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CompTIA+ > Acronymns > Flashcards

Acronymns Flashcards

1
Q

aaS

A

(Something as a Service)

An ownership model for cloud services where the “something” can refer to infrastructure, network, platform, or software.

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2
Q

AC (power)

A

(alternating current)

When electricity is produced by a generator at the power station, the rotational movement of the magnetic coils causes the current produced to oscillate like a sinewave (it is said to alternate). Computers require direct current (at a constant voltage). A transformer is used to convert AC from the power outlet into the 3.3, 5, and 12 V DC supply required by the computer.

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3
Q

ACL

A

(Access Control List)

The permissions attached to or configured on a network resource, such as folder, file, or firewall. The ACL specifies which subjects (user accounts, host IP addresses, and so on)are allowed or denied access and the privileges given over the object (read only, read/write, and so on).

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4
Q

ADF

A

(Automatic Document Feeder)

Device that feeds media automatically into a scanner or printer.

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5
Q

ADSL

A

(Asymmetrical DSL)

A consumer version of DSL that provides a fast downlink but a slow uplink. The upstream rate is between64 Kbps and 1 Mbps and the downstream rate it 500 Kbps to 8 Mbps.

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6
Q

AES

A

(Advanced Encryption Standard)

Modern encryption suite providing symmetric encryption (the same key is used to encrypt and decrypt). AES is a very strong cipher with many applications, including being part of the WPA2 Wi-Fi encryption scheme.

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7
Q

AFP

A

(Apple Filing Protocol)

Protocol supporting file sharing on macOS networks. AFP works over TCP port 548.

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8
Q

AHCI

A

(Advanced Host Controller Interface)

A logical interface used by SATA drives to communicate with the bus.

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9
Q

ALU

A

(Arithmetic Logic Unit)

A circuit in the CPU that performs integer-based calculations and performs bit-wise logical calculations.

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10
Q

AP

A

(Access Point)

A device that provides connectivity between wireless devices and a cabled network. APs with Internet connectivity located in public buildings(cafes, libraries, and airports, for instance)are often referred to as hotspots.

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11
Q

APIPA

A

(Automatic Private IP Addressing)

A means for Windows clients configured to obtain an address automatically that could not contact a DHCP server to communicate on the local subnet. The host randomly selects an address from the range169.254.x.y. This is also called a link-local address.

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12
Q

AR

A

(augmented reality)

Using software and smartphone cameras or headsets to interact with real-world objects and images or change the way they appear in some way.

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13
Q

ARP

A

(Address Resolution Protocol)

When two systems communicate using IP, an IP address is used to identify the destination machine. The IP address must be mapped to a device (the network adapter’s MAC address). ARP performs the task of resolving an IP address to a hardware address. Each host caches known mappings in an ARP table for a few minutes. It is also a utility used to manage the ARP cache.

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14
Q

ASF

A

(AutoSheet Feeder)

In an inkjet printer, the paper pickup mechanism to feed paper into the printer.

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15
Q

BD

A

(Blu-ray Disc)

The latest generation of optical disc technology that uses a 405 mm blue laser for high density storage, with disc capacity of 25 GB per layer. Transfer rates are measured in multiples of 36MBps.

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16
Q

BIOS

A

(Basic Input/Output System)

Firmware that contains programs and information relating to the basic operation of PC components such as drives, keyboard, video display, and ports. It also contains specific routines to allow set-up configuration to be viewed and edited and it contains the self-diagnostic Power-On Self-Test (POST) program used to detect fundamental faults in PC components. BIOS can also be used to secure components not protected by the OS by specifying a supervisor password (to prevent tampering with BIOS settings) and a user password (to boot the PC).

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17
Q

BLE

A

(Bluetooth Low Energy)

A radio-based technology designed for small battery-powered devices that transmit small amounts of data infrequently. BLE is not backwards-compatible with “classic” Bluetooth, though a device can support both standards simultaneously.

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18
Q

BRI

A

(Basic Rate Interface)

A class of ISDN service that provides two 64 Kbps (B channels) for data and one 16 Kbps (D channel) for link management control signals

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19
Q

BSSID

A

(Basic Service Set Identifier)

The MAC address of the access point.

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20
Q

CAD

A

(Computer-Aided Design)

Software that makes technical drawings and schematics easier to produce and revise.

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21
Q

CAM

A

(Computer Aided Manufacturing)

Software that can control machine tools found in manufacturing environments.

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22
Q

CAN

A

(Campus area network)

A network that spans multiple nearby buildings.

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23
Q

CATV

A

(Cable Access TV)

Access to television stations over a coaxial cable connected to a TV, set-top box, or computer.

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24
Q

CCD

A

(Charge Coupled Device)

A type of microchip widely used as a digital image sensor. Each element in a CCD converts light captured by a photodiode into a proportional electric charge, which is then amplified, sampled, and stored as a digital value. The number of elements determines the resolution.

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25
Q

CCFL

A

(Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp)

A type of lamp providing a bright, clear light source. CCFLs are used for LCD backlights and scanners.

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26
Q

CD-ROM

A

(Compact Disc - Read Only Memory)

An optical storage technology. The discs can normally hold 700 MB of data or 80minutes of audio data. Recordable and re-writable CDs (and DVDs) are a popular backup solution for home users. They are also useful for archiving material. Unlike magnetic media, the data on the disc cannot be changed (assuming that the disc is closed to prevent further rewriting in the case of RW media). This makes them useful for preserving tamper-proof records.

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27
Q

CDMA

A

(Code Division Multiple Access)

Method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. CDMA is associated with Sprint and Verizon cellular phone networks.

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28
Q

CIFS

A

(Common Internet File System)

Another term for SMB.

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29
Q

CIS

A

(Contact Image Sensor)

A type of digital imaging sensor. An array of LEDs strobing between red, blue, and green light are used to illuminate an object. The reflected light is captured through a lens onto an image sensor.

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30
Q

CMOS

A

(complementary metal oxide semiconductor)

A type of integrated circuit with a wide range of applications, including static RAM (for firmware and flash memory) and imaging sensors.

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31
Q

CMP

A

(Chip-level MultiProcessing)

Multiple processors combined on the same die.

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32
Q

CMTS

A

(Cable Modem Termination System)

Equipment used by cable companies to allow computers to send and receive IP packets by inserting the packets into MPEG frames over an RF signal and reverses the process for data coming from a cable modem.

