ACP 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

E: Most common cause of oral vitamin D ‘resistance’

A

malabsorption

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2
Q

E: A disorder caused by loss of an X chromosome

A

Turner syndrome

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3
Q

E: Most common cause of thyrotoxicosis, low radioactive iodine uptake, and low thyroglobulin level

A

Excess ingestion of thyroid (accept surreptitious ingestion)

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4
Q

E: Most common form of monogenic diabetes

A

Maturity onset diabetes of the young (accept MODY)

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5
Q

HO: Acronym describing acute respiratory distress, elevated B-type natriuretic peptide level, and elevated central venous pressure within 6 hours of transfusion

A

TACO

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6
Q

HO: Condition resulting from IgG autoantibodies directed against platelet membrane glycoproteins

A

ITP

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7
Q

HO: 2 DOACS for PE

A

apixaban & rivaroxaban

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8
Q

HO: A syndrome defined by the occurrence of two or more immune cytopenias

A

Evans syndrome

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9
Q

HO: Diagnosis accounting for absence CD55 and CD59 on red cells and granulocytes

A

PNH

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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10
Q

N: Clinical presentation of patient with thin glomerular basement membrane disease

A

Hematuria

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11
Q

N: Intestinal disease associated with glomerular IgA deposition

A

Celiac

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12
Q

N: Kidney disease associated with mesalamine therapy

A

Interstitial nephritis

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13
Q

N: The two most common causes of diabetes insipidus in adults

A

lithium & hypercalcemia

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14
Q

N: two most immediate causes of death in MDMA (ecstasy) use

A

HypoNa & hyperthermia

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15
Q

D: poxvirus

A

molluscum contagiosum

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16
Q

D: benign; dark stripe on nail

A

Melanonychia

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17
Q

D: most common idiopathic photosensitivity disorder

A

Polymorphous light eruption (accept PMLE)

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18
Q

D: autoimmune interdermal blistering disease that does not involve mucosa

A

Pemphigus foliaceus

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19
Q

HO: Test of peripheral blood that can identify cell type by patterns of surface antigen expression

A

flow cytometry

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20
Q

HO: The two hallmark findings of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

MAHA & thrombocytopenia

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21
Q

HO: folate vs. folic acid

A

Folate = natural form

Folic acid = synthetic, therapeutic form

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22
Q

HO: Meaning of ‘wet purpura’

A

Hemorrhagic blisters in mucous membranes,

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23
Q

HO: Most common drug associated with hemolytic anemia

A

Piperacillin

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24
Q

N: Syndrome characterized by a decrease in renal function that occurs with acute decompensated heart failure

