the aircraft
C
Which of the following is NOT an input into a modern auto-throttle system?
a. N1
b. EGT
c. IRS
d. CADC
e. Airspeed Fast/Slow indicator
C
On a large jet transport aircraft, extending the trailing edge flaps alone could cause:
a. No pitch changes
b. Pitch up
c. Pitch down
C
The ‘ram ratio’ in a gas turbine engine is defined as the ratio of -
a. total pressure to static pressure at the air intake
b. total pressure to dynamic pressure at the air intake
c. total pressure to static pressure in the compressor
d. total pressure to dynamic pressure in the compressor
A
On a large air transport jet aircraft, over pressure protection to pneumatic user systems is provided by:
a. An accumulator
b. Pump speed variation
c. A pressure reduction valve
d. Negative pressure relief valve
C
Extension of trailing edge slotted fowler flaps could see the:
a. Centre of gravity move forwards
b. Aircraft pitch up
c. Centre of pressure move aft
C
Out of the items listed below, which is NOT an input to a modern Auto-throttle system?
a. Flap position
b. ILS localiser
c. Airspeed/Mach AFDS selection
d. Angle of Attack (AoA) sensor
e. Air temperature
B
During an auto-land 3 operation, an autopilot system failure occurs but leaves the overall system functioning without performance degradation. This initial auto-land status is referred to as?
a. Fail soft
b. Fail passive
c. Fail operational
d. Fail proof
C
In which way do the “safety valves”, (also known as “Fluid Transfer Valves”) in the nose wheel steering system act in the event of total hydraulic failure?
a. Place the nose wheel into castor mode
b. Allow the nose wheel to be steered by differential braking
c. Lock the nose wheel straight ahead
A
The auto-throttle and flight director are engaged and the autopilot is off during cruise. ALT HOLD is the pitch mode. SPD is the auto-throttle mode.
In this case -
a. the autothrottle will adjust thrust to hold a steady IAS while the flight director command bars command pitch to hold the reference altitude
b. the system is inoperable
c. the flight director will not engage in this situation
d. the flight director command bars will be hidden in this situation
A
An affect of extending slats on approach is to:
a. Increase to co-efficient of drag and re-energise span-wise flow
b. Increase the co-efficient of drag and re-energise chord-wise flow
c. Increase the co-efficient of lift and re-energise chord-wise flow
d. Increase the co-efficient of drag and re-energise chord-wise flow
C
In a gas turbine engine at engine design RPM -
a. an OAT decrease leads to thrust decrease
b. an OAT increase leads to thrust decrease
c. an OAT increase leads to thrust increase
d. humidity increase leads to thrust increase
B
Thermal runaway of a nickel cadmium battery is caused by:
a. Overcharging
b. Insufficient cooling
c. Under-charging
A
The purpose of the water separator in an ACM air-conditioning unit is to:
a. Prevent ice build-up in the expansion turbine
b. Prevent ice blockage of the condenser
c. Stop mist coming into cabin
C
With regard to the cancellation of warnings and cautions in the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) of a jet transport aircraft -
a. warnings and cautions can both be cancelled regardless of system status by using the cancel button
b. warnings are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but cautions may be cancelled using the cancel button
c. warnings and cautions may only be cancelled if the associated fault no longer exists
d. cautions are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but warnings may be cancelled using the cancel button
B
In a typical aircraft pressurisation/air cycle machine system, how many water separators are provided per pack?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
A
In the B767 FMS, the pitch mode in the FMA that is displayed when in a steady descent with auto-throttle engaged and conforming to a FMS planned descent path is:
a. VNAV PATH
b. VNAV SPD
c. FLCH
d. IDLE
e. THR HOLD
A
The component of the autopilot system which monitors the gyro sensing signal and ensures that the correct attitude reference is being maintained is -
a. the feedback comparator
b. the servomotor
c. the control surface
d. the artificial feel
A
In a air conditioning system featuring an “air cycle machine” (ACM), how does the turbine affect
the temperature and pressure of air arriving from the engine bleed ducts?
