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AKT > Admin > Flashcards

Admin Flashcards

1
Q

Schedule 1 controlled drugs

A

Cannabis

Lysergide (LSD)

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2
Q

Schedule 2 controlled drugs

A

Diamorphine

Morphine

Pethidine

Amphetamine

Cocaine

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3
Q

Schedule 3 controlled drugs

A

Barbiturates

Buprenorphine

Midazolam

Temazepam

Tramadol

Gabapentin

Pregabalin

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4
Q

Schedule 4 controlled drugs part 1

A

Benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam)

Zolpidem

Zopiclone

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5
Q

Schedule 4 controlled drugs part 2

A

Androgenic and anabolic steroids

hCG

Somatropin

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6
Q

Schedule 5 controlled drugs

A

Codeine

Pholcodine

Oramorph

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7
Q

Which schedule drugs are marked CD in the BNF?

A

2 and 3

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8
Q

How long are prescriptions for controlled drugs 2, 3 and 4 valid?

A

28 days

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9
Q

How often is universal credit paid?

A

Once a month

Twice a month in scotland

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10
Q

Requirements for universal credit

A

The person and their partner:

  • live in the UK
  • age over 18
  • earn a low income or out of work
  • less than £16,000 collectively in savings
  • below state pension age
  • 16 and 17 year olds can rarely claim if a carer, estranged from parents, have a child
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11
Q

What are extra payments given for when on universal credit?

A

up to 2 children
disability
caring for a severely disabled person
housing costs

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12
Q

How long do people have to wait for the first universal credit payment?

A

5 weeks

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13
Q

Data protection act - who does the practice have to register with?

A

Information Commissioner’s Office

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14
Q

Fitness to fly - unstable angina, uncontrolled HTN, uncontrolled arrhythmia

A

Should not fly

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15
Q

Fitness to fly - uncomplicated MI

A

Fly after 7-10 days

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16
Q

Fitness to fly - complicated MI

A

Fly after 4-6 weeks

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17
Q

Fitness to fly - coronary artery bypass graft

A

Fly after 10-14 days

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18
Q

Fitness to fly - percutaneous coronary intervention

A

Fly after 3 days

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19
Q

Fitness to fly - stroke

A

Advised to wait 10 days to fly

If stable may be carried within 3 days

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20
Q

Fitness to fly - pneumonia

A

Fly when clinically improved with no residual infection

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21
Q

Fitness to fly - pneumothorax

A

Absolute contraindication to flying

May fly 1 week post check cxr

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22
Q

Fitness to fly - pregnancy

A

Do not fly after 36 weeks for single pregnancy or 32 weeks for multiple pregnancy

Will require certificate after 28 weeks pregnancy

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23
Q

Fitness to fly - abdominal surgery

A

Fly after 10 days

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24
Q

Fitness to fly - laparoscopic surgery

A

Fly after 24 hours

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25
Q

Fitness to fly - colonoscopy

A

Fly after 24 hours

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26
Q

Fitness to fly - plaster cast

A

Fly after 24 hours for flights less than 2 hours

Fly after 48 hours for longer flights

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27
Q

Fitness to fly - haematological disorders

A

Haemoglobin >8 may travel without problems

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28
Q

What is triangulation?

A

Using more than one method or approach to evaluate a process, individual or organisation

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29
Q

Benefits - funeral payment

A

One-off payment to the partner or parent of the deceased if they are on benefits to help pay for a funeral

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30
Q

Benefits - what is bereavement support payment?

A

Lump sum then up to 18 monthly payments if they are under the state pension age when their partner died

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31
Q

Benefits - what does bereavement support payment depend upon?

A

NI contributions

Different rates are paid according to whether the claimant gets child benefit

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32
Q

Benefits - what is Widow’s parent’s allowance?

A

Payable to a parent whose husband or wife has died

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33
Q

Benefits - eligibility for widow’s parent’s allowance

A
  • Surviving partner bringing up a child <19 and receiving child benefit
  • Or women is expecting late husband’s baby
  • Deceased partner made adequate NI contributions
  • Divorcees and those who remarry are not eligible to claim
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34
Q

What needs to be included on a controlled drug prescription?

A

Name and address of patient
Form, strength and preparation of medication
Total quantity in words and figures
Dose
Prescriber’s name, signature, address and date

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35
Q

Benefits for chronic illness and cancer patients

A

Personal independence payment: for patients under 65

Attendance allowance: for patients over 65

36
Q

Components of personal independence payment

A

Daily living component

Mobility component

37
Q

Benefits for terminally ill - fast track form

A

DS1500

38
Q

What formula is used to adjust the global sum total?

A

Carr-Hill formula

39
Q

What factors are included in the Carr-Hill formula?

A
  • age and sex patients
  • nursing home and residential home
  • list turnover
  • additional needs (mortality ratio, long standing illness)
  • staff market forces
  • rurality
  • london weighting
40
Q

If a death occurs within X number of days of seeing a doctor the coroner does not have to be informed

A

14 days

41
Q

If a death occurs within X number of hours of hospital admission the coroner does have to be informed

A

24 hours

42
Q

How are LMCs funded?

