3 Flashcards
With the EHSI range set to 40 nm, nearby airport runways within the FMC databases show as:
a. A red diamond with two sold white lines parallel to each other
b. Two solid white lines with a dashed centreline extending 14.2 nm from the runway symbol, runway number and circuit direction
c. Two dashed lines with one solid centreline extending 20.2 nm from the runway symbol, runway number is shown but not circuit direction
B
Can weather radar returns be displayed in FULL (ROSE) VOR mode?
a. Yes
b. No
B
Which answer best represents the display characteristics of the “Expanded ILS mode”?
a. Weather radar returns cannot be displayed, orientation is track up
b. Weather radar returns can be displayed, orientation is heading up. Aircraft is at the centre of 360 degree compass rose
c. Weather radar returns can be displayed, orientation is heading up. Aircraft is displayed as a white triangle at the bottom of the display. Compass arc shown is 70 degrees
C
Which one of the answers listed below best represents the display of active waypoints and active routes:
a. Active waypoints are displayed in white, and tracks as dashed white lines
b. Active waypoints are displayed in magenta and tracks as dashed white lines
c. Active waypoints are displayed in blue and tracks as dashed white lines
d. Active waypoints are displayed in magenta and tracks as solid magenta lines
D
Tuned VOR beacons are shown as?
a. Blue triangles
b. Green triangles
c. Red squares
d. Magenta stars
e. Green hexagon
E
Nearby VOR’s which are not tuned are displayed as:
a. Blue squares
b. Green squares
c. Blue hexagons
d. Magenta stars
e. White stars
C
Navaids can only be displayed in MAP mode.
a. True
b. False
A
The heading trend vector is available in all EHSI display modes.
a. True
b. False
B
Wind direction/speed indications are available in all EHSI display modes.
a. True
b. False
B
All airports, including farm airstrips that are not in the FMC navigation database, can be displayed by pressing the “Airport” switch on the EHSI mode control panel.
a. True
b. False
B
Which statement is correct about ‘Conditional Waypoints’?
a. They can be entered manually by the flight crew
b. They are events which are defined by a geographically fixed position by radial distance
c. There are four types – passing through an altitude, radial, DME distance, and intercepting a course
d. Only altitude conditional waypoints are displayed on the EHSI
D
Provisional or modified routes are displayed as:
a. A dashed magenta line
b. A solid magenta line
c. A dashed white line
d. A solid white line
C
A B767 approaching a waypoint which is associated with a holding pattern. On the EHSI screen you note that the pattern is displayed in as a solid blue line. This means that:
a. The holding pattern is active, and the aircraft will enter the holding pattern
b. The holding pattern is inactive and the aircraft will not enter the pattern, instead continuing to follow the solid magenta route it is presently on
B
Which statement is correct regarding holding pattern and procedure turns that are displayed on the EHSI screen?
a. Active holding patterns and procedure turns are shown in magenta. Inactive in blue and modified in white
b. Active holding patterns and procedure turns in blue. Inactive in magenta and modified in white
c. Active holding patterns and procedure turns are displayed in white. Inactive in magenta and modified in blue
A
The left EADI screen suddenly goes blank. The left EHSI screen is still fully operational. You would suspect:
a. A failure of the right symbol generator
b. A failure of the left symbol generator
c. A failure of the centre symbol generator
d. A failure of the left flight director system
e. An over-temp of the EADI screen or a power failure to it
E
The B767 standby RMI’s are “BOOTSTRAPPED”. This means that:
a. If the left IRS fails, you can expect that the First Officers EHSI will also have failed
b. If the left IRS fails, you can expect the First Officers EADI will also have failed
c. If the left IRS fails, you can expect that the First Officers RMI will also have failed
C
The left FMC has failed whilst in MAP mode, what indications would you get on the EHSI?
a. The “ATTITUDE” flab being displayed
b. All EHSI flags will show
c. The left EHSI screen will blank, and the centre SG will need to be selected to restore MAP function
d. The “MAP” flags will appear, and FMC cross-side inputs will need to be selected to MAP function
e. No change in EHSI display as the EHSI position display information is supplied by the symbol generator
D
Blocker doors in a turbofan engine reverse thrust system are used to divert the:
a. Cool bypass air.
b. Hot stream.
c. Bleed air.
A
Regarding the EHSI, the difference between the display in Plan and Map mode is:
a. Map shows the flight plan displayed against a small scale map of the route to be flown.
b. Plan is the normally used display and shows information against a moving map background.
c. Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed without current track and heading information.
d. Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed with the current track and heading information at the top of the screen.
D
On a B767 EHSI display, either a full or expanded compass scale is available in:
a. VOR (NAV) and ILS.
b. Plan and VOR (NAV).
c. Map and ILS.
d. Plan and Map.