a. Temperature is reduced/Pressure is reduced
b. Temperature is reduced/Pressure is increased
c. Temperature is increased/Pressure is reduced
d. Temperature is increased/Pressure is increased
A
Regarding aileron reversal -
a. aileron reversal can be reduced by increasing airspeed
b. aileron reversal can be reduced by the use of inboard ailerons
c. aileron reversal can be aggravated by increasing wing stiffness
d. aileron reversal can be aggravated by the use of spoilers
B
A typical FMS incorporates 2 FMC’s and 2 EHSI’s. If both pilots have MAP mode selected on the EHSI screens and the left FMC suddenly fails, without any corrective action the left EHSI will:
a. Be unaffected
b. Be totally blank
c. Display a MAP failure flag
d. Switch automatically to the display mode showing on the right EHSI
C
On an EHSI if the heading reference switch is set to ‘NORMAL’, and the aircraft is flying between Adelaide and Brisbane, then which of the modes listed would NOT display magnetic track UP digital numerical value?
a. Plan mode
b. VOR mode
c. Map mode
B
For the B767 featuring 3 autopilot’s conducting a ‘FAIL OPERATIONAL’ auto-land ILS approach, after ‘bus isolation occurs’ the minimum number of separate electrical supply systems required is:
a. 1AC/1DC supply
b. 2AC/2DC supply
c. 2AC/1DC supply
d. 4AC/2DC supply
C
The hydraulic reservoir in a jet aircraft hydraulic system is pressurised by bleed air to -
a. ensure a positive fluid supply to the pumps at all times
b. reduce foaming as altitude increases
c. maintain hydraulic fluid temperature at the required level
d. pressurise the supply lines to the using systems
A
The correct procedure to follow in the event of a hot start to prevent torching in a gas turbine engine is to -
a. motor the engine with the fuel supply cut off
b. gradually open the throttle to richen the mixture and cool the combustion temperatures
c. open the bleed valves to increase the mass air flow through the compressor
d. close the bleed valves to decrease mass flow through the compressor
A
If the drag spoilers are deflected up in flight, the position of the total drag curve moves:
a. Right and downwards
b. Right and upwards
c. Left and downwards
d. Left and upward
D
A swept wing jet flying at L/D max would achieve best performance for:
a. Rate of climb and best range
b. Angle of climb and best range
c. Angle of climb and best endurance
C
The stall speed of an aircraft at a particular gross weight will be highest with -
a. a forward centre of gravity
b. a rearward centre of gravity
c. low altitude
d. power on
A
In a jet transport aircraft, which items is NOT controlled by the auto-throttle?
a. Engine RPM
b. Vertical speed
c. Approach speed
B
A twin jet aircraft suffers a complete and sudden failure of the right engine shortly after lift-off.
The pilot maintains balance with rudder, and a 5o bank toward the live engine is adopted. The bank angle reduces:
a. Torque effect
b. Asymmetric thrust
c. Weight side force
d. Slide-slip force
D
In the event of the nose-wheel steering failure, the safety valves will:
a. Centre the nose-wheel
b. Restrict the degree of nose-wheel deflection possible
c. Prevent extreme nose-wheel shimmy
d. Allow the nose-wheel to swivel
D
The power response of a turbojet engine compared to a turboprop at various RPM settings is -
a. faster at high RPM
b. faster at both high and low RPM
c. slower at low RPM
d. slower at high RPM
C
Various chemical methods are used in large jet aircraft to improve forward visibility in rain.
a. only in conjunction with windshield wipers
b. only in light rain
c. prior to entering rain
d. periodically in heavy rain
D
An increase in which environment factor will increase VMCA in an aircraft featuring wing mounted pod engines?
a. Aerodrome altitude
b. Pressure altitude
c. Density
d. Temperature
e. Density altitude
C
In order to delay flow separation on an aerofoil at the stall, the characteristics of the boundary layer should ideally be -
a. laminar due to the reduced surface friction
b. turbulent due to the increased surface friction
c. laminar due to the minimum boundary layer depth
d. turbulent due to the higher velocities at the wing surface
D
Large transport category aircraft are often fitted with several artificial devices to provide protection against various undesirable flight characteristics. The yaw damper is one such device designed to prevent the development of uncommanded yaw at high altitude and speed by automatic rudder input controlled by a gyro stabilised feedback system. There are two main types of yaw dampers in common use today, the parallel type and the series type.