A

Statutory levy on GPs

43
Q

Who are LMC members?

A

Elected

GP partners
Salaried doctors
GP registrars

44
Q

Fit to fly - pneumothorax after drainage

A

2 weeks after drainage

45
Q

What is a confidential enquiry?

A

Investigation into morbidity and mortality in order to identify shortcomings that can be improved

46
Q

What is the principle behind the Delphi process?

A

A number of rounds of questionnaires

47
Q

What are the three domains of QOF?

A

1) Clinical indicators = chronic disease
2) Public health
3) Public health including additional services sub domain

48
Q

How is blindness generally defined?

A

vision < 3/60

49
Q

Who applies to social services on behalf of blind patients?

A

Consultant ophthalmologist

50
Q

Examples of ‘blacklisted’ drugs

A

Propecia - finasteride for male pattern alopecia

Regaine - topical minoxidil for male pattern alopecia

Calpol

51
Q

Elements involved in clinical governance

A

Education and training

Clinical audit

Clinical effectiveness

Research and development

Risk management

Openness

52
Q

What is health protection?

A

Guards public against threats to health e.g. vaccination programmes, legislation on air pollution

53
Q

Asbestos - which conditions patients can claim for compensation?

A

Mesothelioma
Asbestosis
Pleural thickening causing disability
Lung cancer caused by asbestos

54
Q

Recovery time for laparoscopic abdominal/groin hernia repair

A

1-2 weeks

55
Q

Recovery time for open abdominal/groin hernia repair

A

2-3 weeks

56
Q

Recovery time for laparoscopic appendicectomy

A

1-2 weeks

57
Q

Recovery time for open appendicectomy

A

2-3 weeks

58
Q

Recovery time for laparoscopic cholecystectomy

A

2-3 weeks

59
Q

Recovery time for open cholecystectomy

A

3-5 weeks

60
Q

Recovery time for laparoscopic hysterectomy

A

3 weeks

61
Q

Recovery time for open hysterectomy

A

7 weeks

62
Q

How many foster children per family as a maximum?

A

3

63
Q

Medical care for foster children

A

6 monthly medical examination

64
Q

Which form entitles a patient to free prescriptions?

A

FP92A

called the medical exemption certificate

65
Q

At what age can you write old age on a death certificate?

A

> 80

66
Q

What is an inquest into a death?

A

Public enquiry at coroner’s court

does not apportion blame

67
Q

Eligibility for statutory sick pay

A 
Classed as an employee
Ill for at least 4 days in a row
Earn at least £112 per week
Tell your employer you're sick before their deadline (or within 7 days if they don't have one)
Agency workers are entitled
68
Q

Who is eligible for primary care?

A

Resident in the UK for at least 6 months

Refugees

69
Q

What medical care is always free?

A

Contraception
A&E
Compulsory psychiatric treatment
Treatment for communicable diseases - TB, malaria, meningitis, HIV

70
Q

What is carers credit?

A

National insurance contributions towards state pension for the carer

71
Q

What is the criteria for carers credit?

A

Age 16 or over
Under state pension age
Looking after 1 or more people for at least 20 hours a week

72
Q

Which classification of controlled drugs should be recorded on the register?

A

2

73
Q

Calgary-Cambridge consultation model

A

structure of consultation

74
Q

Fraser consultation model

A

Interview and history

Physical exam

Diagnosis and problem solving

Patient management

Relating to patients

Anticipatory care

Record keeping

75
Q

Pendelton consultation model

A

ICE

76
Q

Stewart consultation model

A

Understanding the whole person

Finding common ground

Enhance doctor-patient relationship

77
Q

Neighbour consultation model

A

Summarising

Safety netting

Housekeeping

78
Q

Tuckett consultation model

A

Doctors experts in medicine

Patients experts in their illness

Shared understanding of the aim

79
Q

Scott and Davis consultation model

A

Modification of health-seeking behaviour

Opportunistic health promotion

80
Q

Phase 1 drug studies

A

Small studies on healthy volunteers

Used to assess pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics

81
Q

Phase 2 drug studies

A

Small studies on actual patients

Examines efficacy, adverse effects

82
Q

Phase 3 drug studies

A

Large studies

Examines efficacy, adverse effects

May compare drug with existing treatments

Small studies of special groups - renal, elderly

83
Q

Phase 4 drug studies

A

Post-marketing surveillance

84
Q

Formula for number needed to treat

A

NNT = 1 / absolute risk reduction

85
Q

Formula for experimental event rate

A

EER = number who had a particular outcome with the intervention / total who had the intervention

86
Q

Formula for the control event rate

A

CER = number who had particular outcome with the control / total number who had the control

87
Q

Absolute risk reduction

A

AAR if outcome of the study is desirable = EER - CER

AAR if the outcome of the study is undesirable = CER - EER

AKT (20 decks)

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