Adrenal gland Physiology + Calcium Flashcards

+ clinical biochemistry of Calcium/ bone

1
Q

What are the layers of the Adrenal Gland

(GFR)

A
  • Glomerulosa
  • Fasciulata
  • Reticularis
  • Medulla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the adrenal causes of hypertension?

A
  • Primary Hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)
    • Zona glomerulosa
      • adenoma
      • hyperplasia
      • rare genetic causes
  • Phaeochromocytoma (Phaeo)
    • tumour of the adrenal medulla
  • some forms of congenital adrenal hyperplasia
    • enzyme defect (uncommon)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who should be screened for Primary Hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)?

A

those with

  • hypokalaemia
  • resistant hypertension (resistant to 3 drugs)
  • younger people
  • they have more vascular and renal pathology than people with essential hypertension &similar blood pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What investigations/ assessments would indicate Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A
  • during initial screening tests
    • suppressed renin
    • normal/ high aldosterone
  • a confirmatory oral or IV Na+ suppression test would be done
  • to get the specific aetiology the following would be done
    • an adrenal CT scan
    • an adrenal venous sampling
      • is also secretion unilateral?
    • Meeomidate PET scan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the treatment for Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

  • unilateral vs bilateral adenoma treatment
A
  • Unilateral Adenoma
    • Laparoscopic Adrenalectomy
    • Medical Treatment ( sometimes )
  • Bilateral Hyperplasia
    • Medical Treatment ( Aldosterone Antagonists)
      • Spironolactone
      • Eplerenone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the products of the adrenal medulla?

  • how is it stimulated?
A
  • Catecholamines
    • Dopamine
    • Noraepinpherine (Noraadrenalin)
    • Epinephrine (adrenalin)
      • requires cortisol for the conversion from NE
  • sympathetic neurons in the spinal cord stimulate the adrenal medulla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the biological effects of Catecholamines?

A
  • Noradrenalin (Alpha 1 & 2 )
    • Vasoconstriction
      • Increased BP
      • Pallor
    • Glycogenolysis (increased blood sugar)
  • Adrenalin ( Alpha 1, Beta 1 & 2 )
    • Vasoconstriction
    • Vasodilatation in Muscle
    • Increased heart rate
    • Sweating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the presentation of Phaeochromocytoma?

A
  • “Spells” of
    • Headache, Sweating
    • Pallor, Palpitation
    • Anxiety
  • Hypertension
    • Permanent
    • Intermittent
  • Family history
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What genetic conditions are associated with Phaeo?

A
  • Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1)
    • tumours under the skin that grow on nerves
  • Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2)
    • a familial disorder where one or more of the endocrine glands are overactive or form a tumour.
  • Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome
    • visceral cysts and benign tumours with potential for subsequent malignant transformation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1)?

A
  • genetic condition where tumours grow under the skin or deeper
  • appear at any age but predominantly during adolescence
  • these tumours grow on nerves are made up of cell surrounding the nerve and other cell types called - neurofibromas
  • varying number of tumours
  • may or may not be painful
  • Axillary freckling may be present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is this an image of?

  • in which condition does it occur?
A
  • Cerebellar Haemangioglioblastoma in Von Hippel - Lindau
  • CT + contrast. Right Enhancing cystic Mass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What biochemical investigation/ result would suggest Phaeochromocytoma?

A
  • 24 hour urine
    • Normetanephrines & Metanephrines
    • 3 Methoxytyromine
  • Plasma
    • Noradrenalin & Adrenalin
    • Metanephrines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What factors should be considered when carrying out diagnostic tests for Phaeo?

A
  • Other things can elevate catecholamines
    • obstructive sleep apnoea
    • amphetamine-like drugs
    • L-DOPA
    • Labetalol
  • Urine DA comes from the kidney 7 Nervous system, not the adrenal medulla
    • so the urine methoxytyramine should be measured
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What pathology is seen in this image?

A

Phaeochromocytoma of the adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the management of Phaeo?