The statement which correctly describes the difference between these two types of yaw damper is –
a. the parallel type yaw damper operates in parallel with the autopilot’s or pilot’s rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The series type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight
b. the parallel type yaw damper uses two independent circuits to provide redundancy and both circuits operate simultaneously in normal operation. The series type yaw damper uses one circuit at a time with manual switching required to activate the backup in the event of a failure
c. the series type yaw damper uses two independent circuits to provide redundancy and both circuits operate simultaneously in normal operation. The parallel type yaw damper uses one circuit at a time with manual switching required to activate the backup in the event of a failure
d. the series type yaw damper operates in series with the autopilot’s or pilot’s rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The parallel type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight
A
With regard to jet transport electrical systems -
a. with a split bus system the generators are always paralleled
b. with a parallel bus system the generators are paralleled
c. with a split bus system the generators are connected in series
d. with a parallel bus system the generators are connected in series
B
With regard to the thrust output of a jet engine, the highest 30% of thrust is produced?
a. It is linear throughout all RPM ranges
b. Above 75% RPM
c. Below 75% RPM
d. Above 90% RPM
D
Increased range of a turbine-powered aircraft would result with which of the following:
a. 1 litre of Avtur
b. 1 kilogram of Avtur
c. Use of Avgas
d. The same unit of volume or weight equally
B
Which item is a performance and loading factor in a flying tail?
a. Trim
b. C of G position
c. Weight
d. Speed
B
When should rain repellent be used?
a. Any time the wipers are working
b. To clear a dirty windscreen
c. Periodically in heavy rain when wipers are working
C
Which position is used to determine VMCA of a twin turbo-prop aircraft?
a. The most forward of the C of G range
b. The most rearward of the C of G range
c. The middle of the C of G range
d. The position of the centre of pressure at the minimum steady flight speed
B
The TCAS system fitted to the modern jet transport category of aircraft is able to provide two main types of messages to alert crew to the presence of traffic in the area. These messages are traffic advisories (TA’s) and resolution advisories (RA’s).
The statement correctly listing the differences between TA’s and RA’s is -
a. traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
b. resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
c. resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
d. traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
D
In a steady climb and increase in headwind component will:
a. Not change angle or rate of climb
b. Increase climb rate but not climb angle
c. Increase climb rate and climb angle
d. Increase climb angle but not climb rate
D
On a conventional Machmeter/ASI (MASI), a masked Mach speed display indicates that
a. the instrument has failed
b. the Mach number is below M 0.6
c. the power supply to the instrument has been interrupted
d. the data from the CADC is unreliable
D
The factor most significantly affecting the cockpit cut off angle is -
a. the instrumentation placement
b. the pilot’s posture
c. VREF
d. the pilot’s eye position and seat height
D
High energy capacitor igniter plugs are used in the ignition system of a turbine engine, provided:
a. A high value spark at high voltage.
b. A high value spark at low voltage.
c. A low value spark at high voltage.
A
The most critical factors in determining the relight capability of a turbine engine are:
a. Fuel pressure and altitude.
b. Altitude and airspeed.
c. Igniter energy and fuel pressure.
B
Dynamic hydroplaning may occur at:
a. A maximum speed of 9 √ tyre pressure.
b. A minimum speed of 7.7 √ tyre pressure.
c. A minimum speed of 9 √ tyre pressure.