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33
Q

CMYK Color Model

A

(Cyan Magenta Yellow Key [Black] color model)

Subtractive color model used by print devices. CMYK printing involves use of halftone screens. Four screens (or layers) of dots printed in each of the colors are overlaid. The size and density of the dots on each layer produces different shades of color and is viewed as a continuous tone image.

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34
Q

COM port

A

(communications port)

Windows’ representation of a computer’s serial port(s), numbered sequentially (COM1,COM2…).

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35
Q

CPU

A

(Central Processing Unit)

The principal microprocessor in a computer or smartphone responsible for running operating system and applications software.

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36
Q

CRM

A

(Customer Relationship Management)

Software designed to manage an organization’s customer (and potential customer) relationships and interactions.

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37
Q

CSV

A

(Comma Separated Values)

A file format in which data is stored using commas or another character to separate fields in the data. Typically, data has been exported from a spreadsheet or a database.

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38
Q

DAC

A

(Digital-to-Analog Converter)

A sound card component that converts the digital signals generated by the CPU to an analog electrical signal that can drive the speakers.

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39
Q

DC (power)

A

(direct current)

PCs and most computer components function by using power supplied in the form of direct current. This is normally at low voltage and is produced by stepping down the voltage from the building supply. Direct current, unlike alternating current, does not oscillate between positive and negative states.

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40
Q

DDR SDRAM

A

(Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory)

A standard for SDRAM where data is transferred twice per clock cycle (making the maximum data rate 64x the bus speed in bps). DDR2/DDR3/DDR4 SDRAM uses lower voltage chips and higher bus speeds.

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41
Q

DHCP Server

A

(Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol server)

A networking service that allows a client to request an appropriate IP configuration from a server. The server is configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address, based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. It is important to monitor the network to ensure that only valid DHCP servers are running on the network.

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42
Q

DIMM

A

(Dual In-line Memory Module)

The standard packaging for system memory. There are different pin configurations for different RAM types (DDR SDRAM [184],DDR2/3 SDRAM [240], and DDR4 SDRAM[288]).

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43
Q

DLP (video)

A

(Digital Light Processing)

Mirror-based projector technology developed by Texas Instruments.

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44
Q

DMZ

A

(Demilitarized Zone)

A private network connected to the Internet must be protected against intrusion from the Internet. However, certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (web and email, for instance).One solution is to put such servers in a DMZ. The idea of a DMZ is that traffic cannot pass through it. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a DMZ, a host within the DMZ acts as a proxy. It takes the request and checks it. If the request is valid, it re-transmits it to the destination. External hosts have no idea about what (if anything) is behind the DMZ. A DMZ is implemented using either two firewalls (screened subnet) or a single three-legged firewall (one with three network ports).

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45
Q

DNS

A

(Domain Name System)

A network service that provides names to IP address mapping services on the Internet and large intranets. DNS name servers host the database for domains for which they are authoritative. Root servers hold details of the top-level domains. DNS resolvers perform queries or lookups to service client requests. The DNS protocol utilizes TCP/UDP port 53.

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46
Q

DOCSIS

A

(Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification)

A global telecommunications standard that enables data to be sent over cable modems in a CATV system.

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47
Q

DoS

A

(Denial of Service)

A network attack that aims to disrupt a service, usually by overloading it.

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48
Q

DRAM

A

(Dynamic Random Access Memory)

A type of volatile memory that stores each bit of data as a charge within a single transistor. Each transistor must be refreshed periodically. Standard DRAM is the lowest common denominator of the DRAM types. Modern PCs use a DRAM derivative to store data (Double Data Rate SDRAM).

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49
Q

DSL

A

(Digital Subscriber Line)

A technology for transferring data over voice-grade telephone lines. DSL uses the higher frequencies available in a copper telephone line as a communications channel. The use of a filter prevents this from contaminating voice traffic with noise. There are various “flavors” of DSL, notably S(ymmetric)DSL, A(symmetric)DSL, and V(ery HIgh Bit Rate)DSL.

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50
Q

DSLAM

A

(DSL Access Multiplier)

A network device at the telecommunications central office that connects subscribers with the Internet.

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51
Q

DSLR

A

(Digital Single Lens Reflex)

A digital camera that replicates the features of compact35mm film cameras, preserving the traditional viewfinder method of picture composition and supporting replaceable lenses and manual adjustments.

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52
Q

DSP chip

A

(Digital Signal Processor chip)

The basis of a sound card containing one or more DACs. It also provides functions for playing digital sound (synthesis) and driving MIDI compatible devices.

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53
Q

DTLS

A

(Datagram Transport Layer Security)

TLS used with UDP applications, such as some VPN solutions.

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54
Q

DTP

A

(DeskTop Publishing)

An application similar to word processing but with more emphasis on the formatting and layout of documents than on editing the text.

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55
Q

DVD

A

(Digital Video/Versatile Disk)

An optical storage technology. DVDs offer higher capacities (4.7 GB per layer) than the preceding CD-ROM format. As with CDs, recordable and re-writable forms of DVD exist, though there are numerous competing formats (notably ±R and ±RW and DVD-RAM).

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56
Q

DVI

A

(Digital Video Interface)

A video adapter designed to replace the VGA port used by CRT monitors. The DVI interface supports digital only or digital and analog signaling.

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57
Q

e-ink

A

(electrophoretic ink)

Micro-encapsulated black and white particles, electronically manipulated to create images and text on an e-reader.

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58
Q

EAP

A

(Extensible Authentication Protocol)

Framework for negotiating authentication methods, supporting a range of authentication devices. EAP-TLS uses PKI certificates, Protected EAP (PEAP) creates a TLS-protected tunnel between the supplicant and authenticator to secure the user authentication method, and Lightweight EAP (LEAP) is a password-based mechanism used by Cisco.

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59
Q

EAS

A

(Exchange ActiveSync)

Microsoft’s synchronization protocol that enables mobile devices to connect to an Exchange Server to access mail, calendar, and contacts.

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60
Q

ECC

A

(Error Checking and Correcting [or Error Correcting Code])

System memory (RAM) with built-in error correction security. It is more expensive than normal memory and requires motherboard support. It is typically only used in servers.

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61
Q

EDR

A

(Enhanced Data Rate)

An option in the Bluetooth specification that allows faster data rates and potentially better battery life.

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62
Q

EIR database

A

(Equipment Identity Register database)

A database where IMEI numbers are stored. A lost or stolen device IMEI is marked as invalid.

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63
Q

EMF

A

(Enhanced MetaFile)

When using EMF, the software application and GDI quickly produce a partial print job. Control is then released back to the user while spooling continues in the background (GDI and the print driver are called to complete the processing of the job).

