ACS (from Rx 2019) Flashcards

1
Q

RM is a 56 year old male being discharged from the hospital after a myocardial infarction. One of his discharge medications isLopressor.According to guidelines, how long will RM need to takeLopressor?

A 6 months
B 1 year
C 2 years
D 3 years
E Indefinitely
A

D-3 years

Per the ACC/AHA guidelines, beta blocker therapy should be given for 3 years after an MI. If there are other evidence-based reasons to continue the beta blocker (heart failure, atrial fibrillation, etc.), then it may be continued beyond 3 years.

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2
Q

Which of the following medications should be avoided in a patient presenting with ACS?

A Metoprolol
B Lisinopril
C Celecoxib
D Aspirin
E Enoxaparin
A

C-Celecoxib

NSAIDs (except aspirin), regardless of COX selectivity, should be avoided in patients with ACS. If safer agents (acetaminophen, tramadol, small doses of opioids) are not effective, naproxen is generally considered to have the lowest cardiovascular risk (but there is still risk).

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3
Q

Which of the following medications is an intravenous P2Y12 inhibitor?

A Cangrelor(Kengreal)
B Clopidogrel(Plavix)
C Prasugrel(Effient)
D Tenecteplase(TNKase)
E Vorapaxar(Zontivity)
A

A-Cangrelor(Kengreal)

Kengrealis the only intravenous P2Y12 inhibitor. Prasugrel, clopidogrel, and ticagrelor are all PO

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4
Q

An 87 year old male presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of mid-sternal chest pain. He has had intermittent chest pain for two days with some nausea and diaphoresis. The patient is diagnosed with a Non-ST Segment Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI). Which of the following are standard medications that may be used to treat a patient with an acute coronary syndrome characterized as NSTEMI? (SelectALLthat apply.)

A Morphine
B Olanzapine
C Meperidine
D Aspirin
E Nitroprusside
A

A Morphine
D Aspirin

Look for drugs in the acronym MONA, which represent standard care for a myocardial infarction: Morphine, Oxygen, Nitrates (nitroglycerin in various formulations) and Aspirin (MONA). Additonal medications will be added to MONA depending on the clinical situation.

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5
Q

A patient at the hospital is receiving morphine for chest pain. What are the advantages/reasons for using morphine in a patient with chest pain?

A-Provides analgesia, increases blood pressure and reduces preload
B-Reduces preload, provides analgesia and reduces myocardial oxygen demand
C-Reduces myocardial oxygen demand, reduces anxiety and reduces clot expansion
D-Reduces chest pain, increases myocardial oxygen supply and increases blood pressure
E-Provides analgesia, reduces preload and increases ejection fraction

A

B-Reduces preload, provides analgesia and reduces myocardial oxygen demand

Morphine reduces preload (venous dilation), provides analgesia and reduces myocardial oxygen demand. Be careful as morphine can lower blood pressure, leading to hypotension

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6
Q

Which of the following side effects is common withBrilinta?

A-Tachyarrhythmias
B-Decreased serum creatitine
C-Hepatic impairment
D-Dyspnea
E-Puffy eyes
A

D-Dyspnea

Dyspnea is a common side effect withBrilinta,occuring in more than 10% of patients

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7
Q

A patient at the hospital is receiving nitroglycerin for chest pain. What are the advantages/reasons for using nitroglycerin in a patient with chest pain? (SelectALLthat apply.)

A-Increases blood pressure
B-Reduces preload
C-Dilates coronary vessels and increases blood flow
D-Relieves chest pain
E-Helps with fibrinolysis
A

B-Reduces preload
C-Dilates coronary vessels and increases blood flow
D-Relieves chest pain

Nitroglycerin dilates coronary vessels and increases blood flow, reduces preload and provides relief of chest pain.

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8
Q

The provider ordersReoPro. What is the appropriate genericsubstitution?