A
If the FMC detects a difference between the FMC computed (calculated) fuel quantity and the fuel gauge indicted (sensed) quantity, the system will:
a. Automatically use the lower value for subsequent navigational computations.
b. Alert the pilots to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message.
c. Recalibrate the sensed fuel quantity shown on EICAS to agree with the computed quantity.
d. Automatically use the higher value for subsequent navigational computations.
B
In a large transport category aircraft, fuel moving around in the tanks could cause uncommanded attitude changes after pitching or rolling manoeuvres. This is prevented by:
a. Flying the aircraft in balance during all stages of flight.
b. High speed fuel pumps.
c. Baffles in the fuel tanks.
d. Fuel orifices.
C
The bank angle limit select knob on the AP/FDS control panel has an “AUTO” selection. When set to “AUTO”, the autopilot will:
a. Limit the bank angle in HDG select mode to 15° at high TAS increasing progressively to 25° as a TAS decrease
b. Limit the bank angle in HDG select mode to 15° below 250 kt TAS increasing progressively to 25° as TAS increases above 250kt TAS.
c. Limit the bank angle to a standard rate one turn at all speeds d. Limit the bank angle to 15°to LNAV only
A
In an aircraft equipped with two flight management computers and the EHSI’s selected to map mode, a failure of the Captain’s (L) FMC will cause:
a. The Captain’s Map display on the EHSI to be supplied automatically from the opposite side FMC, with an FMC FAIL message on the EHSI.
b. The Captain’s Map display to show a map flag, with an FMC FAIL message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) FMC switch, which feeds the Captain’s map display from the opposite side FMC.
c. The Captain’s Map display to show and FMC FAIL flag, with the FMC fail message on the CDU. The map display is automatically restored by data from the opposite side FMC.
d. The Captain’s Map display to go blank, with a map fail message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ATLN) map switch, which feeds the Captain’.
B
On the typical EHSI display, the vertical deviation indicator shows variation from the profile during a descent. When the cursor reaches the extreme bottom end of the scale the aircraft is:
a. 1000ft below the profile.
b. 400ft above the profile.
c. 400ft below the profile.
d. 1000ft above the profile.
B
On a conventional Macmeter/ASI (MASI), as masked Mach speed display indicates that:
a. The power supply to the instrument has been interrupted.
b. The instrument has failed.
c. The data from the CADC is unreliable.
d. The Mach number is below M0.6.
C
A digital flight data recorder provides a record of:
a. Airframe configuration, engine parameters attitude, ADC data, and cockpit voices.
b. Airframe configuration, engines parameters, altitude and ADC data.
c. Control positions, aircraft configuration, engine parameters, attitude and ADC data
d. Airspeed, altitude, heading and cockpit voices.
C
A method of airflow control in an axial flow compressor of a gas turbine is:
a. Variable nozzle guide vanes.
b. Variable propelling nozzles.
c. Variable stator vanes.
d. Variable rotor blades.
C
The item of information not displayed on the EADI of B767 is:
a. AFDS pitch mode annunciation.
b. Groundspeed.
c. IAS.
d. Heading.
D
The CSD of a large jet aircraft electrical system is required to control:
a. AC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency.
b. DC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency.
c. DC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity.
d. AC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity.
A
The artificial feel system of a powered flight control system operates by feeding back control forces based on:
a. The difference between static pressure and pitot pressure.
b. The difference between ambient pressure and total pressure.
c. The difference between ambient pressure and dynamic pressure.
d. The difference between static pressure and dynamic pressure.
A
The fuel quantity system on a modern jet transport aircraft may use capacitance type probes with compensators. The compensators are design to correct for variations in fuel:
a. Viscosity.
b. Temperature.
c. Density.
d. Volatility.
B
Bleed air for thermal ice protection and modern jet transport aircraft should be used:
a. For long periods cyclically in icing conditions.
b. Continuously in all phases of flight.
c. Continuously in icing conditions.
d. For short periods cyclically in icing conditions.
C
On the MAP mode of the B767 EHSI display the track trend vector shows:
a. The predicted path of the aircraft over the ground based on current bank angle and groundspeed using segments representing 30, 60 and 90 second time intervals.
b. The angle of bank required for a rate one turn based on a current airspeed.
c. The recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern based on a track crossing the holding fix.
d. The recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern based on heading crossing the fix.
A
The fuel boost pumps in a jet transport category aircraft fuel system are located:
a. In the fuel control unit.
b. In the fuel manifold.
c. In the fuel tanks.
d. In the nacelle.
