Adrenergic/Cholinergic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

alpha 2 agonists are good for ????? bad for????

A

good for premeds, anesthesia, standing procedures
bad for patients with compromised CV function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

reducing the dose of an alpha 2 agonist will do what?

A

dcrease the duration but not the magnitude of the effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how do alpha 2 agonists: provide sedation and analgesia, and reduce cardiac output?

A

sedation: inhibition of norepinepherine release in the brainstem
anelgesia: decreased neurotransmitter release and signal transmission is afferent pathways
cardiac output: initial effect is vasoconstriction, then relfex bardycardia, presynaptic effect leading to vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: Xyalzine

A

drug type: alpha 2 agonist
use: sedative in large animal
side effects: AV block, reduced GI motility, sweating, increased myometrial tone, makes cats vomit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: Detomidine

A

drug type: alpha 2 agonist
use: sedation and pain for standing sx in horses mostly, sometimes cattle
side effects: WAY more potent than xyalzine, less likely to cause premature delivery than xylazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: Dexmedetomidine

A

drug type: alpha 2 agonist
use: sedation/premed for small animals
side effects: makes 50% of cats vomit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how is dexmedetomidine different from medetomidine?

A

dex is a pure active enamtiomer while med is both enantiomers and it is therefore half as potent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

alpha 2 agonists have better anelgesia and sedation when you

A

pair it with an opiod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: dobutamine

A

drug type: beta 1 agonist
use: positive ionotrope, DOES NOT increase heart rate, short half life so given as a CRI
side effects: tachycardia in high doses, seizures in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: clenbuterol

A

drug type: beta 2 agonist
use: bronchodilator, sometimes treat equine asthma, inhibits uterine contractions
side effects: can be used as a growth promoter and is banned in food animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: epinephrine

A

drug type: non selective adrenergic agonist
use: treatment of anaphylaxsis (vasoconstriction but dilation of airways, increases cardiac output)
side effects: increases myocardial oxygen consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: prazosin

A

type: alpha 1 antagonist
use: aterial and venous vasodilator, used to treat urinary blocks in cats
side effects: very protein bound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: Atipamezole

A

type: alpha 2 antagonist
use: compeitive alpha 2 antagonist,reverses sedation and anelgesia
side effects: reverses everything!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: atenolol

A

type: beta 1 antagonist
use: negative ionotrope, treat ventricular tachycardia and arterial hypertension, sometimes used in kidney disease high BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: Neostigmine

A

type: cholinergic
use: reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinerase, increases gut motility, treat myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: atropine and glycopyrrolate
which more easily crosses the BBB?

A

type: anticholinergics
use: competitive muscarinic antagonists to reduce response to PS nerve impulses
adverse effects: tachyarrythmias, mania, ileus in horses
glycopyrrolate is more polar than atropine so it doesn’t easily cross the BBB so it has less CNS side effects associated with it

17
Q

describe the drug type, use, side effects of: hyoscine butylbromide

A

type: anticholinergic
use: similar effects to atropine, useful in horses with gas colic, acute asthsma treatment, rectal exams in horses (remember, this will decrease gut motility!)