Adult Reconstruction

Question 1

Osteoprotegrin (OPG) binds to what structure to inhibit particle-induced osteolysis?

Answer 1

RANK ligand

Question 2

Which type of inflammatory cell is involved in the biological response to metal-on-metal particulate debris?

Answer 2

Lymphocyte

Question 3

What is the most accurate and precise technique to evaluate polyethylene wear?

Answer 3

Radiostereometric analysis

Question 4

______ is a marker for bone turnover and is elevated in osteolysis.

Answer 4

N-telopeptide urine level

Question 5

Vancouver classification for a periprosthetic femur fracture located in the trochanteric region?

Answer 5

Type A

Question 6

Vancouver classification for a periprosthetic femur fracture located just distal to the femoral stem, and the stem is well fixed?

Answer 6

Type B1

Question 7

Vancouver classification for a periprosthetic femur fracture located around or just distal to the femoral stem, the stem is loose, and there is good bone stock present in the proximal femur?

Answer 7

Type B2

Question 8

Vancouver classification for a periprosthetic femur fracture located around or just distal to the femoral stem, the stem is loose, and there is poor bone stock present in the proximal femur?

Answer 8

Type B3

Question 9

Vancouver classification for a periprosthetic femur fracture located well below the femoral stem?

Answer 9

Type C

Question 10

There is a reduced risk of ______ with submuscular plating of periprosthetic supracondylar femur fractures compared to an extensive lateral approach.

Answer 10

nonunion

Question 11

Performing an isolated release of the popliteus tendon during a total knee arthroplasty is most appropriate in which knee deformity?

Answer 11

Valgus knee that is tight in flexion

Question 12

When balancing a TKA, if the gap problem is symmetric, should the tibia or femur be adjusted?

Answer 12

Tibia

Question 13

When balancing a TKA, if the gap problem is asymmetric, should the tibia or femur be adjusted?

Answer 13

Femur

Question 14

What effect does internal rotation of the tibial component have on the Q angle?

Answer 14

Increased q angle

Question 15

Malrotation of total knee components leading to patellar tracking problems is best diagnosed by what radiographic modality?

Answer 15

CT scan of the knee

Question 16

What preoperative knee deformity puts a patient at most risk for a postoperative peroneal nerve palsy after TKA?

Answer 16

Valgus and flexion contracture

Question 17

What is the most common intraoperative complication in a patient with sickle cell disease undergoing a total hip arthroplasty?

Answer 17

perforation of the femoral canal

Question 18

What is the most common cause of early revision surgery (

Answer 18

periprosthetic fracture (femoral neck fracture)

Question 19

What is the optimal position of the hip during arthrodesis?

Answer 19

0-5 degrees of adduction, 0-5 degrees of external rotation, and 20-35 degrees of hip flexion.

Question 20

Which radiographic view is most sensitive for detecting knee joint degenerative changes?

Answer 20

45 degree PA flexion weightbearing view

Question 21

What percentage of patients with complete peroneal nerve palsy after total hip arthroplasty will never recover full strength?

Answer 21

60-65%

Question 22

What is the most common complication after revision of a total hip polyethylene liner in a patient with well-fixed femoral and acetabular shell components?

Answer 22

dislocation