A-Abciximab
B-Tirofiban
C-Alteplase
D-Bivalirudin
E-Eptifibatide
A

A-Abciximab

Abciximabis the generic name ofReoPro

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9
Q

SR is a 61 year old female (5’3”, 115 pounds) who presents to the emergency department with a NSTEMI. Her past medical history is significant for diabetes, hypertension, multiple TIAs and a hip fracture. She was given aspirin 325 mg in the field and was started on a nitroglycerin drip at 50 mcg/min. Her oxygen saturation is 93% and she has received morphine sulfate 1 mg IV x 1 in the past 30 minutes. She is transferred to the cardiac catheterization laboratory and angioplasty confirmed an 85% blockage of her left marginal artery. The cardiac interventionalist wants to start P2Y12 inhibitor therapy prior to starting the PCI. Which of the following regimens would be most appropriate for this patient?

A Activase90 mg IV x 1
B Effient5 mg PO x 1
C Effient60 mg PO x 1
D Brilinta180 mg PO x 1
E Brilinta90 mg PO x 1
A

D-Brilinta180 mg PO x 1

This patient has a contraindication to the use ofEffient(history of TIA/stroke)andActivasedoes not work by P2Y12 inhibition. The correct loading dose ofBrilintais 180 mg x 1.

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10
Q

YC is a 77 year old male (6’3”, 315 pounds) who presents to the emergency department with a STEMI. He was given aspirin 325 mg in the field and was started on a nitroglycerin drip that is currently running at 200 mcg/min. His oxygen saturation is 94% and he has received morphine sulfate 2 mg IV x 2 and metoprolol 5 mg IV in the past 30 minutes. The patient still has ongoing ischemia and is going for PCI. The physician plans to startReoProfor this patient. Which of the following statements are correct regardingReoPro?

A-ReoProis a fibrinolytic.
B-Ticagrelor and prasugrel share the same mechanism of action asReoPro.
C-ReoPromust be filtered during administration.
D-ReoPromust be shaken upon reconstitution.
E-IVReoProshould be switched to the oral formulation as soon as possible due to cost.

A

C-ReoPromust be filtered during administration.

Abciximab(ReoPro)is a GIIb/IIIa inhibitor. It is a protein and should not be shaken during reconstitution. The medication requires filtering during administration and platelets must be monitored. GIIb/IIIa inhibitors are notavailable orally.

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11
Q

A woman calls the pharmacy in a panic. She thinks her husband may be having a heart attack. The pharmacist determines that the husband has a prescription forNitrostatat home. What instructions should the pharmacist provide?

A-Drive the patient to the emergency room immediately.
B-Prime the pump with 1-2 sprays if it hasn’t been used recently. Spray once onto the tongue every 5 minutes x 3 doses.Call 911 if the pain persists after the third dose of nitroglycerin.
C-Chew 1 tablet now, then place 1 tablet under the tongue every 5 minutes x 3 doses. Call 911 if the pain persists after the first dose of nitroglycerin.
D-Place one tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve. Use one tablet every 5 minutes x 3 doses.Call 911 if the pain persists after the third dose of nitroglycerin.
E-Place one tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve. Use one tablet every 5 minutes x 3 doses. Call 911 if the pain persists after the first dose of nitroglycerin.

A

E-Place one tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve. Use one tablet every 5 minutes x 3 doses. Call 911 if the pain persists after the first dose of nitroglycerin.

An ACS is a medical emergency. Use 1 dose of short-acting nitroglycerin (SL, spray or powder) immediately. Call 911 if the pain persists or is worse after the first dose. Use one dose Q5 min, but do not exceed 3 doses in 15 minutes. If aspirin is readily available, CHEW 162-325 mg of a non-enteric coated formulation immediately. Review the Ischemic Heart Disease chapter for additonal details about nitroglycerin formulations.

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12
Q

All of the following are antiplatelet agents that can be used in the treatment of an acute coronary syndrome EXCEPT:

A-Clopidogrel
B-Dalteparin
C-Eptifibatide
D-Ticagrelor
E-Aspirin
A

B-Dalteparin

Aspirin, P2Y12 inhibitors and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors can be globally called “antiplatelet agents” based on their mechanisms of action. Dalteparin is an anticoagulant.

