Acronyms Flashcards

1
Q

3DES

A

Triple Digital Encryption Standard
- Deprecated and considered insecure. Replaced by AES
- Symmetric
- Applies the DES cipher algorithm 3 times to each data block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AAA

A

-Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting)
- Often used to describe RADIUS, or some other form of networking protocol that provides Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ABAC

A

Attribute Based Access Control

Rights granted through policies that combine attributes together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Active Directory

A

Database and identity service used to provide identity management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ACL

A

Access Control List

  • Set of rules that allow/permit or deny any traffic flow through routers
  • Looks at the packet to determine whether it should be allowed or denied
  • Works at layer 3 toprovide security by filtering & controlling the flow of trafficfrom one router to another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AES

A

Advanced Encryption Standard

  • Industry-standard for data security
  • 128-bit, 192-bit, or 256-bit (strongest) implementations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AES256

A

Advanced Encryption Standard 256 bits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AH

A

Authentication Header

  • Used to authenticate origins of packets of data transmitted
  • These headers don’t hide any data from attackers, but they do provide proof that the data packets are from a trusted source and that the data hasn’t been tampered with
  • Helps protect against replay attacks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AIS

A

Automated Indicator Sharing

  • DHS and CISA free program
  • Enables organizations to share and receive machine-readable cyber threat indicators (CTIs) and defensive measures (DMs) in real-time
  • Useful to monitor and defend networks against known threats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ALE

A

Annualized Loss Expectancy

ie: can expect x number of devices to fail per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AP

A

Access Point

Networking hardware device that provides Wi-Fi access, typically then connected via wire to the router, or directly integrated in the router itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

APT

A

Advanced Persistent Threat

Stealthy threat actor (usually nation-state or state-sponsored group) that gains unauthorized access to a system and remains undetected for a period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ARO

A

Annualized Rate of Occurrence

The calculated probability that a risk will occur in a given year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ARP

A

Address Resolution Protocol

Connects IP address with MAC address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ASLR

A

Address Space Layout Randomization

Prevent exploitation of memory corruption vulnerabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ASP

A

Active Server Page

  • Microsoft server-side scripting language and engine to create dynamic web pages
  • Superseded by ASP.NET in 2002
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ATT&CK

A

Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge

Knowledge base framework of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

AUP

A

Acceptable Use Policy

Terms that users must accept in order to use a network, system, website, etc…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

AV

A

Antivirus

  • Antivirus software
  • Typically uses signature-based detection
  • Not effective against zero-days or polymorphic malware
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BASH

A

Born Again Shell

Powerful UNIX shell and command language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

BCP

A

Business Continuity Planning

  • Plan used to create processes and systems of both prevention and recovery to deal with threats that a company faces
  • This plan outlines how a business can continue delivering products and services if crap hits the fan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

BIA

A

Business Impact Analysis

Used to predict the consequences a business would face if there were to be a disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BGP

A

Border Gateway Protocol

  • “The postal service of the Internet”
  • BGP finds the best route for data to travel to reach its destination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

BIOS

A

Basic Input Output System

  • Firmware that performs hardware initialization when systems are booting up, and to provide runtime services for the OS and programs
  • First software to run when you power on a device
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

BPA

A

Business Partnership Agreement

Defines a contract between two or more parties as to how a business should run

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

BPDU

A

Bridge Protocol Data Unit

  • Frames that have spanning tree protocol information
  • Switches send BPDUs with a unique source MAC address to a multicast address with a destination MAC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

BYOD

A

Bring your own device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CA

A

Certificate Authority

An organization that validates the identities of entities through cryptographic keys by issuing digital certificates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CAC

A

Common Access Card

Smart card for active duty personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CAPTCHA

A

Completely Automated Public Turing Test to Tell Computers and Humans Apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CAR

A

Corrective Action Report

Lists defects that need to be rectified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CASB

A

Cloud Access Security Broker

  • Acts as an intermediary between the cloud and on-prem
  • Monitors all activity
  • Enforces security policies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CBC

A

Cipher Block Chaining

  • CBC is a mode of operation for block ciphers
  • Block ciphers (for encryption) by themselves would only work for a single block of data…a mode of operation like CBC can be used to give instructions on how to apply encryption to multiple blocks of data
  • CBC helps prevent issues of identical blocks, even if you have identical inputs. It does that by using an operation called XOR (exclusive-OR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CBT

A

Computer Based Training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CCMP

A

Counter-Mode/CBC-Mac Protocol

Encryption protocol designed for Wireless LAN products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

