Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vaccines > Adult Vaccines in the US > Flashcards

Adult Vaccines in the US Flashcards

1
Q

Conjugate vaccines are important stimulators of (B or T cell) immunity?

A

T cell immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The booster response that occurs following further doses of vaccines is called ________.

A

Anamnestic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or False: Hib vaccine is a conjugate vaccine.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

With vaccines that require multiple doses, the primary dose will trigger a primary immune response, resulting in _______ antibodies.

A

Low affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

With vaccines that require multiple doses, the doses following the primary dose will trigger a secondary immune response, resulting in _______ antibodies.

A

High affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or False: Influenza virus is a single stranded DNA virus.

A

False! Influenza virus is a single stranded RNA virus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many influenza virus antigen types are there and what are they?

A

3: Type A, Type B, and Type C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which influenza antigen types are the most common?

A

Type A and Type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which influenza antigen types affect both humans and animals?

A

Only Type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which influenza antigen types affect only humans?

A

Type B and Type C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 5 parts of influenza virus nomenclature?

A
  1. Virus type
  2. Geographic site
  3. Strain number
  4. Year of isolation
  5. Virus subtype
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Intranasal flu vaccine is live attenuated. Where must it replicate so that it doesn’t cause disease?

A

It replicates in the nasal mucosa, NOT the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the average incubation period for the flu?

A

About 2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A common complication of influenza is ______.

A

Bacterial pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Small changes in flu virus genes that happen continually over time with replication and viruses are closely related to one another is called ________.

A

Antigenic drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Abrupt, major changes in the virus that results in new hemagglutinin and neuraminidase proteins is called ________.

A

Antigenic shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The high dose flu vaccine is usually given to the elderly (over 65 YO) because it provides more antigen exposure so that their immune system responds adequately. The standard dose provides ___ mcg HA per dose, while the high dose provides ___ mcg HA per dose.

A

Standard dose = 45 mcg HA per dose

High dose = 180 mcg HA per dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False: Live attenuated vaccines can’t be used in immunosuppressed or pregnant people.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the difference between the trivalent and the quadrivalent influenza vaccines?

A 
Trivalent = has 2 influenza A strains (H1N1 and H3N2) and 1 influenza B strain
Quadrivalent = Same as trivalent + influenza B strain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The influenza vaccine is recommended for which age group?

A

All persons 6 months of age or older.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which type of flu vaccine contains egg proteins?
A. Live attenuated
B. Inactivated
C. Recombinant

A

B. Inactivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

pneumococcal disease is mainly caused by which organism?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does pneumococcal disease has an animal or insect reservoir?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which serotypes are included in the PCV13 vaccine?

A

1, 3, 4, 5, 6A, 6B, 7F, 9V, 14, 18, 19A, 19F, 23F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which serotypes are most likely to cause severe pneumonias and meningitis?

A

1, 5, 7, 19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pneumococcal pneumonia is the most common clinical feature of pneumococcal disease. Its incubation period is ____ days.

27
Q

The name for the PCV13 pneumococcal vaccine is _____.

A

Prevnar-13

28
Q

The name for the PPSV23 pneumococcal vaccine is _____.

A

Pneumovax-23

29
Q

PPSV stands for _____.

A

PPSV = Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine

30
Q

PCV stands for _____.

A

PCV = Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine

31
Q

Pneumovax-23 (PPSV-23) is recommended for which age group by the FDA? What about by the ACIP?

A 
FDA = 50+
ACIP = 60+
32
Q

What is the route of administration for PPSV-23 vaccine?

33
Q

What is the route of administration for PCV-13 vaccine?

34
Q

PCV-13 contains 2.2 mcg of 12 serotypes and 4.4 mcg of which serotype?

A

Serotype 6B

35
Q

Do you still need the shingles (herpes zoster) vaccine if you has the wild type infection (chicken pox) before?

36
Q

Is herpes zoster a primary infection or a recurrent disease?

A

Recurrent disease

37
Q

Which cranial nerve is most often damaged with herpes zoster?

A

5th cranial nerve

38
Q

A common complication after having shingles (herpes zoster) is _______.

A

Postherpetic neuralgia (can last for a year or longer)

39
Q

The name of the vaccines available for herpes zoster is _______.

40
Q

Zostavax vaccine for herpes zoster (shingles) is administered by this route.

41
Q

Zostavax vaccine is often frozen. It should be used within __ minutes of reconstitution.

A

30 minutes

42
Q

The shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is a _______ vaccine

A

Live attenuated

43
Q

True or False: The varicella vaccine for chicken pox and the shingles vaccine contain the same antigen strain.

A

True! But shingles vaccine has higher antigen content.

44
Q

What type of environment does clostridium tetani, the bacteria responsible for tetanus, like?

A

It is found in animal feces or soil and seen in hot, damp climates.

45
Q

How does transmission occur with tetanus?

A

By contaminated wounds

46
Q

Clostridium tetani is aerobic or anaerobic?

47
Q

In this disease, bacteria generates spores that germinate in anaerobic conditions, releasing toxins that bind to CNS and interfere with release of neurotransmitters, resulting in unopposed muscle contraction.

48
Q

The 2 toxins released by clostridium tetani are tetanolysin and tetanospasmin. Which is the main cause of the clinical manifestations of tetanus?

A

Tetanospasmin

49
Q

The shorter the incubation period for clostridium tetani, the (lower OR higher) chance of death?

A

Higher chance of death

50
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the bacteria responsible for diphtheria, is (aerobic OR anaerobic)?

A

Aerobic gram positive bacillus

51
Q

Is there an animal reservoir for diphtheria?

52
Q

Which disease affects the mucous membranes?

A

Diphtheria

53
Q

Pertussis is also known as _________.

A

Whooping cough

54
Q

Pertussis is a gram negative bacteria that is (aerobic OR anaerobic)?

55
Q

Is the pertussis vaccine used in the US cellular or acellular?

56
Q

What is the problem with the acellular pertussis vaccine?

A

It has a weaning immunity

57
Q

Does pertussis have an animal or insect reservoir?

58
Q

This is a toxin mediated disease where the toxins paralyze cilia of respiratory epithelial cells and cause inflammation.

59
Q

Pertussis has 3 stages: catarrhal, ______, and convalescent.

A

Paroxysmal

60
Q

What is the difference between DTaP, DT, Td, and Tdap?

A

DTaP and DT = Used for children through age 6
Td = Used for persons 7+
Tdap = Used for persons 10+

61
Q

When should the Tdap dose be given to pregnant women?

A

Between 27-36 weeks gestation

62
Q

Individuals 11 years or older who have not received Tdap (or unknown status) should receive 1 dose of Tdap followed by Td booster every ______ years

63
Q

Which vaccine is the only vaccine given at birth?

A

Hepatitis B

Vaccines (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions