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PDG > AF Doctrine, AEF and Joint Force > Flashcards

AF Doctrine, AEF and Joint Force Flashcards

1
Q

The AF premier statement of our beliefs, the cornerstone upon which our service identity is based, and the source from which our doctrine flows.

A

AFDD 1, Air Force Basic Doctrine

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2
Q

What is the AF methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)

A

The AEF

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3
Q

Three principles are the foundation upon which the AEF is structured and executed

A

Transparency, Predictability, and Equitability

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4
Q

This is a statement of officially sanctioned beliefs, warfighting principles, and terminology that describes and guides the proper use of air, space, and cyberspace power in military ops.

A

Air Force Doctrine

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5
Q

This facilitates the rapid standup of joint and service organizations during rapidly evolving situations

A

effective command relationships and command authorities

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6
Q

The arrangement of military actions in time, space, and purpose to produce maximum relative combat power at a decisive place and time

A

Synchronization

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7
Q

The arrangement of military forces and their actions to create a force that operates by engaging as a whole.

A

Integration

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8
Q

What is the Airman’s basic doctrine?

A

AFDD 1, it describes the “elemental properties” of air, space, and cyberspace power and provides the Airman’s perspective.

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9
Q

What is Operational Doctrine?

A

AFDD 2, describes more detailed organization of forces and applies the priciples of basic doctrine to military actions.

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10
Q

This describes the proper employment of specific U.S. AF assets, individually or in concert with other assets, to accomplish detailed objectives.

A

Tactical Doctrine

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11
Q

Tactical doctrine is codified as tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTP) in..

A

AF TTP 3-series manuals

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12
Q

The study of airpower..General Hap Arnold termed

A

Airmindedness

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13
Q

War and peace are decided, organized, planned, supplied, and commanded at the

A

Strategic level of war

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14
Q

Airpower can exploit the principles of mass and maneuver simultaneously. Airpower dominates the…

A

fourth dimention - time - and compresses events to produce physical and psychological shock

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15
Q

Airpower’s versatility allows it to be rapidly employed against

A

strategic, operational, and tactical objectives simultaneously

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16
Q

The aspects of warfare that are universlly true and relevant

A

Principles of war

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17
Q

Ensures concentration of effort for every objective under one responsible commander

A

Unity of command

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18
Q

Directing military operations toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to strategic, operational, and tactical aims

A

Objective

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19
Q

Is to seize, retain, and exploit the initiative. Act rather than react. Dictates the time, place.

A

Offensive action

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20
Q

Concentrates the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to achieve decisive results

A

Mass

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21
Q

Places the enemy in a position of disadvantage. Allows engagement anywhere, from any direction, at any time.

A

Maneuver

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22
Q

The judicious employment and distribution of forces. May require a commander to establish a balance in the application of airpower between attacking, defending

A

Economy of Force

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23
Q

Purpose is never to permit the enemy to acquire unexpected advantage.

A

Security

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24
Q

Leverages the security principle by attacking the enemy at a time, place, or in a manner for which they are not prepared.

A

Surprise

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25
Q

Calls for avoiding unnecessary complexity

A

Simplicity

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26
Q

Application of airpower is refined by several fundamental guiding truths know as

A

Tenets

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27
Q

The oldest tenet of airpower remains the keystone of success in modern warfare.

A

Contralized control and decentralized execution

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28
Q

Fundamental organizing principles for airpower,

A

Centralized control and decentralized execution.

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29
Q

It allows subordinates to exploit opportunities in rapidly changing, fluid situations

A

Decentralization

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30
Q

Allows airpower to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously

A

Flexibiilty

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31
Q

Is the ability to employ airpower effectively at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels

A

Versatility

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32
Q

The essential guideline for air component commanders

A

Balance

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33
Q

Tenets of Air, Space, and Cyberspace Power

A

Centralized Control and Decentralized Execution, Flexiblity and Versatility, Synergistic Effects, Persistence, Concentration, Priority, and Balance

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34
Q

Together they do represent the means by which U.S. AF forces accomplish the missions assigned to JFCs by the President, SECDEF, and CCDRs.