C
Rudder is controlled by the FCC’s:
a. During multi-autopilot operations
b. Whenever any of the auto pilots are engaged
A
During multi-autopilot approaches, the busses are parallelled. Bus isolation occurs at:
a. 500 ft agl
b. 1000 ft agl
c. 1500 ft agl
C
The bank limit switch is set in the “AUTO” position. What happens to bank angle when speed is increased?
a. Bank angle is unaffected
b. Bank angle increases to maintain a “constant rate turn”
c. Bank angle decreases
C
The bank limit switch is set to 25 degrees. Which statement below is most correct?
a. The angle of bank will always be 25 degrees regardless of speed
b. The angle of bank will always be equal to or greater than 25 degrees
c. The maximum bank angle will be 25 degrees, with actual angle decreasing as speed increases
C
The aircraft is currently using VNAV and LNAV. You wish to turn right to avoid a storm along your LNAV path. Which statement is most correct regarding the selection of heading mode.
a. You should push the heading HOLD switch then rotate the heading selector knob to the desired heading.
b. Turning the heading selector will automatically in itself disengage LNAV
c. You should press the heading selector knob to first disengage LNAV mode, then turn the knob to the desired heading
C
Setting the MCP heading window simultaneously sets the heading bug on both EHSI’s:
a. True
b. False
A
When power is first applied, the heading window will open at what value?
a. 000M
b. 270T
c. 090T
d. 180M
A
When does the Hdg window open to the LOC inbound course when the LOC mode is engaged?
a. When the Localiser frequency is selected on the radio panel
b. When the Localiser MCP switch is pressed
c. At the localiser capture point
C
When the localiser switch is pressed but LOC is not yet captured, the LOC annunciation appears?
a. In green letters on the EHSI
b. In white letters on the EADI below the active mode which is in green letters above it
c. In green letters on the EADI below the active mode which is in the white letters above it
B
At glide-slope capture during operations in VNAV:
a. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation disappears and is replaced by a white “G/S” annunciation
b. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation is replaced by a yellow “G/S” annunciation
c. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation disappears and is replaced by a green “G/S” annunciation
d. The green EADI “VNAV PATH” annunciation disappears and is replaced by a green “ILS” annunciation
C
The 767 AFDS can:
a. Only capture the G/S after the Localiser has been captured
b. Only capture the Localiser if the glideslope has already been captured
c. Capture the LOC or G/S in either order of occurrence or both at the same time if necessary
C
The AFDS can capture the Localiser as long as the aircraft’s intercept track-line:
a. Is displaced at no less than 120 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
b. Is displaced at no less than 80 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
c. Is displaced at no greater than 120 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
d. Is displaced at no greater than 80 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
C
The AFDS can capture the glideslope as long as the aircraft intercept track-line:
a. Is displaced at no less than 120 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
b. Is displaced at no less than 80 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
c. Is displaced at no greater than 120 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
d. Is displaced at no greater than 80 degrees from the Localiser inbound course-line
D
With the aircraft approaching to land, and current active pitch mode being VNAV, at what point will the VNAV EADI annunciation be replaced by a G/S annunciation?
a. At Localiser capture point
b. Always at 1500 agl
c. Always when the other two A/P’s engage
d. At glideslope capture point
D
The aircraft’s current mode is “VNAV PATH” and A/T is armed. Pressing the V/S switch?
a. Automatically disengages the entire A/P system
b. Automatically disengages VNAV mode, the V/S bar light illuminate, and the speed and vertical speed windows open at their respective current values
c. Automatically disengages VNAV mode, the V/S switch bar illuminates, and the vertical speed window opens at the current value
d. Speed mode will not engage
B
Pressing the FLCH switch, when the A/T is armed, and the aircraft was previously operating in VNAV mode. Which one of the answers below is most correct?
a. The A/T will engage in “SPD” mode, and the vertical speed window will open
b. The A/T EADI thrust annunciator will be “FLCH”, the speed window will open, and the FLCH switch bar light will illuminate
c. The A/T will disengage along with VNAV, the active pitch mode will be FLCH, and the FLCH switch bar light will illuminate. The speed window will remain closed and the SPD switch bar light will illuminate
B
The aircraft is on descent to 8,000 ft in FLCH mode. The A/T is armed, and the speed is 260 KIAS. The aircraft is nearing 10,000 ft amsl and the pilot wishes to slow the aircraft to 250 KIAS so as not to exceed the speed limitation below 10,000 ft. Which statement below is most correct?
a. The pilot need only reduce the speed window value to 250 KIAS by using the MCP speed selector knob
b. The pilot must first open the speed window by pressing the IAS/MACH selector button
c. Speed cannot be adjusted by the pilot, as it is controlled by the FMC when in FLCH mode.