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13
Q

Patients with acute coronary syndrome may receive a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist. These may be given in support of a PCI intervention. Choose the correct statement concerning the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists:

A-Do not use if patient has a major risk for bleeding
B-They are safe to use within 1 week of major surgery
C-They are safe to use in patients with thrombocytopenia
D-They are safe to use with severe uncontrolled hypertension
E-Do not use if patient has an INR < 1.1

A

A-Do not use if patient has a major risk for bleeding

The glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists are not safe to use in patients with major risk for bleeding, thrombocytopenia (low platelets), uncontrolled hypertension and within a short period of any major surgery as they can increase bleeding risk. GIIb/IIIa inhibitors are known to cause thrombocytopenia as a side effect, so it is important not to use them in patients who are severly thrombocytopenic at baseline. Many of the contraindications for GIIb/IIIa inhibitors are similar to those of fibrinolytics and relate to bleeding risk.

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14
Q

What causes an acute coronary syndrome?

A-Reduced blood flow to the brain caused by plaque buildup in the carotid arteries
B-Clot formation in the deep veins of the pelvis or legs
C-Abnormal electrical impulse conduction through the heart causing reduced myocardial oxygen supply
D-Reduced blood flow to the heart caused by plaque buildup in the coronary arteries
E-Rupture of the interventricular septum between the right and left ventricle

A

D-Reduced blood flow to the heart caused by plaque buildup in the coronary arteries

ACS symptoms result from a mismatch between myocardial oxygen supply and demand. Coronary atherosclerosis is the cause. ACS is a broad term that includes NSTE-ACS and STEMI. NSTE-ACS includes both NSTEMI and unstable angina (UA). It is good to compare and contrast the cause of ACS, stroke, VTE, arrhythmia and heart failure so the drug therapy will make sense.

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15
Q

GR received an electrocardiogram (ECG) which showed ST segment elevation in the precordial leads (V2-V6). In the emergency room her troponin I and CK-MB were positive. Her glucose, amylase and blood pressure were elevated, but other labs and vital signs were normal. She went to the cath lab for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The coronary angiogram found 100% blockage of the left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery. Which of the following indicate that GR has had an ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)? (SelectALLthat apply.)

A-ST segment elevation on ECG
B-T-wave inversion on ECG
C-Positive cardiac enzymes
D-Increased amylase
E-Increased blood pressure
A

A-ST segment elevation on ECG
C-Positive cardiac enzymes

A STEMI diagnosis is made in patients with chest pain, positive cardiac enzymes and ST segment elevation on ECG. The T-wave is part of the ST segment, so a patient cannot have ST segment elevation and T-wave inversion. T-wave inversion is more typical of NSTEMI. The critical difference between STEMI and NSTEMI (including unstable angina) is that STEMI requires a faster response for reperfusion. Time is of the essence in order to break up the blockage and re-establish blood flow to that section of the heart.

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16
Q

RM is being discharged from the hospital after he suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a past medical history significant for hypertension. Upon discharge, he will continue taking hisZestriltherapy which was started yesterday in addition to his hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. How long is it recommended that RM take hisZestriltherapy?

A-6 months
B-1 year
C-2 years
D-3 years
E-Indefinitely
A

E-Indefinitely

An ACE inhibitor should be continued indefinitely for patients with HTN after an MI.

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17
Q

A patient, while gardening, experiences serious chest pain, diaphoresis, shortness of breath and left arm pain. Emergency medical personnel is contacted and arrive at the scene. What test should the emergency medical personnel perform?

A-Treadmill stress testing
B-Echocardiogram
C-Heart computed tomography
D-12-lead ECG
E-Right heart catheterization
A

D-12-lead ECG

Emergency medical personnel should perform a 12-lead ECG (electrocardiogram) in the field in patients experiencing symptoms of ACS.