A

Operational Functions

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35
Q

Is an offensive action specifically selected to achieve national strategic objectives. Seeks to weaken the adversary’s ability or will to engage in conflict

A

Strategic Attack

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36
Q

Through strategic attack, military commanders can directly affect adversary leadership perceptions (by isolation, deception, or exploitation), cut off fielded forces from their leaders and societies, and directly attack the adversary’s capacity to sustain military forces in the field.

A

–

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37
Q

The Airmans Perspective:

A

Thinking about defeating the enemy as a system

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38
Q

Best describes the Airman’s overall vision for striking at the enemy

A

Strategic Attack

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39
Q

Consists of integrated offensive and defensive operations to attain and maintain a desired degree of air superiority

A

Counterair

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40
Q

Consists of operations to destroy, degrade, or disrupt enemy air and missile power as close to its sourse as possible. OCA is often the most effective and efficient method for achieving the appropriate degree of air superiority

A

Offensive counterair

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41
Q

Entails detection, identification, interception, and destruction of attacking enemy aircraft and missiles and normally takes place over friendly territory

A

Defensive counterair

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42
Q

Involves those kinetic (lethal) and nonkinetic (nonlethal) operations conducted to attain and maintain a desired degree of space superiority by protecting and defending friendly….; the main objectives are to allow friendly forces to exploit space capabilities, while negating the enemy’s ability to do the same.

A

Counterspace

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43
Q

These operations deny, degrade, disrupt, destroy, or deceive and adversary’s space capability

A

Offensive counterspace

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44
Q

These operations preserve space capabilities, withstand enemy attack, restore or recover space capabilities after an attack, and reconstitute space forces. Destruction of ground based GPS.

A

Defensive counterspace

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45
Q

Is defined as airpower operations against enemy land forces capabilities to create effects that achieve JFC objectives. Control the surface environment

A

Counterland

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46
Q

Counterland provides two discrete air operations for engaging enemy land forces

A

Air Interdiction and Close Air Support

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47
Q

This is a form of aerial maneuver that destroys…the enemy’s surface military potential before it can be used

A

Air Interdiction

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48
Q

Is normally the supported commander for air interdiction

A

JFACC (Joint Force Air Component Commander)

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49
Q

Is directed against enemy land force capabilities and associated infrastructure that contribute directly to or are maneuvering to reinforce the ground battle

A

air interdiction

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50
Q

Provides direct support to help friendly surface forces in close proximity with enemy forces carry out their assigned tasks

A

Close Air Support (CAS)

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51
Q

Can halt attacks; help create breakthroughs, cover withdrawals, guard flanks, and escort. Should be used at decisive points in a battle and should normally be massed to concentrate combat power and saturate defenses

A

Close air support (CAS)

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52
Q

these operations are conducted to attain and maintain a desired degree of maritime superiority by the destruction….neutralization of threats in the maritime environment.

A

Countersea

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53
Q

Is the integrated employment of the core capabilities of influence operations, electronic warefare, and network warefare ops. Influence the adversary’s “observe, orient, decide, act” loop while protecting our own.

A

Information Operations (IO)

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54
Q

Employ capabilities to affect behaviors, protect operations, communicate commander’s intent, and project accurate info to achieve desired effects. Counterpropaganda, psychological, military deception, operation security, counterintelligence, and public affairs

A

Influence Operations

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55
Q

The integrated planning, employment, and assessment of military capabilities to achieve desired effects across the electromagnetic spectrum. Is not limited to radio frequencies, also includes optical and infrared regions, electronic attack, protection, and warefare support.

A

Electronic Warfare Operations

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56
Q

The integrated planning and employment of military capabilities to achieve desired effects across the interconnected analog and digital portion of the operational environment. Include radio nets, satellite links, telemetry, network attack, network defense, and network warfare support.

A

Network Warfare Operations

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57
Q

The art of motivating and directing people and organizations into action to accomplish missions.

A

Command

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58
Q

The process and system by which commanders can plan and guide operations.

A

Control

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59
Q

Includes both the process by which the commander decides what action is to be taken and the systems that facilitate planning, execution, and monitoring of those actions.