d. The pilot must first press the MCP speed switch before a new speed can be selected
A
VNAV mode cannot be disengaged by pressing the FLCH or SPD.
a. Tue
b. False
B
The speed window is normally closed when the FMC is flying the aircraft in VNAV.
a. True
b. False
A
During takeoff, at what minimum altitude does the thrust reference change from Takeoff (TO) to Climb (CLB) upon selecting a new mode?
a. 1,000 ft radio altitude
b. 1,500 ft agl
c. 500 ft agl
d. 400 ft radio altitude
D
Which one statement is most correct regarding the powering up of the engines in N1 mode?
a. Throttle movement stops when the first engine reaches the reference N1 value. The pilot may have manually advanced the lagging power lever
b. Throttle movement continues until the last engine reaches the reference N1 value. A power lever may have be manually retarded by the pilot
A
The thrust that an engine is developing is held after what speed during takeoff roll:
a. 50 kt
b. 60 kt
c. 80 kt
d. V1
e. Vr
C
Which statement is most correct about the operation of the “Altitude Hold” switch as the aircraft climbs through 17,000 ft if the EADI annunciations is “VNAV SPD”?
a. It will cause the aircraft to pitch up and capture 17,000 ft
b. The “SPD” switch and “ALT HOLD” switch bar lights extinguish
c. The EADI annunciations will be “N1” and “ALT HOLD”
d. The airspeed window will close
e. The AFDS commands altitude existing when switch is pushed
E
Which statement below is incorrect?
a. Auto throttle can be engaged in N1, and SPD modes
b. Auto throttle can be engaged during VNAV operations
c. Auto throttle can be engaged in FLCH mode
d. Auto throttle operates whenever a MCP - FD mode is selected, irrespective of the A/T switch position
D
The function of positive pressure relief valves in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to:
a. Limit the cabin altitude to a value below the aircraft altitude
b. Limit the cabin pressure to a value above the outside ambient pressure at all times
c. Limit the maximum differential pressure
d. Limit the maximum rate of change of cabin pressure
C
Before conditioned air enters the aircraft cabin, the last cooling unit the air passes through, (in an air-cycle system) is the:
a. Primary heat exchanger
b. Secondary heat exchanger
c. Ram-air bypass valve
d. Expansion turbine
D
The purpose of cooling doors (ram air doors) in the air conditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to:
a. Regulate the volume of air passing through the heat exchangers
b. Increase the ram air flow to the cabin
c. Cool the air in the air cycle machine
d. Increase the bleed air flow through the air cycle machine
A
The function of the mixing valve in the air conditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to:
a. Blend ram air with bleed air to control cabin temperature
b. Mix dry air with humidified air to provide a comfortable environment
c. Regulate the mixture of cold and hot air for distribution into the passenger and crew cabins
d. Regulate the mixture of fresh and recirculated air to ensure adequate oxygen supply
C
The air conditioning system of a jet transport category aircraft has a water separator designed to:
a. Dry out the moist cool air to prevent respiratory infections
b. Remove water which has condensed in the system during the cooling process
c. Increase the humidity of the air flowing to the passenger cabin
d. Prevent ice forming in the cabin vents
B
Two main types of air conditioning systems found on large jet transport category aircraft are the:
a. Freon and the vapour cycle
b. Air cycle and the vapour cycle
c. Freon and the closed refrigerant cycle
d. The open cycle and the air cycle
B
The purpose of the cabin compressor in a twin piston engine aircraft is to:
a. Pressurise the cabin air
b. Ventilate the cabin
c. Warm the cabin air
d. Cool the cabin air
A
Humidifiers are necessary in the air conditioning system of a jet transport category aircraft to:
a. Remove the moisture which was condensed during the cooling process
b. Increase the humidity of the ram cooling air
c. Prevent the bleed air from overheating the cabin
d. Replace the moisture which was removed during the cooling process
D
Isolation valves are used to:
a. Separate the pneumatic duct into sections
b. Control bleed air from the engines
c. Isolate the air conditioning system
A
How is cabin temperature controlled when passenger load distribution is not even?