C
In a TCAS 11 equipped aircraft with TA only mode selected, RA’s will appear as:
a. Be displayed as in RA mode.
b. Be inhibited and appears as TA’s.
c. Will not display RA’s.
B
In steady asymmetric flight in a twin piston engine aircraft:
a. Zero bank at zero sideslip is possible.
b. Bank is used to balance the drag of the failed engine.
c. Bank and rudder are normally used to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine.
C
The effect of a VR overspeed on lift off speed and distance and second segment climb gradient is:
a. Increase increase increase.
b. Decrease increase decrease.
c. Decrease increase decrease.
A
The C of G is near its forward envelope limit. Which statement is most correct?
a. Less elevator force is required to change the pitch attitude than with an aft C of G position.
b. Greater elevator force is required to change the pitch attitude than with an aft C of G
position.
c. The same force is required to change the pitch attitude as with an aft C of G position.
B
An excessively aft C of G when on approach to land will cause?
a. Heavy elevator control forces, and decreased pitch stability.
b. No difference in elevator forces, and no change in pitch stability.
c. Light elevator control forces, and decreased pitch stability
C
A number of swept wing jet transport aircraft have a limitation such that flap extension at high altitudes (typically above FL200) is prohibited. This is because?
a. The aircraft may under certain conditions become unstable in yaw whilst banking.
b. The high IAS at such altitude can exceed that of the flap restricting Mach number.
c. Stall warning and flap fatigue life may be compromised.
B
As the speed of a large jet aircraft increases from a stall speed up to cruise speed, the power required to fly straight and level will:
a. Increases.
b. Increase and then decrease.
c. Decrease and then increase.
C
If the angle of attack is increased on a swept wing compared to a straight wing of similar aspect ratio and area, the swept wing will produce:
a. Less lift more drag.
b. More lift less drag.
c. Less lift less drag.
A
Powered controls uses ‘Q’ feel to provide artificial feel which is a function of:
a. Control input force.
b. Airspeed.
c. Centre of pressure movement
B
The highest gas pressure in a gas turbine engine is found:
a. At the nozzle guide vanes.
b. In the exhaust duct.
c. At the combustion chamber entry
C
As the speed of a large transport aircraft increases from low speed stall to MMO, the power requirements during this phase can best be described as?
a. An increase then a decrease.
b. Decrease then increase.
c. Non-linear increase.
B
The main advantage of kerosene to wide cut fuel used in a gas turbine engine is:
a. Lower volatility and higher flash point.
b. Lower volatility and lower flash point.
c. Higher volatility and lower flash point.
A
An aircraft accelerates beyond Mcrit. If NOT corrected by the Mach Trimmer, it can display a nose-down tendency. This is due to?
a. The wingtips stalling first, as tends to happen on rearward swept wings at high speed.
b. The forward movement of the C of P due to the shockwave attaching to the leading edge.
c. The rearward movement of the Centre of Pressure, and reduced tailplane down-load.
C
In an aircraft equipped with an FMC, a holding pattern programmed into the active route will command the holding track using the:
a. The forecast wind.
b. The actual wind.
c. The wind in the computer program.
B
Gas turbine mass air flow is governed primarily by:
a. The RPM, the number of compressor stages and turbine inlet temperature.
b. The RPM, airspeed and the air density.
c. Turbine inlet temperature, and RPM.
B
Capacitor type fuel quantity gauges on transport type aircraft may use compensators. The compensators are designed to correct for variations on fuel:
a. Temperature.
b. Density.
c. Volatility.
A
An aircraft landing gear tyre replacement is essential with:
a. A worn tread.
b. A deep cut in the tyre.
c. A bulge in the side wall.
C
Which item of jet engine performance remains constant in a climb, if the thrust lever remains unchanged:
a. EGT
b. EPR
c. N1 RPM
C
The manoeuvre envelope defines?
a. The gust responses by the particular aircraft when in turbulent conditions.
b. The speed/load factor limits within which the aircraft is to be operated.
c. Airline policy for bank angle maximums to be used when carrying Pax or Freight, and must by law be incorporated in the Aircraft Operating Manual (AOM)?