A
  • Alpha-blockers
    • Phenoxybenzamine
    • Doxazocin
  • Beta-blockers
    • Propranolol
  • Laparoscopic adrenalectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Go over Post Adrenalectomy care

A
  • Consider Genetic testing
    • 30% are genetic ( 13 mutations so far)
  • Annual Metanephrines (a metabolite of epinpherine)
    • 24 hour urine
    • Plasma
  • Additional treatment if Malignant
    • 10%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What should you do if someone has a fit/seizure for the first time?

  • why?
A
  • check the serum calcium levels
  • hypocalcaemia can cause seizures
    • decrease in extracellular Ca2+ conc. increases the neurons permeability for Na+
    • allows sodium to easily depolarize the neuron’s membrane and cause an action potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are physical signs of hypoglycaemia?

( the same for hypoparathyroidism)

A
  • Neuromuscular inability
    • Chvostek’s sign
      • when the facial nerve is tapped at the angle of the jaw, facial muscles on the same side of the face contract momentarily
    • Trousseau’s sign of latent tetany
      • carpal spasm when the brachial artery is occluded for 3 minutes
      • less sensitive than Chvostek’s sign
  • Neurological sign and symptoms
    • Personality disturbance
    • Parkinsonism
    • Irritability
  • Mental status disturbed
    • confusion/ disorientation
    • psychosis/ psychoneurosis
  • Ectodermal changes
    • Dry skin
    • coarse hair
    • brittle nails
    • Psoriasis
    • alopecia
  • Cardiac changes
  • Ophthalmologic manifestations
  • smooth muscle involvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the acute and chronic consequences of hypercalcaemia

A
  • Acute
    • Thirst & Polyuria
    • Abdominal Pain
  • Chronic
    • Constipation
    • Musculoskeletal aches / weakness
    • Neurobehavioral symptoms
    • Renal calculi
    • Osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What state would serum calcium be found in?

A
  • Protein Bound: 40%
    • Albumin bound: 90%
    • Globulin Bound: 10%
  • Bound to Cations: 10%
    • Phosphate & Citrate
  • Ionised ( free ): 50%
    • this should be measured directly not through the corrected total serum Ca++
    • 1.1-1.35mmol/L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the serum Calcium level range?

A

2.15-2.55mmols/L

22
Q

How are blood calcium levels controlled within their range?

A
  • Parathyroid chief cells in the parathyroid glands produce parathyroid hormones
    • increased secretion of PTH –> increase in serum calcium
  • Calcium-sensing receptor (CaSR) in the chief cells, sense an increase in serum Ca++ and stimulate the uptake of Ca++ by the parathyroid chief cells
23
Q

How does the Calcium sensing receptor CaSR function?

A
  • this is a type of G protein-coupled receptor that is activated by two major signal-transducing effects
    1. Activation of phospholipase C
      • leads to the generation of the second messenger diacylglycerol and inositol triphosphate
    2. Inhibition of adenylate cyclase
      • _​​_suppresses intracellular conc. of cyclic AMP
  • the presence of this receptor in various areas in the body suggests that Calcium behaves like a hormone
24
Q