a. Pack output is varied
b. Passengers are moved to even the temperature
c. A zone temperature control system is used
C
Trim air comes from the:
a. Conditioned air manifold
b. ACM outlet duct
c. Pneumatic duct
C
The function of the condenser in a vapour-cycle cooling system is to:
a. Change the Freon pressure before it enters the compressor
b. Transfer heat from the Freon to outside air
c. Increase water-vapour content in the cabin
d. Transfer heat from cabin air to the Freon
B
In cruise, the outflow valve which was partially open is set to the fully closed position. The differential pressure indicator would show:
a. An increase
b. No change
c. A decrease
A
The cooling effectiveness of the heat exchangers is controlled by the:
a. Bypass valve
b. ACM
c. Inlet and exit doors
C
The aircraft rate of climb is:
a. Always slower than the cabin
b. The same as the cabin
c. Usually faster than the cabin
C
Pressurised aircraft are required to be fitted with:
a. An aural and/or visual warning if the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft
b. A source of ram air for pressurisation
c. Automatic drop-down of oxygen masks in the event of a cabin pressure failure below 25,000 ft
d. An oxygen supply, sufficient for all aircraft occupants including the crew, for at least 60 minutes
A
The primary component that maintains cabin pressure is the:
a. Air-con pack(s)
b. By-pass valve
c. Out-flow valve(s)
d. Diff pressure valve
e. Lapse-rate valve
C
If the aircraft climbs at 1000 fpm with 1500 fpm rate-of-climb incorrectly set on the controller, the cabin will:
a. Climb at 1500 fpm
b. Descent at 500 fpm
c. Climb at 1000 fpm
d. Will not climb until max diff is reached
C
The “THRUST HOLD” annunciation on the EADI appears at what speed during the takeoff roll:
a. 50 kt
b. 80 kt
c. 100 kt
d. V1
e. VMCG
B
An aircraft may be fitted with a ram-air valve: This valve:
a. Is always open during normal operations
b. Should be closed during normal operations
c. Is closed at max diff operations
d. Can be opened to relieve excess pressure
B
On descent, the crew forget to adjust the cabin altitude on the normal controller to the destination port. As the descent is continued, the aircraft will descend to the same altitude as the cabin. If the descent is continued the:
a. Cabin will ‘hold’ its original altitude
b. Cabin will automatically descend at about 500 fpm
c. Outflow valves will fully open
d. Cabin will descend at the same rate of as the aircraft
D
If any residual cabin pressure remains during approach, it is normally “dumped” during landing. This allows:
a. Passengers more time to “clear” their ears
b. The aircraft doors to be opened at the terminal
c. Less strain on the aircraft structure
d. The outflow valves to be almost fully closed
B
A pressurised aircraft has to have a means of rapidly “releasing” all aircraft cabin pressure, during some form of abnormal, or emergency operation. This would normally be achieved by an emergency switch in the cockpit which:
a. Opens the ram air valve
b. Closes the outflow valve(s)
c. Shuts off the air-conditioning packs
d. Opens the outflow valve(s), or dump valve(s)
D
Vapour cycle cooling systems, as compared to air cycle systems, are usually:
a. Less efficient
b. More efficient during ground operations
c. Not capable of as much cooling capacity
d. Not as efficient during ground operations
B
A vapour cycle cooling system:
a. Uses Freon (a refrigerant) in the cooling process
b. Utilises engine bleed air for cooling
c. Combines ram and engine bleed air for cooling
d. Has limited use during ground operations
A
Whilst climbing or descending, the aircraft cabin is under the “control” of the rate controller. On cruise, the aircraft cabin is under:
a. Differential (isobaric) control
b. Pressure relief control
c. Negative pressure relief control
d. Cabin by-pass valve control
A
If the cabin rate of climb is too high, the rate controller should be adjusted to cause the:
a. Cooling turbine to spin faster
b. Outflow valve to close
c. Ram-air duct to open
d. Outflow valve to open
B
What effect will an increase in altitude alone have on the L.P. Compressor?
a. Discharge pressure will rise.
b. RPM will increase.
c. RPM will decrease.
B
The use of bleed air from a gas turbine engine compressor will result in:
a. An increase in RPM and a decrease in EGT.
b. An increase in EGT, required thrust and an increase in SFC.
c. A decrease in RPM and a lower SFC.
B
Burning fuel in the combustion chamber is necessary to:
a. Increase the volume and velocity of the gases.
b. Raise the pressure and keep volume constant.
c. Increase the density of the gases.
A
At which times is the surge bleed valve open and closed during normal operations of a gas turbine engine? (Often referred to as the HBOV, handling bleed off valve)
a. Closed from idling to design RPM.
b. Closed until compressor stall occurs.
c. Open from idling to nearly design RPM then closed up to max RPM.
C
A small increase speed in a slow flying jet leads to a small initial decrease in thrust because:
a. A combustion back pressure increases.
b. RAM pressure decreases.
c. Difference between exhaust and intake velocities is reduced.
C
EPR is a ratio of:
a. Compressor outlet pressure to exhaust pressures.
b. Compressor discharge pressure to turbine discharge pressure.
c. Compressor inlet pressure to jet pipe pressure.