18
Q

FD was diagnosed with an acute STEMI. The physician is determining if she is a candidate
for fibrinolysis. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to fibrinolysis?

A-A prior intracranial hemorrhage
B-Blood pressure of 165/98
C-Hypersensitivity to soy products
D-Ischemic stroke 4 years ago
E-Concurrent use of aspirin
A

A-A prior intracranial hemorrhage

Absolute contraindications to using a fibrinolytic for STEMI include any prior intracranial hemorrhage, active bleeding, recent stroke (usually defined as within 3 months), intracranial/intraspinal surgery or trauma in last 2-3 months and others. Severe uncontrolled hypertension (usually defined as > 175/110) is considered an absolute contraindication unless it can be controlled emergently before administring the fibrinolytic. Because of the risk of serious bleeding with fibrinolytics, careful risk/benefit assessment must be conducted. Fibrinolytics are also used for acute ischemic stroke. Contraindications differ for that indication.

19
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding clopidogrel? (SelectALLthat apply.)

A-It increases bleeding risk
B-It is metabolized to its active form by CYP 2C19
C-It should be discontinued 12 hours prior to major surgery
D-It binds irreversibly to the platelet
E-The typical maintenance dose is 300 mg daily

A

A-It increases bleeding risk
B-It is metabolized to its active form by CYP 2C19
D-It binds irreversibly to the platelet

Clopidogrel is a prodrug that is converted to its active form by CYP 2C19. It binds irreversibly to platelet receptors and is commonly dosed 75 mg PO daily for maintenance. It should be discontinued 5 days prior to major surgery.

20
Q

MC a 58 year-old female, has just been told she had a silent heart attack. She cannot understand how this occurred. She does not smoke but lives with her husband who smokes two packs per day. Her PCP prescribedZocorabout 1 year ago, but she never filled the prescription. She sometimes checks her blood pressure at the community pharmacy and “the top number is usually 150-160 and the bottom number is usually 90-100”. She never worried about her health because she felt fine. Her mother passed away at age 61 due to colon cancer and her father passed away at age 82 with COPD. Which of the following risk factors for coronary heart disease are present in this patient? (SelectALLthat apply.)

A-Hypertension
B-Family History
C-Age
D-Diabetes
E-Dyslipidemia
A

A-Hypertension
E-Dyslipidemia

Risk factors include age (men > 45 years of age, women > 55 years of age or had an early hysterectomy), family history of coronary events before age 55 years (men) or before age 65 years (women), smoking, hypertension, dyslipidemia, diabetes, known coronary artery disease, chronic angina, excessive alcohol use and sedentary lifestyle.

21
Q

A pharmacist covering the emergency department receives an order for “tPA 15 mg IV bolus, 50 mg over 30 min, then 35 mg over 1 hour. Total dose = 100 mg”. What drug is being ordered?

A-Abciximab
B-Alteplase
C-Epitifibatide
D-Tenecteplase
E-Tirofiban
A

B-Alteplase

Alteplase(Activase)is recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA or simple “tPA”). Correct dosing is critical due to bleeding risk. The accelerated infusion dosing for STEMI differs from the recommended dose for acute ischemic stroke (see Stroke chapter).

22
Q

Which of the following are likely signs/symptoms of a heart attack? (SelectALLthat apply.)

A-Chest pain or pressure that lasts more than a few minutes
B-Shortness of breath
C-Incontinence
D-Sweating
E-Seizure
A

A-Chest pain or pressure that lasts more than a few minutes
B-Shortness of breath
D-Sweating

Many myocardial infarctions involve chest discomfort that lasts 10 minutes or more, or that goes away and comes back. The pain can radiate (or extend) to one or both arms, the back, neck, jaw or stomach and may be described as “squeezing” or “pressure”. Shortness of breath (dyspnea) and sweating (diaphoresis) may also occur.

23
Q

What is the brand name of ticagrelor?