How does Calcium effect PTH secretion

25
What are the receptors for Parathyroid Hormone and PTHrP?
* _Type 1 parathyroid hormone receptor_: Binds both parathyroid hormone and amino-terminal peptides of PTHrP * binding activates adenylyl cyclase and phospholipase C systems * mRNA coding for type 1 receptor is most abundant in bone and the kidneys, * also expressed at lower levels in may other tissues * Mutations lead to Jansen's metaphyseal chondrosplasia ad BLomstrans chondroplasia * _Type 2 parathyroid hormone receptor_: Binds parathyroid hormone, but shows very low affinity for PTHrP * expressed in a few tissues also coupled to adenylyl cyclase * ligand binding induces a rise in intracellular conc. of cyclic AMP
26
What is the action of PTH in the bone?
* increases renal calcium reabsorption and posphate excretion * PTH blocks reabsorption of phosphate in the proximal tubule while promoting calcium reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, distal tubule, and collecting tubule * promotes the absorption of calcium from the bone * In the rapid phase when PTH binds to receptors on these cells, the osteocytic membrane pumps calcium ions from the bone fluid into the extracellular fluid * In the slow phase which happens over several days osteoclasts are activated to digest formed bone, and second, proliferation of osteoclasts occurs - stimulates cytokines released by by differentiation of immature osteoclast precursors that possess PTH and it. D receptors
27
What is Rank Ligand?
**Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa B ligand** * RANKL, produced by osteoblasts and other cells, causes osteoclast precursors to form and differentiate into active (mature) osteoclasts * implicated in altering the adherence of osteoclasts to the bone surface and suppresses apoptosis of mature osteoclasts * _body naturally produces a protein called osteoprotegerin (OPG) that neutralizes the effects of RANKL, keeping the bone loss process in check_ * RANKL has direct catabolic effects on cortical and trabecular bone including reductions in bone density, volume and strength
28
Renal Synthesis of Active Vitamin D
29
How is vitamin D production regulated in the kidney?
* PTH stimulates and * FGF23 inhibits 1,25(OH)2D * leads to renal phosphate excretion * In turn 1,25(OH)2D _inhibits PTH production and secretion_ from the parathyroid glands and _stimulates FGF23 production_ from bone
30
What is Primary Hyperparathyroidism? - what are its causes
* excess production/ secretion of Parathyroid hormone (PTH) --\> increased calcium levels _Causes_ * enlargement of one or more parathyroid gland * most common in over 60's * women are more likely to be affected than men * radiation to the head and neck increases risk * rarely caused by parathyroid cancer
31
What are the symptoms of Primary Hyperparathyroidism?
* Fatigue * Fractures * Decreased height * Upper abdominal pain * Loss of appetite/ Nausea * Muscular weakness/ Muscle pain * Depression/ Personality changes * Stupor and possibly coma * Kidney stones/ Increased urination Complications: Osteoporosis, bone cysts in severe cases
32
What investigations can be done to confirm Primary Hyperparathyroidism?
* A test called radioimmunoassay shows an increased level of PTH. * Serum calcium is increased. * Serum phosphorus may be decreased. * Serum alkaline phosphatase may be increased. * Bone x-ray may show bone reabsorption (the body breaks down the bone), or fractures. * Imaging of the kidneys or ureters may show calcification or blockage. * ECG may show abnormalities. * This disease may cause changes in the results of the following tests: * Calcium - urine * Calcium (ionized) * Bone density * Markers of bone resorption (N-telopeptide, pyridinoline, and deoxypyridinoline)
33
What is the treatment for Primary Hyperparathyroidism?
- treatment depends on the severity of the disease * If calcium levels are minimally raised, they may simply be monitored, * unless renal dysfunction, renal calculi or osteoporosis are present. * Treatment may include: * Drinking more fluids to prevent the formation of kidney stones * Avoiding immobilization * Avoiding thiazide-type diuretics * Using Bone protective treatment if osteoporosis is present * Treating with a calcium-receptor sensitizer (cinacalcet) to decrease levels of PTH * Surgery: if indicated by * osteoporosis, renal calculi, \<50yrs, serum Ca++ \>2.8mmol/l * dependent on patient
34
What type of scan is this? - what does it show?
Sesta Mibi Parathyroid scan Ectopic Parathyroid adenoma
35