CCTV

A

Closed Circuit Television

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CERT

A

Computer Emergency Response Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CIRT

A

Computer Incident Response Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CFB

A

Cipher Feedback

When a mode of operation uses the ciphertext from the previous block in the chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CHAP

A

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol

  • Authenticates a user or network host to an authenticating entity
  • Provides protection against replay attacks
  • Requires that both the client and server know the plaintext of the secret, but it’s never sent over the network
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CIO

A

Chief Information Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CTO

A

Chief Technology Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

CSO

A

Chief Security Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

CIS

A

Center of Internet Security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CMS

A

Content Management System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

COOP

A

Continuity of Operation Planning

Effort for agencies to make sure they can continue operations during a wide range of emergencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

COPE

A

Corporate Owned Personal Enabled

Organization provides its employees with mobile computing devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

CP

A

Contingency Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CRC

A

Cyclical Redundancy Check

Used to detect accidental changes in digital networks and storage devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

CRL

A

Certificate Revocation List

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

CSP

A

Cloud Service Provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

CSR

A

Certificate Signing Request

  • Contains information that the Certificate Authority (CA) will use to create your certificate
  • Contains the public key for which the certificate should be issued, and other identifying information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

CSRF

A

Cross Site Request Forgery

Unauthorized actions are performed on behalf of a legitimate user

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

CSU

A

Channel Service Unit

Device used for digital links to transfer data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

CTM

A

Counter Mode

  • Converts a block cipher into a stream cipher
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

CVE

A

Common Vulnerabilities Exposure

List of publicly disclosed computer security flaws

These security flaws get assigned a CVE ID number which people can use to reference them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

CVSS

A

Common Vulnerability Scoring System

Public framework used to rate the severity of security vulnerabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

CYOD

A

Choose your own device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

DAC

A

Directory Access Control

Restriction of access based upon the identity of subjects and the groups they belong to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

DBA

A

Database Administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

DEP

A

Data Exclusion Prevention

  • Microsoft security feature
  • Monitor and protects pages or regions of memory
  • Prevents data regions from executing (potentially malicious) code
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

DER

A

Distinguished Encoding Rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

DES

A

Digital Encryption Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

DHE

A

Diffe Hellman Ephemeral

Way of securely exchanging cryptographic keys over public channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

DKIM

A

Domain Key Identified Mail

Email authentication technique - applies signatures by the mail server of the sender’s domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

DLL

A

Dynamic Link Library

  • Library that contains code and data that can be used by programs to function in Windows
  • DLL injections can run malicious code within an application by exploiting DLLs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

DMARC

A

Domain Message Authentication Reporting and Conformance

  • Authenticates emails with SPF and DKIM
  • Used to prevent phishing and spoofing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

DNAT

A

Destination Network Address Transcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

DPO

A

Data Privacy Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

DRP

A

Disaster Recovery Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

DSA

A

Digital Signature Algorithm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

EAP

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol

Authentication framework used in LAN’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

ECB

A

Electronic Code Book

Doesn’t hide data patterns well, so it wouldn’t work to encrypt images for example

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

ECC

A

Elliptic Curve Cryptography

Good for mobile devices because it can use smaller keys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ECDHE

A

(Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

ECDSA

A

Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

EDR

A

Endpoint Detection and Response

Technology that continuously monitors endpoints to mitigate cyber threats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

EFS

A

Encrypted File System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

EOL

A

End of Life

Date set where manufacturer will no longer create the product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

EOS

A

End of Service

Original manufacturer no longer offers updates, support, or service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

ERP

A

Enterprise Resource Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

ESN

A

Electronic Serial Number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ESP

A

Encapsulated Security Payload

  • Member of IPsec set of protocols
  • Encrypts and authenticates packets of data between computers using VPNs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

FACL

A

File System Access Control List

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

FDE

A

Full Disk Encryption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

FPGA

A

FPGA (Field Programmable Gate Array)

Integrated circuit designed to be configured by a customer or designer after manufacturing

87
Q

FRR

A

False Rejection Rate

Likelihood that a biometric security system will incorrectly reject an access attempt by an authorized user

88
Q

GCM

A

Galois Counter Mode

  • High speeds with low cost and low latency
  • Provides authenticated encryption
89
Q

GPO

A

Group Policy Object

  • Contains two nodes: a user configuration and computer configuration
  • Collection of group policy settings
90
Q