B
Conditional waypoints are entered into the FMC via the:
a. Route legs page.
b. Departures or arrivals page.
c. Init/Ref page.
B
In a full power turbo prop aircraft, the free power turbine is:
a. Connected to the HP compressor.
b. Connected to the LP compressor.
c. Not connected to any other turbine shaft
C
During the “rollout” sub mode of an auto land, the idle mode of the auto throttle will be:
a. Engaged until 5 feet radio altitude.
b. Disengaged 5 seconds after touch down.
c. Disconnected when selecting reverse.
C
The B767–300ER incorporates a typical Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS).When an ILS is being flown, with the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’, and ‘APPROACH’ modes selected, which statement best represents the actions that follow ?
a. The system is armed to capture the glide-slope, and ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ will automatically cancel when this occurs.
b. The AFDS will maintain the selected altitude, and fly a Localiser only approach until the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ function is manually de-selected, then it will fly the glide-slope also.
c. The system can NOT be armed for the approach until the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ function is manually selected off at or before glide-slope capture.
A
Shock waves can form at a true Mach number below Mach 1.0. This is because?
a. The airflow around the wing tips is accelerated to greater than free stream Mach number when the aircraft is in a turn.
b. Because curved surfaces in various parts of the aircraft accelerate the air to greater than free stream Mach number.
c. The speed of sound is lower at high altitude.
B
The use of sweepback on a transport aircraft wing will result in:
a. A decrease in MCDR.
b. An increase in MCDR.
c. An increase in lift.
B
Which answer best describes the disadvantage of a turboprop engine, compared to a turbojet engine ?
a. Turboprops have higher SFC at low altitudes than do turbojets.
b. Less effective reverse thrust capability during landing operations.
c. Lower propulsive efficiencies at high subsonic Mach numbers.
d. Turboprop less capable of lifting heavy loads off short runways.
C
Which of the following switches must be closed before a generator can be connected to the synchronising bus?
a. The generator circuit breaker switch.
b. The bus tie-breaker switch
c. The generator control relay switch.
d. The generator field switch.
B
An aircraft is flying with its CG at the forward limit. How would the fuel burn be affected?
a. It would be less
b. It would be greater
c. It wouldn’t change
B
Flap should not be lowered at high flight levels. One reason for this is -
a. the possibility of CAT
b. flap extension speed may be below the aircraft stall speed at high altitude
c. the increased effective wing camber would lead to early shockwave formation
d. the flap mechanism is disabled above FL150
B
You are about to descend through cloud containing heavy freezing rain.
The best descent configuration to minimise the risk of airframe ice in these conditions is -
a. engine RPM at idle and speedbrakes out
b. engine RPM at idle and speedbrakes in
c. engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes in
d. engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes out
D
In an aircraft equipped with three autopilots, the C autopilot fails.
Assuming all autopilots were engaged on a coupled approach, the failure would be indicated by -
a. all control panel lights extinguishing
b. both autopilots disconnecting completely
c. a synthetic voice warning
d. a change in the auto-land status enunciator (ASA) from LAND 3 to LAND 2
D
Most large jet transport category aircraft have electrical windshield heating as an anti-ice and anti-fog system, and to increase resistance to bird-strike impact.