A

Command and Control (C2)

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60
Q

Air Force forces conduct the __ function to meet strategic, operational, and tactical objectives.

A

Command and Control C2

61
Q

Can achieve tactical through strategic effects. Provides rapid and flexible mobility options allows response to and operation in a wider variety of circumstances. Provides global reach capabilities. Encompass passenger and cargo movement, combat employment, evacuation, spec ops support.

A

Airlift

62
Q

Airlift missions are executed using four delivery concepts

A

airland, airdrop, hub-and-spoke, and direct delivery

63
Q

A variety of refueling rendezvous techniques can be planned to facilitate operations, including:

A

Point parallel, en route, anchor, radar, and receiver directed

64
Q

Spacelift can be pursued from two approaches

A

Launch-on-demand and launch-on-schedule

65
Q

Are operations conducted in hostile, denied, or politacally sensitive environments to achieve objectives

A

Special Operations

66
Q

Are normally organized and employed in small formations capable of independent, supported and supported joint ops to enable timely responses

A

Air Force special operations forces (AFSOF)

67
Q

Core tasks include countering proliferation of weapons of mass destruction, counterterrorism, direct action, psychological operations. Also responsible for synchronizing DoD efforts in the GWOT.

A

U.S. Special operations command (USSOCOM)

68
Q

Provides specialized air mobility and precision fires to both special operations and conventional commanders.

A

Air Force Special Operations Forces AFSOF

69
Q

Provide geographic CCDR’s the ability to assess, train, advice, and assist foreign forces

A

AFSOF combat aviation advisors

70
Q

Overall objective is to provide awareness of the operational environment to commanders and combat forces to enable them to successfully plan, operate, and assess results across the range of military ops

A

Intelligence

71
Q

Evaluates the adversary as a “system of systems”

A

Intelligence

72
Q

The function of systematically observing air, space, surface…photographic or other means. Is a continuing process; designed to provide warning of enemy activities

A

Surveillance

73
Q

Complements surveillance by obtaining specific info about activities & resources of enemy through visual observation.

A

Reconnaissance

74
Q

Must operate together to enable commanders to preserve forces, achieve economies, and accomplish objectives; they are integral to gaining and maintaining info superiority

A

Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance

75
Q

The umbrella term for five mission essential tasks focused on recovering caputred, missing, or isolated personnel

A

Personnel recovery operations

76
Q

Deploy with dedicated vertical-lift and fixed-wing aircraft….

A

US AF combat search and rescue forces (CSAR)

77
Q

Provide accurate location and time of reference in support of strategic, operational, and tactical operations. Help air forces by enabling accurate redezvous for air refueling; synchronization of effort; and accurate weapons delievery, ingress and egress

A

Navigation and Positioning

78
Q

Includes the actions taken to ready, sustain, and protect personnel, assets, and capabilities through all peacetime and wartime operations; “the science of planning and carrying out the movement, maintenance, and protection of forces as well as ensuring an effective combat support command and control process of those forces”

A

Combat Support

79
Q

Includes maintenance & logistics, personnel, comm, financial management…legal services, and chaplaincy

A

Combat support

80
Q

Provides the foundation to support AETF operations enabling the capabilities that distinguish airpower: speed, flexibility, and global perspective.

A

Combat Support

81
Q

These factors are used to determine actual deployed rotation lengths

A

Overall level of requirements, the relative availability of capabilities within the overall force, and continuity for key deployed positions or functionally specific requirements.

82
Q

The baseline AEF vulnerability period

A

Tempo band A 4 month rotation; facilitates readiness of forces to respond to rotational and operations plan (OPLAN) requirements

83
Q

All AEF forces are vulnerable for ___ requirements

A

OPLAN

84
Q

7 tempo bands; A is 4 month deploy to dwell ratio while B - E and M & N are 6 month blocks

A

M and N are for ARC forces

85
Q

Is a process to align force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability requirements

A

Global force management (GFM)

86
Q

Is a potential capability focused on accomplishing a specific mission that the military service provides.