A-Activase
B-Brilinta
C-Effient

D-Integrilin

E-TNKase
A

B-Brilinta

24
Q

JD is a 54 year old, otherwise healthy female (ht. 5’5’, wt. 168 pounds, SCr 2.2 mg/dL) being discharged from the hospital after a STEMI. Her ejection fraction was 56% before discharge from the hospital. She is being discharged onLopressor25 mg PO BID,Altace5 mg PO daily, aspirin 81 mg PO daily,Crestor20 mg PO daily andPlavix75 mg PO daily. Which of the following recommendations should be made regarding her medicationtherapy?

A-Increase the dose ofPlavix
B-Add onAldactone
C-Decrease the dose ofLopressor
D-Add onNitrostatPRN
E-Decrease the dose ofCrestor
A

D-Add onNitrostatPRN

All patients who have had an MI require a prescription for PRN nitroglycerin (SL tabs or spray). With an EF of 65%,Aldactoneis not warranted (but it is contraindicated at this level of SCr anyway). The medications are all dosed appropriately, given the information provided.

25
Q

The provider ordersIntegrilin. What is the appropriate generic substitution?

A-Tirofiban
B-Vorapaxar
C-Bivalirudin
D-Eptifibatide
E-Abciximab
A

D-Eptifibatide

26
Q

The pharmacist received an order for tenecteplase from the emergency department. What is the mechanism of action of tenecteplase?

A-Binds to fibrin and converts plasmin to plasminogen
B-Binds to antithrombin and converts thrombin to fibrin
C-Binds to thrombin and converts fibrinogen to fibrin
D-Binds to thrombin and converts fibrin to fibrinogen
E-Binds to fibrin and converts plasminogen to plasmin

A

E-Binds to fibrin and converts plasminogen to plasmin

Fibrinolytics work by binding to fibrin and converting entrapped plasminogen to plasmin. Plasmin then degrades the fibrin mesh into soluble end products leading to clot dissolution.

27
Q

GH uses the following medications daily:



Clopidogrel for CAD

Aspirin for CAD

Cozaarfor blood pressure
Lovastatin for dyslipidemia
Ambienfor sleep

Prilosecfor heartburn

Zybanfor smoking cessation



The pharmacist notes that the following drugs have an interaction that requires the prescriber to be notified:

A Clopidogrel andPrilosec
B Clopidogrel and lovastatin
C Clopidogrel andZyban
D AmbienandPrilosec
E Lovastatin andPrilosec
A

A Clopidogrel andPrilosec

Clopidogrel is a prodrug that is converted by the CYP 2C19 enzyme to an active metabolite. The metabolism of clopidogrel to its active metabolite can be impaired by genetic variations in CYP 2C19 and by concomitant medications that interfere with CYP 2C19. Avoid use with strong or moderate CYP 2C19 inhibitors, including omeprazole (and esomeprazole).

28
Q

What is the primary reason for using aspirin in a patient with chest pain?

A Inhibit platelet aggregation
B Provide moderate degree of analgesia
C Increase mortality in patients with STEMI
D Prevent flushing
E Break down the clot
A

A Inhibit platelet aggregation

Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, stabilizes plaque and helps to arrest thrombus formation. Aspirin does not break down the existing clot, but rather prevents it from enlarging and progressing. Fibrinolysis (clot breakdown) requires converting plasminogen to plasmin.Aspirin provides very mild analgesia and is not used for analgesia in patients with chest pain.

29
Q

AM is a 67 year old man with coronary artery disease and peptic ulcer disease. He had PCI with stent placement 3 months ago. He has come to the pharmacy to get his clopidogrel refilled. AM is concerned that his stool looks dark and tarry. Choose the best recommendation for AM.

A This is an expected and mild side effect from clopidogrel. Continue the medication as prescribed.
B He should ask his prescriber about switching to ticagrelor, which would not cause this side effect.
C He should receive 2C9 pharmacogenetic testing in order to continue receiving clopidogrel.
D He should contact his prescriber immediately before taking additional clopidogrel.
E He should start taking an OTC histamine-2 receptor antagonist.