C
A turbofan is more propulsive efficient than a turbojet because:
a. It accelerates a large mass of air to a relatively low velocity.
b. It accelerates a small mass of air to a relatively high velocity.
c. It accelerates a large mass of air to a relatively high velocity.
A
Turbo props are designed for which type of flying (compared to turbo jet)?
a. High speed long routes.
b. High speed short routes.
c. Low speed short routes.
C
The primary engine power gauge of a turbo prop is the:
a. EPR gauge.
b. Torque gauge.
c. Fuel flow indicator.
B
What is the function of a safety coupling in a turbo prop engine?
a. To allow reverse pitch in ground operation.
b. To disconnect the propeller in the event of an engine over speed.
c. To decouple the engine from the gear box in the event of a propeller over speed.
C
The fuel flow transmitter in the fuel system of a transport category jet aircraft is located:
a. At the inlet of the high pressure pump.
b. At the inlet to the fuel control unit.
c. At the outlet from the fuel control unit.
C
Taking off in rain in a turbo jet, the igniter pulse will be selected to continuous. In this case, the spark will be:
a. High value at low voltage.
b. High value at high voltage to prevent flame out.
c. Low value at high voltage.
C
What section of the APU supplies compressed air to start the main engines?
a. Exhaust.
b. Turbine.
c. Compressor.
C
The map mode of an aircraft with an EFIS shows:
a. Engine and system status.
b. Waypoints.
c. Fuel quantity
B
The function of a static inverter in the AC power system in a large jet transport aircraft is:
a. To provide 115v AC to selected instruments at all times.
b. To provide 28v DC in the event of a total generator failure.
c. To provide 115v AC in the event of a total generator failure.
C
The purpose of a hydraulic priority valve is:
a. To shed non-essential services due to a loss of system pressure.
b. To shed non-essential services due to loss of system fluid.
c. To select an alternate system pressure in the event of primary pressure loss.
A
Two 12v 36 A/H batteries are connected in parallel, the resultant output of:
a. 24v 36 A/H.
b. 12v 72 A/H.
c. 24v 18 A/H.
B
As an aircraft accelerates from subsonic speeds to supersonic speeds, the co-efficient of drag (CD) will:
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase and then decrease.
C
Wing sweep results in an increase in the stalling angle of attack. This is because:
a. The swept wing is more efficient at low speeds.
b. The swept wing CL is less than a straight wing CL for any given body angle.
c. The swept wing is less efficient at high speeds.
B
On swept wing aircraft, nose up pitch at the stall is caused by:
a. Wing tip stall and rearward C of G movements.
b. Wing tip stall and rearward C of P movement.
c. Wing tip stall and forward C of P movement.
C
Which is not an advantage of a swept back wing compared to a straight wing?
a. Higher MCRIT.
b. Less gust sensitivity.
c. More effective trailing edge devices.
C
The angle of attack required for max range cruise does not vary with gross weight.
a. True
b. False
A
Specific fuel consumption (SFC) decreases with increasing inlet air temperature.
a. True
b. False
F
Airflow behind a normal shock wave is always subsonic.
a. True
b. False
A
Induced drag decreases with increasing aspect ratio.
a. True
b. False
A
Both maximum endurance and maximum climb angle occur at L/D max.
a. True
b. False
A
To achieve maximum angle of climb, you would climb at:
a. VMO using climb power.
b. VIMD using climb power.
c. VIMD using maximum thrust.
C
Transport type aircraft have a large speed band where the rate of climb is fairly constant. This is because:
a. Drag is small compared to thrust and doesn’t vary with speed.
b. For this band, the power available and power required curves are nearly parallel.
c. The excess power means that drag is largely irrelevant.
B
Airflow through an expansion wave, will exhibit the following characteristics:
a. Behind the wave the air will be subsonic with no change in direction.
b. Behind the wave the air will be supersonic and will change direction.
c. Behind the wave the air will be supersonic with no change in direction.
B
An internal flexible seal attached to the leading edge of a control surface is designed to:
a. Provide control force feedback to the pilot.
b. Assist control load balancing.
c. Limit control movement travel.