Concerning electrical windshield heating -
a. some arcing is normal
b. the system may not be operated on the ground
c. the window may appear tinted when viewed with reflected light
d. the system is only installed on the captains front windshield and side windows
C
In comparison to an unswept wing, a swept wing will have a -
a. lower MAX CL only at subsonic speeds
b. lower MAX CL at subsonic and supersonic speeds
c. higher MAX CL only at subsonic speeds
d. higher MAX CL only at supersonic speeds
B
The purpose of a restrictor valve in the undercarriage hydraulic system of a large aircraft is -
a. to prevent the undercarriage from extending past the stop position and to hold the undercarriage in the up position when pressure is removed from the system
b. to limit the maximum PSI in the system
c. to prevent hammering in the lines
d. limit the speed of operation of the system and prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension
D
The component used for converting 28 volts DC to 115 VAC at 400 Hz in large modern jet transport category aircraft is -
a. the static rectifier
b. the static (fullwave) inverter
c. the rotary inverter
d. the transformer-rectifier (TR)
B
A flap load relief system (flap limiter) on a large jet aircraft operates whenever
a. the flap load limit is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever moving automatically and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded
b. the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever moving automatically and staying at the new setting
c. the flap load limit is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps staying at the new setting
d. the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded
D
Concerning a jet transport aircraft flying below the speed of sound
a. there is no possibility of shockwave formation on the wings or fuselage of an aircraft in subsonic cruise
b. shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air
c. shockwaves are present at all times on an aircraft in subsonic cruise
d. shockwaves maybe present on the wings at any speed below MCRIT
B
In an aircraft equipped with two flight management computers and the EHSI’s selected to map mode, a failure of the Captain’s (L) FMC will cause -
a. the Captain’s Map display on the EHSI to be supplied automatically from the opposite side FMC, with an FMC FAIL message on the EHSI
b. the Captain’s Map display to show a map flag, with an FMC FAIL message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) FMC switch, which feeds the Captain’s map display from the opposite side FMC
c. the Captain’s Map display to show an FMC FAIL flag, with an FMC fail message on the CDU. The map display is automatically restored by data from the opposite side FMC
d. the Captain’s Map display to go blank, with a map fail message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) map switch, which feeds the Captain’s map display from the opposite side EHSI
B
A variable incidence tail-plane with stabiliser trim, as an alternative to a conventional elevator with trim -
a. is required to cope with high altitude and high gross weights
b. can produce excessively high control forces if out of trim
c. has very limited control authority
d. reduces residual control forces
B
As an aircraft Mach Number increases from subsonic, through M 1.0 to low supersonic speeds,
the drag coefficient of the aircraft -
a. increases steadily
b. decreases steadily
c. remains approximately constant
d. increases, then decreases
D
As the speed of a large jet transport aircraft increases from the stall speed flaps up to the maximum allowable cruise speed, the power required to fly straight and level will -
a. increase
b. decrease
c. increase then decrease
d. decrease then increase
D
The last minute addition of 1000 kg of fuel to a large transport category aircraft before take off will most seriously affect -
a. the take off distance required
b. the climb speed
c. the cruise altitude
d. the landing distance available
A
The auto pilot depends on devices to measure aircraft attitude changes so that information may be used to achieve controlled flight. Accelerometers assist in a -
a. coordinated turn
b. set rate of climb and descent
c. coordinated climb and descent
d. level turn
B
The device that controls the direction of movement of a hydraulic actuating unit, is called the?
a. Sequencing valve.
b. Flow control valve.
c. Pressure relief valve.
d. Selector valve.
D
Assuming a constant speed drive is disconnected in flight when, and under what circumstances can it be re-connected ?
a. Anytime when in-flight
b. Automatically, when the undercarriage air/ground logic switch has weight on it.
c. Electrically, when the undercarriage air/ground logic switch has weight on it.
d. Mechanically, when the aircraft is on the ground.
D
Assuming the aircraft is within the various radio altitude envelope bands, in which of the following scenarios will the flight crew receive a warning ?-
a. When 1 dot or more below the glide-slope.
b. During a slow descent over flat terrain, whilst in the correct landing configuration.
c. When an unsafe radio height is reached, with the aircraft NOT in the landing configuration.
d. With an excessive closure rate when approaching a near vertical cliff.
C
Assuming the same degree of trailing edge flap deflection, which answer best describes the primary advantage of slotted flaps, compared to fowler flaps ?
a. Greater flap area.
b. Longer effective chord length.
c. Improved boundary layer airflow over flaps.
d. Increased camber occurs.
C