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64
Q

EP drum

A

(Electrostatic Photographic drum)

The component in a laser printer that carries the electrical charge to attract toner and then to transfer the toner to the paper.

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65
Q

EPD

A

(Electronic Paper Display)

A low-power display using e-ink to create a display that mimics the look of text on paper without using a backlight or glossy surface.

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66
Q

EPS specification

A

(Entry-level Power Supply specification)

8-pin +12 V connectors developed initially for server-class hardware.

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67
Q

EPT

A

(Extended Page Table)

The term used for SLAT extensions by Intel.

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68
Q

eSATA

A

(external Serial Advanced Technology Attachment)

An external interface for SATA connections, enabling you to connect external SATA drives to PCs.

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69
Q

ESD

A

(electrostatic discharge)

The release of a charge from a metal or plastic surface that occurs when a potential difference is formed between the charged object and an oppositely charged conductive object. This electrical discharge can damage silicon chips and computer components if they are exposed to it.

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70
Q

FDE

A

(full disk encryption)

Encryption of all data on a disk (including system files, temporary files, and the page file) can be accomplished via a supported OS, third-party software, or at the controller level by the disk device itself. Used with a strong authentication method, this mitigates against data theft in the event that the device is lost or stolen. The key used to encrypt the disk can either be stored on a USB stick or smart card or in a Trusted Platform Module.

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71
Q

FDM (3D Printer)

A

(fused deposition modeling)

See FFF.

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72
Q

FFF (3D Printer)

A

(fused filament fabrication)

A 3D printing method which lays down each layer of filament at high temperature, and as layers are extruded, adjacent layers are allowed to cool and bond together before additional layers are added to the object.

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73
Q

FPU

A

(Floating Point Unit)

A math co-processor built into the CPU that performs calculations on floating point numbers.

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74
Q

FQDN

A

(Fully Qualified Domain Name)

The full name of any host which reflects the hierarchy from most specific (the host) to the least specific (the top level domain followed by the root).

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75
Q

FRU

A

(field replaceable unit)

An adapter or other component that can be replaced by a technician on-site. Most PC and laptop components are FRUs, while the components of smartphones are not.

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76
Q

FTP

A

(File Transfer Protocol)

A protocol used to transfer files across the Internet. Variants include S(ecure)FTP, FTP with SSL (FTPS and FTPES), and T(rivial)FTP. FTP utilizes ports 20 and 21.

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77
Q

FTTC

A

(Fiber to the Curb/Cabinet)

A fiber optic solution which places the connection on a pole or cabinet at the curb, then coax or twisted pair cables carry the signal from this point to the home or business.

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78
Q

FTTH

A

(Fiber to the Home)

A fiber optic solution which places the connection inside the home or residence.

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79
Q

FTTN

A

(Fiber to the Node)

A fiber optic solution which places the connection within one mile of customers with the final connections made using existing phone or cable lines.

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80
Q

FTTP

A

(Fiber to the Premises)

A fiber optic solution which places the connection inside the premises.

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81
Q

GDI

A

(Graphics Device Interface)

The Windows XP component responsible for drawing graphics objects. Cheaper printers use GDI as the print processor. Windows Vista and later have a redesigned display/print architecture called Windows Presentation Foundation, but retain compatibility with GDI applications.

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82
Q

GP registers

A

(General Purpose registers)

Registers that store data from the CPU’s basic instruction set. 32-bit processors have 32-bit GP registers for the x86/IA-32 instruction set;64-bit processors are so-called because they have 64-bit GP registers. CPUs also support larger registers to optimize graphics processing.

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83
Q

GPS

A

(Global Positioning System)

Means of determining a receiver’s position on the Earth based on information received from GPS satellites. The receiver must have line-of-sight to the GPS satellites.

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84
Q

GPT

A

(GUID Partition Table)

A modern disk partitioning system allowing large large numbers of partitions and very large partition sizes

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85
Q

GPU

A

(Graphics Processing Unit)

A Type of microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability.

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86
Q

GSM

A

(Global System for Mobile Communication)

Standard for cellular radiocommunications and data transfer. GSM phones use a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. 4G and later data standards are developed for GSM.

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87
Q

HAV

A

(Hardware Assisted Virtualization)

Instruction set extensions (Intel VT-x and AMD-V) that facilitate the operation of virtual machines.

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88
Q

HBA

A

(host bus adapter)

A component allowing storage devices to exchange data with a computer system using a particular interface (PATA, SATA, SCSI, and so on). Motherboards will come with built-in host adapters and more can be added as expansion cards if necessary.

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89
Q

HDD

A

(Hard Disk Drive)

A device providing persistent mass storage for a PC (saving data when the computer is turned off).Data is stored using platters with a magnetic coating that are spun under disk heads that can read and write to locations on each platter (sectors). A HDD installed within a PC is referred to as the fixed disk. HDDs are often used with enclosures as portable storage or as Network Attached Storage (NAS).

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90
Q

HDMI

A

(High Definition Multimedia Interface)

High-specification digital connector for audio-video equipment.

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91
Q

HFC Cable

A

(Hybrid Fiber Coax cable)

A cable Internet connection is usually available along with a cable telephone/television service (Cable Access TV [CATV]). These networks are often described as Hybrid Fiber Coax (HFC)as they combine a fiber optic core network with coax links to consumer premises equipment, but are more simply just described as “cable.” Consumers interface with the service via a cable “modem”(actually functioning more like a bridge).

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92
Q

HIDs

A

(Human Interface Devices)

Peripherals that enable the user to enter data and select commands.

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93
Q

HT

A

(HyperThreading)

Intel CPU architecture implemented on many Pentium 4 models.HT exposes two or more logical processors to the OS, delivering performance benefits similar to SMP.

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94
Q

HTPC

A

(Home Theater PC)

A PC used in place of consumer appliances such as Personal Video Recorders (PVRs) to watch and record TV broadcasts and play movies and music.

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95
Q

HTT

A

(HyperThreading technology)

Intel’s term for HyperThreading.

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96
Q

HTTP

A

(HyperText Transfer Protocol)

The protocol used to provide web content to browsers. HTTP uses port 80. HTTPS(ecure) provides for encrypted transfers, using SSL/TLS and port 443.

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97
Q

HTTPS

A

(HTTP Secure)

A protocol that provides for encrypted transfers, using SSL/TLS and port 443.

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98
Q

HVAC

A

(Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning)

The building environmental heating and cooling services and the control of those systems.