GRE

A

Generic Routing Encapsulation

Tunneling Protocol

91
Q

HA

A

High Availability

92
Q

HIDS

A

Host-Based Intrusion Detection System

93
Q

HIPS

A

Host-Based Prevention Detection System

94
Q

HMAC

A

Hashed Message Authentication Code

combines shared secret key with hashing

95
Q

HOTP

A

HMAC based One Time Password

  • One-time password algorithm based on hash-based message authentication codes
96
Q

HSM

A

Hardware Security Module

97
Q

ICS

A

Industrial Control System

98
Q

IDEA

A

International Data Encryption Algorithm

99
Q

IDF

A

Intermediate Distribution Frame

Cable rack in a central office that cross connects and manages IT or telecom cabling between a main distribution frame (MDF) and remote workstation devices

100
Q

IdP

A

Identity Provider

Service that stores and manages digital identities

101
Q

IEEE

A

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers

102
Q

IKE

A

Internet Key Exchange

103
Q

IoC

A

Indicators of Compromise

104
Q

IR

A

Incident Response

105
Q

IRP

A

Incident Response Plan

106
Q

ISO

A

International Organization for Standardization

107
Q

ISSO

A

Information Systems Security Officer

108
Q

ITCP

A

IT Contingency Plan

109
Q

IV

A

Initialization Vector

  • Used in cryptography is an input to a cryptographic primitive
  • Used to provide the initial state
110
Q

KDC

A

Key Distribution Center

  • Used to reduce risks in exchanging keys
  • A user requests to use a service. The KDC will use cryptographic techniques to authenticate requesting users as themselves, and it will check whether a user has the right to access the service requested
111
Q

KEK

A

Key Encryption Key

112
Q

LEAP

A

Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol

  • Wireless LAN authentication method
  • Dynamic WEP keys and mutual authentication (b/t a wireless client and a RADIUS server)
113
Q

MaaS

A

Monitoring as a Service

114
Q

MAC

A

Mandatory Access Control

115
Q

MAM

A

Mobile Application Management

116
Q

MAN

A

Metropolitan Area Network

117
Q

MBR

A

Master Boot Record

  • Special type of boot sector at the very beginning of partitioned storage
  • Holds information about how logical partitions are organized
118
Q

MDM

A

Mobile Device Management

119
Q

MFD

A

Multi Function Device

120
Q

MFP

A

Multi Function Printer

121
Q

MITM

A

Man in the Middle

122
Q

MMS

A

Multimedia Message Service

123
Q

MOA

A

Memorandum of Agreement

Legally-binding agreement between two parties

124
Q

MOU

A

Memorandum of Understanding

  • Non-legally binding agreement
  • Used to signal willingness between parties to move forward with a contract
125
Q

MPLS

A

Multi-Protocol Label Switching

Routing technique to direct data from one note to the next based on the short path labels

126
Q

MSA

A

Measurement Systems Analysis

Mathematical method of determining the amount of variation that exists within a measurement process

127
Q

MSCHAP

A

Microsoft Challenge Handshake

128
Q

MSP

A

Managed Service Provider

129
Q

MSSP

A

Managed Security Service Provider

130
Q

MTBF

A

Mean Time Between Failures

131
Q

MTTF

A

Mean Time To Failure

132
Q

MTTR

A

Mean Time To Recover

133
Q

MTU

A

Maximum Transmission Unit

Largest packet or frame size that can be sent in a packet or frame-based network such as the Internet

134
Q

NAC

A

Network Access Control

135
Q

NAS

A

Network Attached Storage

136
Q

NAT

A

Network Address Translation

137
Q

NFC

A

Near Filed Communication

138
Q

NFV

A

Network Functions Virtualization

Virtualizes entire classes of network node functions into building blocks

139
Q

NIC

A

Network Interface Card

140
Q

NIDS

A

Network Based Intrusion Detection System

141
Q

NIPS

A

Network Based Intrusion Prevention System

142
Q

NTFS

A

New Technology File System

143
Q

NTLM

A

New Technology LAN Manager

144
Q

NTP

A

Network Time Protocol

port 123 udp

145
Q

OAUTH

A

Open Authorization

146
Q

OCSP

A

Online Certificate Status Protocol

Used by CAs to check the revocation status of an X.509 digital certificate

147
Q

OID

A

Object Identifier

148
Q

OSI

A

Open Systems Interconnection

149
Q

OSINT

A

Open Source Intelligence

150
Q

OSPF

A

Open Shortest Path First

151
Q

OT

A

Operational Technology

152
Q

OTA

A

Over the air

153
Q

OTG

A

On the go

154
Q

OVAL

A

Open Vulnerability Assessment Language

155
Q

OWASP

A

Open Web Application Security Project

156
Q

P2P

A

peer to peer

157
Q

PAC

A

Proxy Auto Configuration

  • Used to define how web browsers and other user agents can automatically choose the appropriate proxy server for fetching URLs
  • Contains a JavaScript function that returns a string with one or more access method specifications
158
Q