B
Specific fuel consumption increases as engine RPM approaches design RPM.
a. True
b. False
B
Maximum range is achieved at CL/CD max.
a. True
b. False
B
Below the tropopause, a constant mach number cruise climb would produce a constant IAS.
a. True
b. False
B
During a constant altitude cruise, a reduction in gross weight will require a reduction in wing angle of attack to maintain optimum lift co-efficient for subsonic cruise.
a. True
b. False
B
Most modern turbofan engines have two or more spools (shafts) because:
a. This allows the compressors to run closer to their ideal rpm
b. Manufacturing is made simpler and cheaper
c. Maintenance is simplified
d. Shaft strength is increased
A
An ideal jet engine air intake delivers air to the compressor with:
a. No turbulence and pressure lower than ambient
b. No turbulence and temperature higher than ambient
c. No turbulence and velocity higher than ambient
d. No turbulence and pressure higher than ambient
D
Air that is bypassed in a turbofan engine:
a. Goes to the rear of the combustion chambers for cooling purposes
b. Does not pass through the compressor
c. Is stored for later use
d. Is used to drive the air turbine
B
One compressor bleed outlet is for cabin pressurisation and air conditioning. Another is used to:
a. Reduce combustion chamber back pressure
b. Give a balance to the air losses
c. Prevent compressor stall and surge when operating off design RPM
d. Cool the brakes
C
The turbofan is more efficient than the turbojet because:
a. It accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively low velocity
b. It accelerates a relatively small mass of air to a relatively high velocity
c. It accelerates a relatively small mass of air to a relatively low velocity
d. It accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively high velocity
A
Apart from bigger, stronger fan blades, a turbofan enjoys better foreign object damage (FOD) protection to the main engine than a pure turbojet because:
a. These engines have intake screens
b. Most of the air bypasses the engine
c. The most foreign objects are smaller than the blades
d. The engine rpm is lower
B
A turbofan is not as efficient as a turboprop at low speeds. This is because the turbofan has:
a. A lower air mass accelerated to a lower velocity
b. A higher air mass accelerated to a higher velocity
c. A lower air mass accelerated to a higher velocity
d. A higher air mass accelerated to a lower velocity
D
A turboprop cannot operate at the high speeds of a turbofan because the turboprop has:
a. Inadequate power output
b. Gearbox rpm limitations
c. Shockwaves at the propeller blade tips at high Mach number
d. No wing sweep
C
A free turbine turboprop uses a smaller starter motor than other turboprops because:
a. Of the need to save weight
b. Of the simpler design
c. Only the engine core is rotated for starting
d. The engine has a whole is lighter
C
One way to increase the performance of a jet engine would be to:
a. Introduce the air into the engine at a lower speed
b. Increase the engine operating temperature
c. Alter the angle of the nozzle guide vanes
d. Reduce engine operating rpm
B
Of a turbofan’s total air intake, 20% passes through the core. This bypass ratio is nearest to:
a. 4:1
b. 5:1
c. 1:4
d. 1:5
A
Turboprops are generally designed for which type of flying (compared to turbojets):
a. High speed long routes
b. Low speed long routes
c. High speed short routes
d. Low speed short routes
D
An aircraft may need to dump fuel. To ensure that the total fuel supply is not dumped:
a. Manual shut-off of fuel when enough has been dumped
b. Automatic shut-off of fuel when a preset amount has been dumped
c. Use of standpipes in the fuel dumping system with low level float switches
d. Use of a timer controlled cut-off switch
C
A turbofan produces less thrust at take-off than a similar size turboprop because:
a. The turboprop is very efficient at modestly accelerating a large mass of air as quick
b. The propeller blades can “bite” the air faster
c. The fan is experiencing Mach Number interference at take-off rpm
d. A turbofan cannot be run at full thrust at take off because of noise considerations
A
During a multi-autopilot Category III auto land, an approach sub mode of ROLLOUT is enunciated on the Flight Mode Annunciator roll mode to replace LOC at approximately 5 ft RA. Concerning auto-throttle operation when ROLLOUT is engaged:
a. The auto-throttle remains in IDLE mode until A/T disengagement
b. The auto-throttle mode changes to THR HOLD
c. The auto-throttle is disarmed when ROLLOUT becomes the engaged roll mode
d. The auto-throttle mode changes to GA when ROLLOUT is engaged roll mode
A
The inputs considered to be “outer loop” in an autopilot system are:
a. Attitude and yaw damper
b. Pitch and roll
c. Altitude and heading
d. Yaw and pitch
C
One reason why jet aircraft use kerosene and not AVGAS is that kerosene has:
a. A higher flashpoint
b. Less calorific value
c. Less viscosity
d. Less chemical instability
A
Shortly after take-off, a swept wing aircraft encounters a downdraft. Best recovery technique would be to?
a. Maintain airspeed, even if it means increasing vertical sink rate.
b. Lower aircraft nose to prevent stall, then zoom climb using high alpha.
c. Raise aircraft alpha to stick-shaker speed.