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99
Q

I/O addresses

A

(Input/Output addresses)

Input/output peripherals have a special area of memory in the range 0000-FFFF set aside to allow data reading and writing functions. This is normally configured by Plug-and-Play but can be set manually using Device Manager.

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100
Q

IaaS

A

(Infrastructure as a Service)

A cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

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101
Q

IC

A

(integrated circuit)

A silicon chip embedded on a ceramic plate.

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102
Q

ICMP

A

(Internet Control Message Protocol)

IP-level protocol for reporting errors and status information supporting the function of troubleshooting utilities such as ping.

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103
Q

IDE

A

(Integrated Development Environment)

A programming environment that typically includes a code editor containing an autocomplete feature to help you write code, a debugger to help you find coding errors, and an interpreter that translates the script file code into machine readable code the computer can execute.

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104
Q

IDS

A

(Intrusion Detection System)

Software or security appliance designed to monitor network traffic (NIDS) or configuration files and logs on a host (HIDS) to record and detect unusual activity. Many systems can automatically take preventive action(Intrusion Prevention System [IPS]).Detection is either signature-based or anomaly-based (or both). IDS software typically requires a lengthy period of configuration and “training” to recognize baseline “normal” activity.

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105
Q

IMAP

A

(Internet Message Access Protocol)

ATCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. IMAP4 utilizes TCP port number 143.

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106
Q

IMEI number

A

(International Mobile Equipment Identity number)

A number that uniquely identifies a mobile device on a GSM network.

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107
Q

IMSI number

A

(International Mobile Subscriber Identity number)

A number that uniquely identifies a mobile subscriber.

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108
Q

IoT

A

(Internet of Things)

The global network of personal devices (such as phones, tablets, and fitness trackers), home appliances, home control systems, vehicles, and other items that have been equipped with sensors, software, and network connectivity.

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109
Q

IP

A

(Internet Protocol)

The network (Internet)layer protocol in the TCP/IP suite providing packet addressing and routing for all higher level protocols in the suite.

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110
Q

IP scale

A

(ingress protection scale)

An international standard to determine how well electrical enclosures are sealed against dust, water, moisture, and other intrusive materials from entering the enclosure. The ratings scale is defined in the BritishEN60529:1992 and European IEC60509:1989 standards.

111
Q

IPS (In…)

A

(in-plane switching)

An LCD panel technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction.

112
Q

IPS (Intrusion…)

A

(Intrusion Protection System)

Systems that can automatically take preventive action using signature-based or anomaly-based detection. Also known as network IDS(NIDS).

113
Q

IPS (Indoor…)

A

(Indoor Positioning Systems)

A system that works out a device’s location by triangulating its proximity to other radio sources, such as Wi-Fi access points or Bluetooth beacons.

114
Q

IPSec

A

(Internet Protocol Security)

Layer 3protocol suite providing security for TCP/IP. It can be used in two modes(transport, where only the data payload is encrypted, and tunnel, where the entire IP packet is encrypted and a new IP header added). IPsec can provide confidentiality and/or integrity. Encryption can be applied using a number of hash (MD5 or SHA) and symmetric (DES or AES) algorithms. Key exchange and security associations are handled by the Internet Key Exchange Protocol. Hosts can be authenticated by a shared secret, PKI, or Kerberos.

115
Q

IR

A

(Infrared)

Infrared Data Association (IrDA)was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps. Infrared (IR) sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances.

116
Q

IRQ

A

(Interrupt Request)

A communications channel between a hardware device and the system processor. Originally, when hardware was added to the computer it had to be manually configured with a unique interrupt number (between 0 and15). Plug-and-Play compatible systems configure resources automatically. The PCI bus introduced IRQ steering, which allowed IRQs to be shared. Modern computers use programmable interrupt controllers, allowing for hundreds of interrupts.

117
Q

ISDN

A

(Integrated Services Digital Network)

A digital phone/fax/data service used to provide Internet connectivity. There are two classes of ISDN: Basic Rate Interface(BRI) provides two 64 Kbps (B channels) for data and one 16 Kbps (D channel) for link management control signals; Primary Rate Interface (PRI) provides either T1 or E1capacity levels (23B or 30B) channels, depending on location in the world, and one 64 Kbps D channel.

118
Q

ISP

A

(Internet Service Provider)

An organization that provides a connection to the Internet and other web- and email-related services. A connection to the ISP’s Internet routing equipment can be made using a variety of methods.

119
Q

IXPs

A

(Internet eXchange Points)

High bandwidth trunks that connect to the Internet backbone.

120
Q

KVM switch

A

(Keyboard Video Mouse switch)

A switch supporting a single set of input and output devices controlling a number of PCs. KVM are more typically used with servers but 2-port versions allow a single keyboard, mouse, and display to be used with two PCs.

121
Q

LAN

A

(Local Area Network)

A network in which all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media.

122
Q

LC

A

(Lucent Connector)

Small Form Factor version of the SC push-pull fiber optic connector; available in simplex and duplex versions.

123
Q

LCD panel

A

(Liquid Crystal Display panel)

A display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen.

124
Q

LDAP

A

(Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

Standard for accessing and updating information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389.Unless secure communications are used, LDAP is vulnerable to packet sniffing and Man-in-the-Middle attacks. It is also usually necessary to configure user permissions on the directory. LDAP version 3 supports simple authentication or Simple Authentication and Security Layer, which integrates it with Kerberos or TLS.

125
Q

LED

A

(Light Emitting Diode)

Small, low-power lamps used both as diagnostic indicators, LCD backlights, and (as Organic LEDs) in high-quality flat panels.

126
Q

LED printer

A

(light emitting diode printer)

A type of printer that uses LEDs to print.

127
Q

LGA

A

(Land Grid Array)

A CPU form factor used by Intel where the pins that connect the CPU and socket are located on the socket.

128
Q

LoS

A

(Line of Sight)

A wireless connection method using ground-based microwave antennas aligned with one another.

129
Q

LTE

A

(Long Term Evolution)

A packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM andCDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE Advanced is designed to provide 4Gstandard network access.

130
Q

LTE-A

A

(LTE Advanced)

LTE Advanced is designed to provide 4G standard network access

131
Q

MBR

A

(Master Boot Record)

A sector on a hard disk storing information about partitions configured on the disk.

132
Q

MDM

A

(Mobile Device Management)

Software suites designed to manage use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise.

133
Q

MEID

A

(Mobile Equipment ID)

A number that uniquely identifies a mobile device on a CDMA network.