What is this a scan of? - type of scan?
Parathyroid adenoma 4D CT scan
36
What are the causes of Hypoparathyroidism?
* Iatrogenic * thyroidectomy * radical neck surgery * Autoimmune * Hypomagnesaemia * Genetic mutations
37
What are the common causes of secondary Hyperparathyroidism?
* Low / low normal serum Calcium + HIGH PTH * Low serum 25 OH vitamin D * Lack of sun exposure * Gastrointestinal problems * Malabsorption * Extensive surgery ( small bowel ) * Renal Failure
38
What is rickets?
* A softening of the bones in children potentially leading to fractures and deformity predominantly due to vitamin D deficiency * lack of adequate calcium may also lead to rickets * majority of cases occur in children suffering malnutrition- famine/ starvation * Osteomalacia is used to describe a similar condition occurring in adults
39
What is the overall physiological effect of Parathyroid Hormone?
* Mobilisation of calcium from bone * Enhancing absorption of calcium from the SI * works indirectly by stimulating the production of the active form of vitamin D in the kidney. * Vitamin D induces synthesis of a calcium-binding protein in intestinal epithelial cells that facilitates efficient absorption of calcium into the blood * Suppression of calcium loss in urine * loss of phosphate ions in urine in exchange for calcium
40
What can cause a disruption to calcium homeostasis?
* Disorders of the gut, kidney, skeleton * Disorders of the parathyroid glands * Abnormal vit D metabolism * intake * synthesis * metabolism to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
41
Give an overview of Parathyroid Hormone
* it's secreted as Intact-PTH (1-84 AA) * this is metabolised in the periphery mainly the liver and kidney and stored in the gland and some goes into circulation * the active form is PTH 1- 30 AA * release stimulated in * low plasma ionised calcium (acute stimuli) * rise in plasma phosphate (chronic hypocalcemia)
42
What are the key actions of PTH?
* Increase in calcium via * renal tubular reabsorption * bone resorption (action of osteoclasts) * GI tract absorption * increased renal generation of active vit D * acts as a Hypophosphataemic agent * reduces proximal tubular reabsorption of phosphate by decreasing activity of type II sodium-phosphate co-transporter
43
How is intestinal absorption of calcium facilitated? - biological reaction
* 1alpha-hydroxylation of 25 hydroxyvitamin D in the kidney forms **calcitriol** which * **1,25 vitD (calcitriol)** increases calcium and phosphate uptake, * it also stimulates bone resorption, intestinal absorption and renal reabsorption
44
What is the calculation to give the corrected plasma calcium?
**corrected calcium = calcium + 0.02(40-albumin)** * disturbances in albumin (the bound fraction of calcium) can cause misinterpreted values * abnormally high albumin levels may indicate hypocalcaemia * abnormally low albumin levels may indicate hypercalcaemia
45
What are the causes of Hypercalcaemia?
* Malignancy - 65% * may be due to local bone resorption due to metastases, or the production of PTH-related protein which activates osteoclasts * Hyperparathyroidism - most common in ambulatory patients * Hypervitaminosis D * Familial hypoclaciuric hypercalcaemia * autosomal dominant - inactivation of calcium genes coding for calcium-sensing receptors on the parathyroid cells and the kidney
46
what does plasma PTH levels in hypercalcaemia indicated about the cause of the pathology?
* If there is **suppressed PTH** * non-parathyroid cause: malignant, it D excess, sarcoidosis * if there is **Raised or detectable PTH** * PTH mediated cause: 1y or 3y hyperparathyroidism + calcium receptor defects
47
What are the different Hyperparathyoid states?
* **Primary** * adenoma, hyperplasia * _plasma calcium is high_ * **Secondary** * ​a normal response to chronic hypocalcaemia: CRF malabsorption * _plasma calcium is low/normal_ * **Tertiary** * **​**developed from prolonged secondary state * PTH secretion becomes autonomous * _plasma calcium is high_
48
What does the plasma PTH levels in hypocalcemia indicate about the cause of the pathology?
* increased PTH * non-parathyroid cause: vit D deficiency, renal failure * low/normal PTH * parathyroid cause: hyperparathyroidism, Mg deficiency
49
What are the markers of bone formation?
* increase osteoblast activity * alkaline phosphatase * bone alkaline phosphatase * collagen peptides
50
What are the markers of bone resorption?
* Osteoclast activity * collagen peptides * pyridinolines (x-links) * urine hydroxyproline