A

D He should contact his prescriber immediately before taking additional clopidogrel.

All P2Y12 inhibitors increase bleeding risk and patients shoud be counseled on this. Black, tarry stool can indicate the presence of GI bleeding which can be very serious. The patient should contact his prescriber because continuing to take the clopidogrel and abruptly stopping it so soon after stent placement can both be dangerous.

30
Q

Which of the following medications work by blocking the binding of fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, and other ligands at the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor?

A Eptifibatide
B Fondaparinux
C Bivalirudin
D Ticagrelor
E Vorapaxar
A

A Eptifibatide

Eptifibatide is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist.

31
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding the use of ACE inhibitors in patients with UA/NSTEMI? (SelectALLthat apply.)

A They should be administered within the first 24 hours unless there is a contraindication
B They reduce preload and afterload as well as prevent cardiac remodeling
C An ARB can be substituted if the patient is intolerant to an ACE inhibitor
D They should be avoided in patients with hypokalemia
E They should not be used in combination with beta blockers

A

A They should be administered within the first 24 hours unless there is a contraindication
B They reduce preload and afterload as well as prevent cardiac remodeling
C An ARB can be substituted if the patient is intolerant to an ACE inhibitor

ACE inhibitors are recommended within the first 24 hours of an MI. ARBs are reasonable to use if a patient is intolerant to an ACE inhibitor.

32
Q

AH is being discharged from the hospital after a myocardial infarction. Two bare metal stents were placed yesterday. Upon discharge, he will continue taking hisPrasugreltherapy which was started yesterday. What is the minimum period of time that AH will need to takePrasugrel?

A 6 months
B 1 year
C 2 years
D 3 years
E Indefinitely
A

B 1 year

After an MI, patients should receive aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitor for a minimum of 12 months. The minimum recommendation is the same for patients managed medically or for those stented.

33
Q

Which of the following patients should be placed on statin therapy after an acute coronary syndrome?

A Only patients ≤ 75 years old
B Only patients > 75 years old
C Only patients who have had a STEMI
D Only patients with LDL > 160 mg/dL
E All patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome
A

E All patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome

Statin therapy should be initiated in all patients with clinical atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD). This is defined in the Dyslipidemia chapter and includes patients with coronary heart disease [acute conronary syndrome (ACS), status post MI, stable or unstable angina, coronary or other arterial revascularization], stroke, TIS or PAD. This is called secondary prevention. The patient’s age will dictate the intensity of the statin therapy.

34
Q

GL is place on aspirin 81 mg PO daily and ticagrelor 90 mg PO BID after PCI with placement of 2 stents. She is now visiting her cardiologist and it has been just over 1 year since her stents were placed. She feels that she is still at risk and would like to continue her regimen. What recommendation regarding her ticagrelor is correct?

A Continue ticagrelor 90 mg PO BID
B Change ticagrelor to 90 mg PO daily
C Change ticagrelor to 60 mg PO BID
D Change ticagrelor to 60 mg PO daily
E Change ticagrelor to 30 mg PO daily
A

C Change ticagrelor to 60 mg PO BID

Ticagrelor should be dosed at 60 mg PO BID if continued beyond 1 year.

35
Q

A patient with a STEMI arrives at a hospital without PCI facilities. The patient should receive a fibrinolytic if PCI is not possible within what period of time from first medical contact?

A-30 minutes
B-60 minutes
C-120 minutes
D-4.5 hours
E-STEMI patients are not candidates for fibrinolytic therapy
A

C-120 minutes

Fibrinolytic therapy may be administered if the STEMI patient is not at a PCI-capable hospital or is not able to receive PCI within 120 minutes of first medical contact. In a STEMI, the completely occluded coronary artery must be opened as quickly as possible.

36
Q

JB has been taking ticagrelor 90 mg BID for 3 months. Which of the following new orders should not be filled by the pharmacist?