134
Q

MFD

A

(multifunction device)

Any device that performs more than one function. This typically refers to either SOHO Internet routers/access points or print devices that can also scan and fax.

135
Q

MIB

A

(Management Information Base)

A database used by SNMP in which agents maintain configuration and usage data and identifies what information the managed system offers.

136
Q

MIDI

A

(Musical Instrument Digital Interface)

Allows a computer with a sound card to drive MIDI compatible musical instruments, such as synthesizers, samplers, and drum machines (or [vice versa] for a synthesizer to drive a computer audio application [such as a sampler]).

137
Q

MIME

A

(Multi-purpose Internet Mail Extensions)

A protocol specifying Internet mail message formats and attachments.

138
Q

MIMO/MU-MIMO

A

(Multiple Input Multiple Output/Multiple User MIMO)

Wireless technology used in802.11n/ac and 4G standards. MIMO is the use of multiple reception and transmission antennas to boost bandwidth. A Multi-user MIMO (MU-MIMO)-capable access point can use separate streams to connect multiple MU-MIMO-capable stations simultaneously, providing the stations are not on the same directional path.

139
Q

MMF

A

(Multimode Fiber)

A category of fiber optic cable. Compared to SMF, MMF is cheaper(using LED optics rather than lasers), but supports shorter distances (up to about500 m).

140
Q

mobo

A

Motherboard

141
Q

modem

A

(modulator/demodulator)

A network device that is used to interface a computer with the telephone network for data and fax communications, modulating digital data for transmission as an analog signal and demodulating incoming analog transmissions. Broadband modems are used to transmit signals over telephone(DSL) or cable TV networks.

142
Q

MTBF

A

(Mean Time Between Failures)

The rating on a device or component that predicts the expected time between failures.

143
Q

NAPT

A

(Network Address Port Translation)

Similar to NAT, it (or PAT or NAT overloading)maps private host IP addresses onto a single public IP address. Each host is tracked by assigning it a random high TCP port for communications.

144
Q

NAS

A

(Network Attached Storage)

A storage device with an embedded OS that supports typical network file access protocols (TCP/IP and SMB, for instance).These may be subject to exploit attacks(though using an embedded OS is often thought of as more secure as it exposes a smaller attack “footprint”). The unauthorized connection of such devices to the network is also a concern.

145
Q

NAT

A

(Network Address Translation)

A network service provided by router or proxy server to map private local addresses to one or more publicly accessible IP addresses. NAT can use static mappings but is most commonly implemented as Network Address Port Translation (NAPT) or NAT overloading, where a few public IP addresses are mapped to multiple LAN hosts using port allocations.

146
Q

NetBT

A

(NetBIOS over TCP/IP)

NetBIOS that was re-engineered to work over the TCP and UDP protocols.

147
Q

NFC

A

(Near Field Communications)

A Standard for peer-to-peer (2-way) radiocommunications over very short (around4”) distances, facilitating contactless payment and similar technologies. NFC is based on RFID.

148
Q

NIC

A

(Network interface Card)

An expansion card that enables a PC to connect to a LAN. Also referred to as a network adapter.

149
Q

NIST

A

(National Institute of Standards and Technology)

Develops computer security standards used by US federal agencies and publishes cybersecurity best practice guides and research.

150
Q

NLA

A

(Network Level Authentication)

An RDP technology requiring users to authenticate before a server session is created.

151
Q

NVMe

A

(Non-volatile Memory Express)

An interface for connecting flash memory devices, such as SSDs, directly to a PCI Express bus. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI.

152
Q

NVMHCI

A

(Non-Volatile Memory Host Controller Interface specification)

A logical interface used by PCIe-based SSD drives to communicate with the bus.

153
Q

OCP

A

(Overcurrent Protection)

A power supply rail safety feature that cuts the circuit if the power exceeds a safe limit.

154
Q

OCR

A

(Optical Character Recognition)

Software that can identify the shapes of characters and digits to convert them from printed images to electronic data files that can be modified in a word processing program. Intelligent Character Recognition (ICR) is an advanced type of OCR, focusing on handwritten text.

155
Q

OLED display

A

(organic light emitting diode display)

A type of LED flat panel display device that uses organic compounds that emit light when subjected to an electric current.

156
Q

OSD

A

(on-screen display)

Display configuration menus that show up on the monitor and that you interact with by using buttons on the monitor case.

157
Q

OTP

A

(one time password)

A password that is generated for use in one specific session and becomes invalid after the session ends.

158
Q

PaaS

A

(Platform as a Service)

A cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes.

159
Q

PAN

A

(Personal Area Network)

Close range networking (usually based on Bluetooth or NFC) allowing communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, and printers/peripheral devices.

160
Q

PAT

A

(portable appliance testing)

In the UK, Australia, and New Zealand, the process for inspecting and testing electrical equipment to ensure its safety.

161
Q

PAT

A

(port address translation)

Another term for NAT overloading or NAPT.

162
Q

PATA

A

(Parallel Advanced Technology Attachment)

Used to be the main disk interface for PCs. The interface was very commonly called IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) or Enhanced IDE (EIDE). Each PATA adapter supports two devices, commonly called master and slave. A drive is connected to the bus by a 40-pin ribbon cable. The PATA interface has been replaced by SATA.

163
Q

PCI bus

A

(Peripheral Component Interconnect bus)

Introduced in 1995 with the Pentium processor, it connects the CPU, memory, and peripherals to a 32-bit working at 33MHz. PCI supports bus mastering, IRQ steering, and Plug-and-Play. Later versions defined 64-bit operation and 66 MHz clock but were not widely adopted on desktop PCs.

164
Q

PCIe

A

(PCI Express)

An expansion bus standard using serial communications. Each device on the bus can create a point-to-point link with the I/O controller or another device. The link comprises one or more lanes (x1,x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, or x32). Each lane supports a full-duplex transfer rate of 250MBps (v1.0), 500 MBps (v2.0), or 1 GBps(v3.0). The standard is software compatible with PCI, allowing for motherboards with both types of connectors.

165
Q

PDL

A

(page description language)

A high-level computer language used to describe the contents and the layout of the information to be printed on a page through PDL commands.

166
Q

PGA

A

(Pin Grid Array)

A CPU socket form factor where pins are located on the bottom of the processor to fit in the matching holes in the motherboard socket. PGA-type sockets are still used by AMD but Intel has switched to Land Grid Array (LGA), where the pins are located on the socket rather than the chip.

167
Q

PGP

A

(Pretty Good Privacy)

Email encryption product providing message confidentiality and integrity using web of trust PGP certificates.