A

Unit type code (UTC)

87
Q

The AF presents required capabilities to the JFC as an

A

Air Expeditionary task force (AETF)

88
Q

Are capable of establishing and operating an airbase and will be established using the AF combat wing structure with an ops group, maint group, med and mission support group

A

Air Expeditionary Wing (AEW)

89
Q

Normally the smallest AETF presented to a theater; not normally equipped to established and operate a base; normally a tenant

A

Air expeditionary group (AEG)

90
Q

The basic war fighting organization and is the building block of the AETF.

A

Air expeditionary Squadron (AES)

91
Q

The AEF schedule is a 24 month schedule encompassing two 12-month GFM cycles.

A

24 month schedule - two 12 month GFM cycles

92
Q

Designated Air Force warfighting capabilities are grouped into force packages identified by

A

UTC

93
Q

If requirements exceed forces available during AEF vulnerability period, the AEF is designed to surge. Surge methods include:

A

Reaching forward, reaching deeper, and rebanding capability area/mobilization of ARC forces

94
Q

Surge operations will not be used to support exercises or rotational presence, unless specifically directed by

A

HAF/A3/5

95
Q

An active component employment ratio of 1:2 is considered the maximum sustainable utilization rate while maintaining total AF units readiness category levels 1 and 2.

A

At level 1 the unit can take full wartime missions at level 2 is can undertake most of the wartime missions

96
Q

Functional areas aligned in Band D experiencing demand that exceeds postured capabilities should consider involuntary recall of

A

Air Reserve Component Forces

97
Q

AEF surge of no more than 12 months allows AEF to recover with minimal reconstitutution. Surges above this level may take reconstitution of over 1 year.

A

Reconstitution requirements are not determined until near the end of surge operations and will be guided by ongoing theater needs and the need to support emerging commitments

98
Q

Provides Airman a degree of predictability in each GFM cycle

A

The AEF

99
Q

If wing commanders or equivalent approve a second deployment with less than the dwell they will inform their respective…

A

Major command vice commander (MAJCOM CV) or in the case of FOA or DRU the first general officer or civilian equivalent

100
Q

Competent joint war-fighters must be skilled startegic thinkers with a joint perspective, able to opitmize joint capabilities and

A

apply strategic and operational warfare.

101
Q

Five values have special impact on the conduct of joint operations

A

Integrity, competency, physical courage, moral courage, and teamwork

102
Q

This direction leads to unified action

A

National strategic direction

103
Q

The result of effective unified action is unity of effort to achieve

A

national goals

104
Q

The term “unified action” broadly refers to the synchronization, coordination, and integration of the activities of governmental and nongovernmental entities with military operations to achieve

A

Unity of Effort

105
Q

Each military department, organized separately, operates under the authority, direction, and control of the

A

secretary of that military department

106
Q

The Secretaries of the military departments, through their respective service chiefs, exercise authority over service forces no assigned to the CCDRs

A

i.e. forces in the training pipeline

107
Q

Four Functional Commands

A

U.S. Transportation Command, U.S. Strategic Command, U.S. Joint Forces Command, U.S. Special Operations Command

108
Q

Is the authority of a CCDR to perform those functions of command over assigned forces involving organizing and employing…cannot be delegated or transferred.

A

Combatant Command Authority (COCOM)

109
Q

Is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of CC and may be delegated within the command. Is in herent in COCOM.

A

Operational Control (OPCON)

110
Q

Is the command authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability or forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements within the operational area. Is inherent in OPCON

A

Tactical Control (TACON)

111
Q

The establishing authority

A

the common superior commander

112
Q

The chain of command, from the President to the SECDEF to the secretaries of the military departments to the service chiefs, exercises…

A

Administrative Control Authority (ADCON)

113
Q

Is direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organizations in respect to administration and support, including organization of service forces

A

Administrative Control (ADCON)

114
Q

Is a service command authority, and flows through service, not joint channels.

A

Administrative Control (ADCON)

115
Q

Joint forces are established at three levels

A

Unified commands, subordinate unified commands, and JTFs

116
Q

A ________ is a command under a single commander, composed of forces from 2 or more military departments, & established by the POTUS

A

Unified Command

117
Q

Is a command that has broad continuing missions and is established by the POTUS. None of these commands are currently designated.