PAM

A

Privileged Access Management

159
Q

PAP

A

Password Authentication Protocol

160
Q

PBKDF2

A

Password Based Key Derivative Function 2

  • Key derivation functions with a sliding computation cost, which is used to reduce vulnerabilities of brute-force attacks
  • Applies a pseudorandom function (like HMAC) to the input password along with a salt value, and repeats this process multiple times to produce a derived key
161
Q

PBX

A

Private Branch Exchange

162
Q

PDU

A

Power Distribution Unit

163
Q

PEAP

A

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol

164
Q

PED

A

Personal Electronic Device

165
Q

PEM

A

Privacy enhance mail

166
Q

PFS

A

Perfect Forward Security

Feature of specific key agreement protocols that give assurances that session keys will not be compromised, even if long-term secrets used in the session key exchange are compromised

167
Q

PHI

A

Personal Health Information

168
Q

PII

A

Personal Identity Information

169
Q

PKI

A

Public Key Infrastructure

170
Q

PSK

A

Pre Shared Key

171
Q

QoS

A

Quality of Service

172
Q

PUP

A

Potentially Unwanted Program

173
Q

RA

A

Recovery Agent

174
Q

RAD

A

Rapid Application Development

175
Q

RAS

A

Remote Access Server

176
Q

RAT

A

Remote Access Trojan

177
Q

RBAC

A

Role Based Access Control

178
Q

RPO

A

Recovery Point Objective

The maximum amount of data (measured by time) that can be lost after a recovery from a disaster or failure

179
Q

RTBH

A

Remote Triggered Black Hole

  • Can be used to drop traffic before it enters a protected network
  • A common use is to mitigate DDoS
180
Q

RTOS

A

Real Time Operating System

181
Q

RTP

A

Real Time Transport Protocol

182
Q

SAE

A

Simultaneous Authentication of Equals

Secure password-based authentication and password-authenticated key agreement method

183
Q

SAML

A

Security Assertions Markup Language

  • XML-based markup language for security assertions
  • Allows an IdP to authenticate users and then pass an auth token to another application (service provider)
184
Q

SAN

A

Storage Area Network

185
Q

SCADA

A

System Control and Data Acquisition

186
Q

SCEP

A

Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

Makes the request and issuing of digital certificates as simple as possible

187
Q

SDN

A

Software Defined Networking

Makes networking a bit more like cloud computing than traditional network management by defining network technology via software

188
Q

SED

A

Self Encrypting Drives

189
Q

SEH

A

Structured Exception Handler

190
Q

SLE

A

Single Loss Expectancy

191
Q

SOAP

A

Simple Object Access Protocol

192
Q

SoC

A

System on a chip

193
Q

STP

A

Shield Twisted Pair

194
Q

TTP

A

tactics techniques procedures

195
Q

UAT

A

user acceptance testing

Last phase of the software testing process

196
Q

UEFI

A

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface

197
Q

UPS

A

uninterruptible power supply

198
Q

URI

A

Uniform Resource Identifier

199
Q

URL

A

Uniform Resource Locator

200
Q

UTM

A

Unified Threat Management

  • When a single hardware or software provides multiple security functions
  • This is in contrast of having individual solutions for each security function
201
Q

UTP

A

unshielded twisted pair

202
Q

VDE

A

Virtual Desktop Environment

203
Q

VDI

A

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

204
Q

VLSM

A

Variable Length Subnet Masking

205
Q

VTC

A

Virtual Teleconferencing

206
Q

WAF

A

Web Application Firewall

207
Q

WAP

A

Wireless Access Point

208
Q

WEP

A

Wired Equivalent Privacy

209
Q

WIDS

A

Wireless Intrusion Detection System

210
Q

WORM

A

write once read many

Data storage device where information, once written, can’t be modified

211
Q

WPS

A

WiFi Protected Setup

212
Q

XSRF

A

Cross site request forgery

213
Q

X.509

A

Standard for defining the format of public key sharing