168
Q

PoP

A

(Point of Presence)

The equipment that allows a location, facility, home, or other point-of-access to connect to the Internet.

169
Q

POP 3

A

(Post Office Protocol)

A TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. POP3 utilizes TCP port110.

170
Q

POST

A

(Power-On Self-Test)

A hardware checking routine built into the PC firmware. This test sequentially monitors the state of the memory chips, the processor, system clock, display, and firmware itself. Errors that occur within vital components such as these are signified by beep codes emitted by the internal speaker of the computer. Further tests are then performed and any errors displayed as on-screen error codes and messages.

171
Q

POTS

A

(Plain Old Telephone System)

Parts of a telephone network “local loop” using voice-grade cabling. Analog data transfer over POTS using dial-up modems is slow(33.3 Kbps). DSL technologies make better use of the bandwidth available, but are not accessible over all of the network.

172
Q

PPP

A

(Point-to-Point Protocol)

Dial-up protocol working at layer 2 (Data Link) used to connect devices remotely to networks. Often used to connect to an ISP’s routers and out to the Internet. PPPoE (PPP over Ethernet) or PPPoA (PPP over ATM) are used to provide broadband connections(over DSL or cable Internet, for instance).

173
Q

PPPoA

A

(PPP over ATM)

The PPP protocol is used with the ATM transport protocol by DSL providers.

174
Q

PPPoE

A

(PPP over Ethernet)

PPP packets are encapsulated within Ethernet frames for transport by DSL providers.

175
Q

PRI (Phones…)

A

(Preferred Roaming Index)

An index that works with the PRL to provide the best data/voice quality to a phone while roaming.

176
Q

PRI

A

(Primary Rate Interface)

A class of ISDN service that provides either T1 or E1capacity levels (23B or 30B) channels, depending on location in the world, and one 64 Kbps D channel.

177
Q

PRL

A

(Preferred Roaming List)

A database built by CDMA service carriers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower.

178
Q

PSE

A

(Power Sourcing Equipment)

Network switches that provide power through the Ethernet cable to connected devices.

179
Q

PSK

A

(Pre-shared Key)

Symmetric encryption technologies, such as those used for WEP, require both parties to use the same private key. This key must be kept a secret known only to those authorized to use the network. A pre-shared key is normally generated from a passphrase.

180
Q

PSTN

A

(Public Switched Telephone Network)

National telecommunications system shave evolved and combined over the years to create a global (and indeed extra-terrestrial) communications network This is referred to as the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) but it is capable of carrying more than simply voice-call services. The basis of PSTN is a circuit-switched network, but the infrastructure can also carry packet-switched data services.

181
Q

PSU

A

(Power Supply Unit)

Transformer that converts AC mains power into 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V DC to power components on the motherboard. The type of PSU must match the case and motherboard form factor.

182
Q

PVR

A

(personal video recorder)

Software installed on a home theater PC (HTPC) to record and watch TV broadcasts.

183
Q

QC

A

(Quick Charge)

A Qualcomm fast charging technology that also has a second chip for power management that allows higher wattage than is allowed by the USB standard without overheating.

184
Q

QoS

A

(Quality of Service)

Systems that differentiate data passing over the network that can reserve bandwidth for particular applications. A system that cannot guarantee a level of available bandwidth is often described as Class of Service (CoS).

185
Q

QR codes

A

(Quick Response codes)

A 2D barcode created of black and white squares used to store information that can be read using a barcode scanner or the camera on a smartphone that has a barcode scanning app installed.

186
Q

RADIUS

A

(Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service)

Used to manage remote and wireless authentication infrastructure. Users supply authentication information to RADIUS client devices, such as wireless access points. The client device then passes the authentication data to an AAA(Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) server, which processes the request.

187
Q

RAID

A

(Redundant Array of Independent/Inexpensive Disks)

A set of vendor-independent specifications for fault-tolerant configurations on multiple-disk systems.

188
Q

RAM

A

(Random Access Memory)

The principal storage space for computer data and program instructions. RAM is described as being volatile in the sense that once power has been removed or the computer has been rebooted, data is lost.

189
Q

RDPRA Mode

A

(RDP Restricted Admin Mode)

A method of mitigating the risk of using Remote Desktop.

190
Q

RF

A

(Radio Frequency)

Radio waves propagate at different frequencies and wavelengths. Wi-Fi network products work at 2.4 GHz or5 GHz.

191
Q

RFID

A

(Radio Frequency Identification)

A chip allowing data to be read wirelessly. RFID tags are used in barcodes and smart cards.

192
Q

RIP

A

(Raster Image Processing)

The component responsible for converting instructions in the Page Description Language (PDL) to instructions that control the print engine(an inkjet’s ink dispersion nozzles or a laser printer’s developer laser, for instance). A PDL might contain instructions for printing vector graphics and fonts; the RIP translates these instructions into a pattern of dots (raster) at the required resolution.

193
Q

RJ connector

A

(Registered Jack connector)

A connector used for twisted pair cabling. 4-pairnetwork cabling uses the larger RJ-45connector. Modem/telephone 2-paircabling uses the RJ-11 connector.

194
Q

RSSI

A

(Received Signal Strength Indicator)

For a wireless signal, an index level calculated from the signal strength level.

195
Q

RTC

A

(real time clock)

Part of the system chipset that keeps track of the date and time. The RTC is powered by a battery so the PC keeps track of the time even when it is powered down. If the computer starts losing time, it is a sign that the battery is failing.

196
Q

RTOS

A

(real-time operating system)

An OS that is optimized for use in embedded or real-time apps.

197
Q

RVI

A

(Rapid Virtualization Indexing)

The term used for SLAT extensions by AMD.

198
Q

S.M.A.R.T.

A

(Self Monitoring Analysis and Reporting Technology)

Technology designed to alert the user to possible hard disk failures before the disk becomes unusable.

199
Q

S/MIME

A

(Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)

Email encryption standard (Cryptographic Message Standard) using PKI (X.509) certificates for confidentiality(digital envelopes) and integrity (digital signatures). S/MIME provides extensions for standard MIME headers.

200
Q

S/PDIF

A

(Sony/Phillips Digital Interface)

A high-quality audio port that uses coax cabling with RCA connectors or fiber optic cabling and connectors. S/PDIF supports surround sound speakers.

201
Q

SaaS

A

(Software as a Service)

A cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet.

202
Q

SAS

A

(Serial Attached SCSI)

Developed from parallel SCSI, SAS represents the highest performing hard disk interface available.