A

cardiorenal

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25
N: failure of the blood pressure to fall by at least 10 percent during sleep
Nondipping
26
N: most powerful nonosmotic stimulus for ADH release
hypovolemia
27
N: Method to estimate urinary ammonium excretion
Urine anion gap
28
N: Most common condition causing secondary IgA nephropathy
Chronic liver disease | accept alcoholic cirrhosis or cirrhosis
29
NR: Pain perceived as coming from an amputated limb
phantomb limb pain
30
NR: graphical representation of cerebrocortical motor control
homunculus
31
NR: A common benign MRI finding in patients with migraine
Nonspecific white matter lesion (accept hyperintensity)
32
NR: Most common identifiable arterial disorder predisposing to carotid artery dissection
Fibromuscular dysplasia
33
NR: Limbic encephalitis associated with ovarian teratomas
Anti-NDMA receptor encephalitis
34
HO: Minimum duration of adjuvant endocrine therapy for breast cancer
5 years
35
HO: Infectious agent associated with head and neck cancer
HPV
36
HO: Approximate equianalgesic ratio of IV morphine to oral morphine sulfate
1:3
37
HO: Syndrome name for aromatase inhibitor-related joint pain and stiffness Most common adverse musculoskeletal effect of aromatase inhibitors
AI-associated musculoskeletal syndrome Arthralgia (accept aromatase inhibitor–induced arthralgia syndrome
38
R: inflammatory osteoarthritis of the hand
Erosive osteoarthritis
39
R: Three hydrophilic statins with the lowest risk for statin-induced myopathy
Rosuvastatin, pravastatin, fluvastatin
40
R: Most common cardiac complication of relapsing polychondritis
Aortic regurgitation
41
R: Condition most commonly associated with the coexistence of erosive changes and new bone formation within the same joint
Psoriatic arthritis
42
E: Isthmus of thyroid gland is inferior to this cartilage
Cricoid cartilage
43
E: Most common type of clinically nonfunctioning pituitary macroadenoma
Gonadotroph adenomas
44
E: Initial laboratory test used to diagnose acromegaly
Insulin-like Growth factor-1 | accept IGF-1
45
ID: most common pathogen responsible for jugular vein suppurative thrombophlebiti
Fusobacterium necrophorum
46
ID: most common symptom of primary tuberculosis
fever
47
ID: temperature threshold sustained for 1 hour defines neutropenic fever
>38.0°C (100.4°F)
48
ID: Clinical syndrome associated with 'sandpaper' rash and 'strawberry tongue'
scarlet fever
49
ID: Preferred antibiotic treatment of traveler's diarrhea for travelers to Asia
Azithromycin
50
N; Kidney injury following use of cathartics that contain oral sodium phosphate
Acute phosphate nephropathy
51
N: Toxicity causing hypertension, gout, proximal renal tubular disease, and interstitial nephritis
Lead toxicity
52
N: cause of proteinuria in otherwise healthy adults
strenuous exercise
53
N: Definition of hypertension based on 24-hour average blood pressure measurement obtained by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Greater than/equal to 130/80 mm Hg
54
D: Most common cause of generalized pruritus in older adults
Xerosis (accept dry skin)
55
D: common, benign inflammatory condition of the dorsal tongue (photo)
Geographic tongue | benign migratory glossitis
56
D: cutaneous manifestation of a helminth infection (photo)
Cutaneous larva migrans
57
D: boggy edematous inflammatory scalp lesion due to tinea capitis infection
Kerion
58
D: skin condition is caused by an S. aureus exfoliative toxin (photo of blisters)
Bullous impetigo | accept impetigo
59
ID: Organism responsible for most cases of chronic bacterial prostatitis
E coli
60
ID: Immediate postexposure prevention for varicella-zoster virus infection in immunocompromised patient
Varicella-zoster immune globulin
61
ID: antibodies and antigen assessed by the 4th generation HIV test
HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibody | HIV p24 antigen
62
ID: disease that can cause these syndromes: ulceroglandular, glandular, oculoglandular, pharyngeal, typhoidal, and pneumonic
tularemia
63
ID: The 3 most common sites for nocardiosis infection
lungs, CNS, skin
64
P: Intervention indicated for severe hypothermia and hemodynamic instability
Cardiopulmonary bypass
65
GI: therapy for post-infectious IBS
fiber supplement
66
GI: SAAG and ascitic protein concentration thresholds associated with nephrotic syndrome
SAAG ≤ 1.1; Protein ≤ 2.5 g/dL
67
GI: Two reasons for a positive HCV antibody test and negative HCV RNA test
False-positive test result | cleared HCV infection
68
HO: Most common metabolic complication of Burkitt lymphoma
TLS
69
HO: Term for prostate cancer that progresses despite androgen deprivation therapy
Castrate resistant disease
70
HO: Genotype tissue testing indicated for metastatic colorectal cancer (2)
K-ras and N-ras genotyping
71
HO: Vitamin effective in reducing nonmelanoma skin cancer rate in high risk patients
nicotinamide | accept vitamin B3
72
N: Acid-base disorder associated with laxative abuse
NON-gap metabolic acidosis
73
N: kidney disease associated with elevated levels of IgG4
IgG4-related interstitial nephritis
74
N: Two highest cancer risks in kidney transplant patients
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin | Lymphoproliferative disease
75
N: Obesity drug associated with acute oxalate nephropathy
Orlistat
76
N: Two diagnostic laboratory abnormalities common to: - Beer potomania - Tea and toast syndrome - Primary polydipsia
Hyponatremia | Inappropriately dilute urine