A

Specific command

118
Q

The commander of a U.S. AF service component at any joint level is by joint and US AF definition called a

A

commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR)

119
Q

Is the single commander who conveys commander’s intent and is responsible for operating ans supporting all AF forces assigned or attached to that joint force.

A

COMAFFOR

120
Q

The COMAFFOR commands forces through two separate chains of responsibilities

A

Operational and administrative

121
Q

The sustainment activities are sometimes referred to as

A

beds, beans, and bullets

122
Q

If air and space assets from more than one service are present within a joint force, the JFC normally will designate a

A

joint force air and space component commander (JFACC)

123
Q

If working with allies in a coalition or alliance operations, the JFACC may be designated as the

A

Combined force air and space component commander (CFACC)

124
Q

One individual will normally be dual-hatted as

A

COMAFFOR and JFACC/CFACC

125
Q

The JFACC as with any component commander should not also be dual-hatted as the

A

JFC

126
Q

The process by which the armed forces are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency

A

Mobilization Planning

127
Q

Encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources; responsibility of the CCDR’s in close coordination with USTRANSCOM

A

Deployment Planning

128
Q

prescribes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area; provides the foundation for, determines the scope of, and is limited by mobilization, deployment, and sustainment planning

A

Employment Planning

129
Q

Is the provision of logistics and personnel services required to maintain and prolong operations until mission accomplishment

A

Sustainment planning

130
Q

This concerns the movement of units, individuals, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, or to another location; also includes the return of forces and resources to their original location

A

Redeployment Planning

131
Q

Includes the return of Reserve component units, individuals, and materiel stocks to their former status; primarily the responsibility of the military departments and services

A

Demobilization planning

132
Q

Is a system of joint policies, procedures, and reporting structures supported by communications and computer systems

A

Joint Operations Planning and Execution system (JOPES)

133
Q

All Joint conventional time-phased force deployment databases are developed by and reside in

A

Joint Operations Planning and Execution system (JOPES)

134
Q

Is the AF’s war-planning system and provides and AF feed to JOPES; objective is to enable AF unique operation planning and execution processes; provides standard data files, formats, application programs, and management procedures used primarily for force planning, sourcing equipment and personnel requirements

A

Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES)

135
Q

Consists of 5 volumes and associated databases and is the AF’s supporting document to several joint documents; provides the Air Staff…with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting operations

A

War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) System

136
Q

A critical element of unified action is effective integration of allied capabilities into a

A

campaign plan

137
Q

Is a relationship that results from a formal agreement

A

An Alliance

138
Q

Operations conducted with units from two or more allies are referred to as

A

Combined Operations

139
Q

Is an ad hoc arrangement between two or more nations for common action; are formed by different nations with specific objectives, usually for a single occasion

A

A Coalition

140
Q

The five tenets of multinational operations

A

respect, rapport, knowledge of partners, patience, and coordination

141
Q

The basic structures for multinational operations fall into one of three types

A

Integrated, lead nation, or parallel command

142
Q

Have representative members from the member nations in the command HQ

A

Integrated Command

143
Q

Exists when all member nations place their forces under the control of one nation

A

A lead nation structure

144
Q

No single force commander is designated

A

A parallel command structure

145
Q

Advises and assists the POTUS in integrating all aspects of national security policy, including domestic, foreign; Is the principal means for coordinating, developing, and implementing national security policy

A

The National Security Council (NSC)

146
Q

Provides a parallel forum for considering unique homeland security (HS) matters, especially terrorism. Responsible for advising and assisting the POTUS with respect to all aspects of homeland security

A

Homeland Security Council (HSC)

147
Q

For domestic HS related interagency coordination that may require military participation in countering domestic terrorism the ____ has the lead

A

Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

148
Q

Per the ____ the US refrains from employing Title 10, USC DoD forces to enfore the law except in cases of necessity

A

Posse Comitatus Act and DoD policy

149
Q

When formed a _____ can increase the CCDR’s ability to collaborate with other USG civilian agencies and departments

A

Joint interagency coordination group (JIACG)

PDG (6 decks)

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