203
Q

SATA

A

(Serial ATA)

The most widely used interface for hard disks on desktop and laptop computers. It uses a 7-pin data connector with one device per port. There are three SATA standards specifying bandwidths of1.5 Gbps, 3 Gbps, and 6 Gbps, respectively. SATA drives also use a new 15-pin power connector, though adapters for the old style 4-pin Molex connectors are available. External drives are also supported via thee SATA interface.

204
Q

SC

A

(Subscriber Connector) Push/pull connector used with fiber optic cabling.

205
Q

SCSI

A

(Small Computer Systems Interface)

A legacy expansion bus standard allowing for the connection of internal and external devices. SCSI 1 defines the original 8-bitbus with a transfer rate of 5 MBps. SCSI 2features a 16-bit data bus implementation(Wide SCSI) and a faster transfer rate (Fast SCSI) while maintaining backward compatibility with most of the original devices. SCSI 3 introduces further data rate enhancements (Ultra SCSI) and a serial SCSI standard (Firewire). Each device on a SCSI bus must be allocated a unique ID. The bus must also be terminated at both ends.

206
Q

SDK

A

(Software Development Kit)

A set of resources provided by a platform vendor for programmers to use when creating software to work with the vendor’s platform.

207
Q

SDN

A

(Software Defined Networking)

Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware allowing for programmable network appliances and systems.

208
Q

SDRAM

A

(Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory)

A variant on the DRAM chip designed to run at the speed of the system clock, thus accelerating the periodic refresh cycle times. SDRAM can run at much higher clock speeds than previous types of DRAM. Basic SDRAM is now obsolete and has been replaced by DDR/DDR2/3 SDRAM.

209
Q

SFF

A

(Small Form Factor)

Motherboards and connectors that are designed to take up less space.

210
Q

SIM

A

(Subscriber Identity Module)

A small chipcard that identifies the user and phone number of a mobile device via an International Mobile Subscriber Identity(ISMI). A SIM card also provides a limited amount of local storage for contacts.

211
Q

SLA

A

(stereolithography)

A 3D printing method
which uses a resin or photopolymer to create objects which are cured using an ultraviolet laser.

212
Q

SLAT

A

(Second Level Address Translation)

A feature of virtualization software designed to improve the management of virtual(paged) memory.

213
Q

SLS

A

(selective laser sintering)

A 3D printing method which fuses layers together using a pulse laser, creating the object from aplastic or metal powder with the model being lowered into a tank as each layer is added.

214
Q

SMB

A

(Server Message Block)

A protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thus making them available for other machines to use. SMB client software is available for UNIX-based systems. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients.

215
Q

SMF

A

(Single Mode Fiber)

A category of fiberoptic cable. SMF is more expensive than MMF (using high quality cable and optics)and supports much longer distances (up to about 70 km).

216
Q

SMP

A

(symmetric multiprocessing)

A condition where two or more physical CPUs that share a common OS and memory execute instructions simultaneously.

217
Q

SMT

A

(Simultaneous Multithreading)

Processing of multiple threads simultaneously.

218
Q

SMTP

A

(Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

The protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet. Messages are sent over TCP port 25.

219
Q

SNMP

A

(Simple Network Management Protocol)

A protocol for monitoring and managing network devices. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer being out of paper). SNMP works over UDP ports 161and 162 by default.

220
Q

SNR

A

(Signal-to-Noise Ratio)

A sound measurement that is expressed in decibels that compares the signal power with the noise power.

221
Q

SODIMM

A

(Small Outline Dual In-line Memory Module)

Memory that is half the size of DIMMs, are available in 32- or 64-bit data paths, and are commonly found in laptops and iMac systems.

222
Q

SOHO network

A

(small office/home office network)

A small network that provides connectivity and resource sharing for a small office or home office.

223
Q

SSD

A

(solid state drive)

A personal computer storage device that stores data in non-volatile special memory instead of on disks or tape.

224
Q

SSH

A

(Secure Shell)

A remote administration and file copy program that is flexible enough to support VPNs too (using port forwarding).SSH runs on TCP port 22.

225
Q

SSID

A

(Service Set ID)

Identifies a particular Wireless LAN (WLAN). This “network name “can be used to connect to the correct network. When multiple APs are configured with the same SSID, this is referred to as an E(xtended)SSID.

226
Q

SSL

A

(Secure Sockets Layer)

A security protocol developed by Netscape to provide privacy and authentication over the Internet. It is application independent (working at layer5 [Session]) and can be used with a variety of protocols, such as HTTP or FTP. Client and server set up a secure connection through PKI (X.509) certificates (optionally, both client and server can authenticate to one another). The protocol is now being developed as Transport Layer Security(TLS).

227
Q

SSO

A

(Single Sign-on)

Any authentication technology that allows a user to authenticate once and receive authorizations for multiple services. Kerberos is a typical example of an authentication technology providing SSO.

228
Q

SSTP

A

(Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol)

Uses the HTTP over SSL protocol and encapsulates an IP packet with an SSTP header.

229
Q

ST Connector

A

(Straight Tip connector)

Bayonet-style twist-and-lock connector for fiber optic cabling.

230
Q

STP

A

(Shielded Twisted Pair cabling)

A type of network cabling used where protection from interference is required. Insulation is installed around all four pairs of twisted cables.

231
Q

SVGA

A

(Super VGA)

A variant of the VGA standard that supported 800x600 pixel resolution with 4-bit or 8-bit color.

232
Q

TA

A

(Terminal Adapter)

An external appliance or a plug-in card for a PC or compatible router that facilitates an ISDN connection.

233
Q

TB

A

(Thunderbolt)

It can be used as a display interface (like DisplayPort) and as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3).The latest version uses USB-C connectors.

234
Q

TCO

A

(total cost of ownership)

The cost of a device over its lifetime, including the cost of replacement components and consumables.

235
Q

TCP

A

(Transmission Control Protocol)

A protocol in the TCP/IP suite operating at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts establish a session to exchange data and confirm delivery of packets using acknowledgements. This overhead means the system is relatively slow.

236
Q

TCP/IP Suite

A

(Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol suite)

The network protocol suite used by most operating systems and the Internet. It is widely adopted, industry standard, vendor independent, and open. It uses a 4-layer network model that corresponds roughly to the OSI model as follows: Network Interface (Physical/Data Link), Internet (Network), Transport(Transport), Application (Session, Presentation, Application).