C
If a turbojet thrust reverser unlocked light comes on during flight:
a. The situation is not potentially serious, keep an eye on it
b. The situation is potentially serious, be prepared to reduce thrust if the lever comes up
c. The situation is not serious as it is impossible for a reverser to deploy in flight
d. The situation is potentially critical, shut down the engine if yaw, loss of airspeed or buffet is detected
D
The main reason for stating an upper limit to fuel temperature is:
a. To allow the greatest temperature rise through the engine
b. To ensure the fuel lubricant properties are maintained
c. To stop chemical breakdown of the fuel
d. To ensure vapour release (vapour lock) does not occur
D
An APU auto-shutdown will not be caused by:
a. Over-speed
b. Under-speed
c. Low oil pressure
d. Fire
B
The document in which you would find the optional fuels approved for a particular aircraft is:
a. In the CAR’s
b. In ERSA
c. In the aircraft flight manual
d. In the company policy document
C
The additives normally found in F35 jet fuel (Jet A-1) used in Australia is:
a. Anti-boil
b. No additives normally
c. Anti-ice
d. Anti-bacterial
D
The engine instrument which would not be found on a turbofan aircraft is:
a. Oil pressure
b. N1
c. Torque
d. Fuel flow
C
An APU does not directly provide:
a. Shaft power to drive an electric generator
b. Hydraulic pressure
c. Bleed air for air conditioning
d. Bleed air for pneumatics
B
The in-flight problem a turbine engine with low flight idling RPM may have is:
a. Excessive turbine temperature on climb and in cruise
b. Flame out on descent
c. Excessively rapid acceleration
d. Maximum RPM may not be available
B
A desirable quality of jet fuel is:
a. High viscosity
b. Lubricant properties
c. Lowest possible calorific value
d. Low flash point
B
Air turbine starters for gas turbine engines normally:
a. Cannot be used if the APU or another engine or compressed air source is not available
b. Have a cockpit light to warn of low air pressure
c. Are used on small turbine engines
d. Can be used to supply the pneumatic system
A
The safeguards used to prevent inadvertent engine thrust reverser deployment in flight are:
a. Thorough crew training
b. An auto-stow mechanisms and mechanical and electrical interlocks and isolation valves which prevent full reverse thrust unless the thrust levers are at idle and the reversers are fully deployed
c. Hydraulic pressure required to activate deployment
d. Guarded buttons
B
In a gas turbine engine with a free power turbine:
a. The free power turbine shaft is independent of the other engine spools
b. The free power turbine drives the compressor
c. The free power turbine is driven by the compressor
A
The advantages of an axial flow compressor compared to a centrifugal flow compressor of the same frontal area in a gas turbine engine are:
a. Higher pressure ratios and greater mass airflow
b. Ruggedness and compactness
c. High resistance to FOD (foreign object damage)
d. Higher SFC (specific fuel consumption)
A
A torque meter in a turboprop aircraft is required for the operation of the:
a. Auto-feather system
b. Beta range
c. Pitch lock
d. Propeller governor
A
A transport jet aircraft is filled to maximum fuel by volume (full tanks) with kerosene of a low specific gravity. Compared to using kerosene fuel with a higher specific gravity, the maximum range of the aircraft with the low SG kerosene will be:
a. Reduced
b. Increased
c. unaffected
A
Regarding the measurement of temperature in a gas turbine engine:
a. EGT measures turbine entry gas temperature
b. TOT measures combustion chamber gas temperature
c. JPT measures jet pipe gas temperature
d. ITT measures compressor outlet temperature
C
With regard to thermal ice protection systems using engine bleed air:
a. When used on an engine intake, thermal ice protection should be regarded as de-icing system
b. Thermal ice protection is only available while taxiing
c. Thermal ice protection is only available in flight
d. When used on an engine intake, thermal ice protection should be regarded as an anti-icing system
D
The purpose of the fuel system filter bypass in a gas turbine engine is:
a. To save wear on the filter when the fuel is warm
b. To ensure fuel flow even though the filter is blocked
c. To maintain a constant pressure differential
d. To recirculate the fuel
B
One of the limitations of an air starting system on gas turbine engine is:
a. The requirement for an APU, another engine or a ground unit to provide compressed air
b. The possibility of thermal runaway
c. The low engine RPM achieved with air starts
d. The limited air supply available
A
The function of a negative torque system (NTS) in a turboprop is to:
a. Disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of an engine overspeed
b. Increase the propeller blade angle to prevent the turbine from being driven by the propeller
c. Prevent the propeller from reversing its direction of rotation
d. Stop the pilot not flying (PNF) from accidentally feathering the engines in flight
B
The EPR gauge in a jet aircraft measures:
a. The pressure increase through the engine
b. The pressure ratio between the exhaust air and intake (ambient) air
c. The pressure ratio between the compressor and combustion chamber
d. The torque on the main drive shaft
B
The N1 gauge indicate in a turbofan engine indicates:
a. Fan RPM
b. High pressure compressor temperature
c. Turbine speed
d. Turbine temperature
A