A Enoxaparin 1 mg/kg every 12 hours
B Warfarin 2 mg daily
C Metoprolol XL 50 mg daily
D Morphine 1 mg IV every 2-4 hours PRN pain
E Aspirin 325 mg daily
A

E Aspirin 325 mg daily

Maintenance doses of aspirin > 100 mg reduce the effectiveness of ticagrelor. This is an important distinction to understand. The loading dose of ticagrelor (180 mg) is given with a loading dose of aspirin (325 mg), but the maintenance dose of ticagrelor (90 or 60 mg BID) should be given with an aspirin dose ≤ 100 mg (usually 81 mg in the U.S.). Anticoagulants are sometimes required along with P2Y12 inhibitors (e.g., prior ACS and mechanical valve). Bleeding risk would be increased, but the dual therapy is sometimes required.

37
Q

JM is a 57 year old male (6’1”, 275 pounds) who presents to the emergency department with a NSTEMI. He was given aspirin 325 mg in the field and was started on a nitroglycerin drip at 100 mcg/min. His oxygen saturation is 94% and he has received morphine sulfate 2 mg IV x 2 in the past 30 minutes. He is transferred to the cardiac catheterization laboratory and angioplasty confirmed a 90% blockage of his left anterior descending (LAD) artery. The cardiac interventionalist wants to start P2Y12 inhibitor therapy prior to starting the PCI. Which of the following regimens would be most appropriate for this patient?

A
Plavix900 mg PO x 1
B
Effient10 mg PO x 1
C
Effient60 mg PO x 1
D
Brilinta80 mg PO x 1
E
Brilinta90 mg PO x 1
A

C
Effient60 mg PO x 1

Higher doses of P2Y12 inhibitors are given as a loading dose, followed by lower maintenance doses for chronic treatment. The higher loading doses are given x 1 in the hospital, so it would be important for any pharmacist to recognize that patients should not receive the high loading dose for chronic (daily) treatment. The only P2Y12 inhibitor listed with the correct loading dose isEffient60 mg PO x 1.

38
Q

DL is a 77 year old male (6’3”, 315 pounds) who presents to the emergency department with a STEMI. He was given aspirin 325 mg in the field and was started on a nitroglycerin drip at 100 mcg/min. His oxygen saturation is 94% and he has received morphine sulfate 2 mg IV x 2 and metoprolol 5 mg IV in the past 30 minutes. His blood pressure is 164/101, HR is 95 BPM, and his respiratory rate is 22 BPM. Which of the following medications should not be given to the patient due to increased mortality?

A
Procardia
B
Demadex
C
Atacand
D
Cardizem
E
Vasotec
A

A
Procardia

Immediate release nifedpine is associated with increased mortality when used in the acute setting.

39
Q

A patient at the hospital is receiving a beta blocker for chest pain. Which of the following is true regarding the use of beta blockers in this setting?

A
They should be avoided in STEMI, but are recommended for NSTEMI.
B
Beta-1 selective beta blockers withoutintrinsic sympathomimetic activity are preferred.
C
They must be combined with a long-acting non-dihydropyridine calcium antagonist.
D
They increase myocardial oxygen demand.
E
Nonselective beta blockers are preferred to prevent arrythmias associated with MI.

A

B
Beta-1 selective beta blockers withoutintrinsic sympathomimetic activity are preferred.

Beta-1 selective beta blockers should be given to all patients without contraindications who present with UA/NSTEMI within 24 hours. In STEMI, they should be given promptly. They reduce myocardial oxygen demand and can be administered PO or IV.

40
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is the most sensitive marker for detecting myocardial damage in a patient with an acute coronary syndrome?

A
CK-MB
B
BNP
C
Troponins
D
Myoglobin
E
C-reactive protein
A

C
Troponins

Though all of the tests listed as answer choices can be elevated in ACS, troponins (I and T) are the most sensitive and specific for detecting myocardial damage due to ischemia in patients with ACS.