237
Q

TFT Active Matrix Display

A

(Thin Film Transistor active matrix display)

The TFT display provides the best resolution of all of the currently available flat-panel Liquid Crystal Display (LCD)designs, although they are also the most expensive. TFT displays offer very high image clarity, contrast ratios of between150:1 to 200:1, fast refresh rates, and wide viewing angles.

238
Q

THD

A

(Total Harmonic Distortion)

A sound measurement that is expressed as a percentage that compares input and output audio signals, which indicates the amount of distortion in the output signal.

239
Q

TKIP

A

(Temporal Key Integrity Protocol)

Mechanism used in the first version of WPA to improve the security of wireless encryption mechanisms, compared to the flawed WEP standard.

240
Q

TLD

A

(Top Level Domains)

In the DNS hierarchy, the level immediately below the root.

241
Q

TLS

A

(Transport Layer Security)

A security protocol that protects sensitive communication from eavesdropping and tampering by using a secure, encrypted, and authenticated channel over a TCP/IP connection.

242
Q

TN

A

(Twisted Nematic)

An LCD panel technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to passthrough, resulting in a white display screen.

243
Q

TPM

A

(Trusted Platform Module)

A specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, keys, hashed passwords, and other user and platform identification information. Essentially, it functions as a smart card embedded on a motherboard.

244
Q

UDP

A

(User Datagram Protocol)

A protocol in the TCP/IP suite operating at the transport layer to provide connectionless, non-guaranteed communication with no sequencing or flow control. Faster than TCP, but does not provide reliability.

245
Q

UEFI

A

(Unified Extensible Firmware Interface)

A type of system firmware providing support for 64-bit CPU operation at boot, full GUI and mouse operation at boot, and better boot security.

246
Q

UPnP

A

(Universal Plug-and-Play)

A protocol framework allowing network devices to autoconfigure services, such as allowing a games console to request appropriate settings from a firewall.

247
Q

URL

A

(Uniform Resource Locator/Identifier)

An application-level addressing scheme for TCP/IP, allowing for human-readable resource addressing. For example:protocol://server/file, where “protocol” is the type of resource (HTTP, FTP), “server” is the name of the computer(www.microsoft.com), and “file” is the name of the resource you wish to access.

248
Q

UTM

A

(Unified Threat Management)

All-in-one security appliances and technologies that combine the functions of a firewall, malware scanner, intrusion detection, vulnerability scanner, Data Loss Prevention, content filtering, and so on.

249
Q

UTP

A

(Unshielded Twisted Pair cabling)

The type of cabling typically used for computer networking, composed of eight insulated copper wires grouped into four pairs with each pair twisted to reduce interference between wires.

250
Q

VDE

A

(Virtual Desktop Environment)

A virtual environment in which users can customize and update the environment as if it was a physical environment.

251
Q

VDI

A

(Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)

Hosting user desktops as virtual machines on a centralized server or cloud infrastructure. The desktop OS plus applications software is delivered to the client device (often a thin client) over the network as an image.

252
Q

VDSL

A

(Very High Bitrate DSL)

A high speed version of DSL with an upstream rate between 1.5 Mbps and 2.5 Mbps and a downstream rate between 50 Mbps and55 Mbps.

253
Q

VGA

A

(Video Graphics Array).

A standard for there solution and color depth of computer displays. VGA specifies a resolution of640x480 with 16 colors (4-bit color) at 60Hz.

254
Q

VLAN

A

(Virtual LAN)

A logically separate network, created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate.

255
Q

VM escaping

A

(virtual machine escaping)

Malware running on a guest OS jumping to another guest or to the host.

256
Q

VM sprawl

A

(virtual machine sprawl)

The uncontrolled development of more and more virtual machines.

257
Q

VNC

A

(Virtual Network Computing)

Remote access tool and protocol. VNC is the basis of macOS screen sharing.

258
Q

VPN

A

(Virtual Private Network)

A secure tunnel created between two endpoints connected via an unsecure network (typically the Internet). VPNs are typically created using SSL/TLS or IPsec. Encryption software is used to ensure privacy of data as messages transit through the public network.

259
Q

VSAT

A

(Very Small Aperture Terminal)

A microwave antenna aligned to an orbital satellite that can either relay signals between sites directly or via another satellite.

260
Q

WEP

A

(Wired Equivalent Privacy)

A mechanism for encrypting data sent over a wireless connection. WEP is considered flawed (that is, a determined and well-resourced attack could probably break the encryption).Apart from problems with the cipher, the use and distribution of a pre-shared key(effectively a password) depends on good user practice. WEP has been replaced by WPA.

261
Q

WIA

A

(Windows Image Acquisition)

Driver mode land API (Application Programming Interface) for interfacing scanner hardware with applications software on Windows PCs.

262
Q

WISP

A

(Wireless Internet Service Provider)

An ISP offering Internet access over ground-based Line of Sight (LoS) microwave transmitters.

263
Q

WMN

A

(Wireless Mesh Network)

Wireless network topology where all nodes—including client stations—are capable of providing forwarding and path discovery. This improves coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders.

264
Q

WoL

A

(Wake on LAN)

Where a host has a compatible network card, a network server can be configured to transmit a “magic packet” that causes the host to power up.

265
Q

WoWLAN

A

(Wake-on-Wireless LAN)

A wireless version of WoL that is not widely implemented.

266
Q

WPA

A

(Wi-Fi Protected Access)

An improved encryption scheme for protecting Wi-Fi communications, designed to replace WEP. The original version of WPA was subsequently updated (to WPA2) following the completion of the 802.11i security standard. WPA features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the pre-shared key method is still available for home and small office networks. WPA2 uses the improved AES cipher, replacing TKIP and RC4.

267
Q

WPF

A

(Windows Presentation Foundation)

In Windows, handles the display and print functions for compatible applications.

268
Q

WPS

A

(Wi-Fi Protected Setup)

Mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. On compatible equipment, users just have to push a button on the access point and connecting adapters to associate them securely.

269
Q

WWAN

A

(Wireless Wide Area Network)

A large wireless network, such as a cellular data network or line-of-sight microwave transmission.

270
Q

WYSIWYG

A

(What You See Is What You Get)

The screen and print output are supposed to be the same.

271
Q

XML

A

(eXtensible Markup Language)

A system for structuring documents so that they are human- and machine-readable. Information within the document is placed within tags, which describe how information within the document is structured.

272
Q

XPS

A

(XML Print Specification)

A file format based on XML that describes one or more pages and how the information should appear on the page.

273
Q

ZIF socket

A

(Zero Insertion Force socket)

A processor socket type allowing the chip to be placed in the socket with as little risk of damaging the pins on the processor chip as possible.

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