ACP 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

E: Most common cause of oral vitamin D ‘resistance’

A

malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

E: A disorder caused by loss of an X chromosome

A

Turner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

E: Most common cause of thyrotoxicosis, low radioactive iodine uptake, and low thyroglobulin level

A

Excess ingestion of thyroid (accept surreptitious ingestion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

E: Most common form of monogenic diabetes

A

Maturity onset diabetes of the young (accept MODY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HO: Acronym describing acute respiratory distress, elevated B-type natriuretic peptide level, and elevated central venous pressure within 6 hours of transfusion

A

TACO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HO: Condition resulting from IgG autoantibodies directed against platelet membrane glycoproteins

A

ITP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HO: 2 DOACS for PE

A

apixaban & rivaroxaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

HO: A syndrome defined by the occurrence of two or more immune cytopenias

A

Evans syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HO: Diagnosis accounting for absence CD55 and CD59 on red cells and granulocytes

A

PNH

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

N: Clinical presentation of patient with thin glomerular basement membrane disease

A

Hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

N: Intestinal disease associated with glomerular IgA deposition

A

Celiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

N: Kidney disease associated with mesalamine therapy

A

Interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

N: The two most common causes of diabetes insipidus in adults

A

lithium & hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

N: two most immediate causes of death in MDMA (ecstasy) use

A

HypoNa & hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

D: poxvirus

A

molluscum contagiosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

D: benign; dark stripe on nail

A

Melanonychia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

D: most common idiopathic photosensitivity disorder

A

Polymorphous light eruption (accept PMLE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

D: autoimmune interdermal blistering disease that does not involve mucosa

A

Pemphigus foliaceus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

HO: Test of peripheral blood that can identify cell type by patterns of surface antigen expression

A

flow cytometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HO: The two hallmark findings of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

MAHA & thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

HO: folate vs. folic acid

A

Folate = natural form

Folic acid = synthetic, therapeutic form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HO: Meaning of ‘wet purpura’

A

Hemorrhagic blisters in mucous membranes,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HO: Most common drug associated with hemolytic anemia

A

Piperacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

N: Syndrome characterized by a decrease in renal function that occurs with acute decompensated heart failure

A

cardiorenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

N: failure of the blood pressure to fall by at least 10 percent during sleep

A

Nondipping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

N: most powerful nonosmotic stimulus for ADH release

A

hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

N: Method to estimate urinary ammonium excretion

A

Urine anion gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

N: Most common condition causing secondary IgA nephropathy

A

Chronic liver disease

accept alcoholic cirrhosis or cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

NR: Pain perceived as coming from an amputated limb

A

phantomb limb pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

NR: graphical representation of cerebrocortical motor control

A

homunculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

NR: A common benign MRI finding in patients with migraine

A

Nonspecific white matter lesion (accept hyperintensity)

32
Q

NR: Most common identifiable arterial disorder predisposing to carotid artery dissection

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

33
Q

NR: Limbic encephalitis associated with ovarian teratomas

A

Anti-NDMA receptor encephalitis

34
Q

HO: Minimum duration of adjuvant endocrine therapy for breast cancer

A

5 years

35
Q

HO: Infectious agent associated with head and neck cancer

A

HPV

36
Q

HO: Approximate equianalgesic ratio of IV morphine to oral morphine sulfate

A

1:3

37
Q

HO: Syndrome name for aromatase inhibitor-related joint pain and stiffness

Most common adverse musculoskeletal effect of aromatase inhibitors

A

AI-associated musculoskeletal syndrome

Arthralgia (accept aromatase inhibitor–induced arthralgia syndrome

38
Q

R: inflammatory osteoarthritis of the hand

A

Erosive osteoarthritis

39
Q

R: Three hydrophilic statins with the lowest risk for statin-induced myopathy

A

Rosuvastatin, pravastatin, fluvastatin

40
Q

R: Most common cardiac complication of relapsing polychondritis

A

Aortic regurgitation

41
Q

R: Condition most commonly associated with the coexistence of erosive changes and new bone formation within the same joint

A

Psoriatic arthritis

42
Q

E: Isthmus of thyroid gland is inferior to this cartilage

A

Cricoid cartilage

43
Q

E: Most common type of clinically nonfunctioning pituitary macroadenoma

A

Gonadotroph adenomas

44
Q

E: Initial laboratory test used to diagnose acromegaly

A

Insulin-like Growth factor-1

accept IGF-1

45
Q

ID: most common pathogen responsible for jugular vein suppurative thrombophlebiti

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

46
Q

ID: most common symptom of primary tuberculosis

A

fever

47
Q

ID: temperature threshold sustained for 1 hour defines neutropenic fever

A

> 38.0°C (100.4°F)

48
Q

ID: Clinical syndrome associated with ‘sandpaper’ rash and ‘strawberry tongue’

A

scarlet fever

49
Q

ID: Preferred antibiotic treatment of traveler’s diarrhea for travelers to Asia

A

Azithromycin

50
Q

N; Kidney injury following use of cathartics that contain oral sodium phosphate

A

Acute phosphate nephropathy

51
Q

N: Toxicity causing hypertension, gout, proximal renal tubular disease, and interstitial nephritis

A

Lead toxicity

52
Q

N: cause of proteinuria in otherwise healthy adults

A

strenuous exercise

53
Q

N: Definition of hypertension based on 24-hour average blood pressure measurement obtained by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

A

Greater than/equal to 130/80 mm Hg

54
Q

D: Most common cause of generalized pruritus in older adults

A

Xerosis (accept dry skin)

55
Q

D: common, benign inflammatory condition of the dorsal tongue (photo)

A

Geographic tongue

benign migratory glossitis

56
Q

D: cutaneous manifestation of a helminth infection (photo)

A

Cutaneous larva migrans

57
Q

D: boggy edematous inflammatory scalp lesion due to tinea capitis infection

A

Kerion

58
Q

D: skin condition is caused by an S. aureus exfoliative toxin (photo of blisters)

A

Bullous impetigo

accept impetigo

59
Q

ID: Organism responsible for most cases of chronic bacterial prostatitis

A

E coli

60
Q

ID: Immediate postexposure prevention for varicella-zoster virus infection in immunocompromised patient

A

Varicella-zoster immune globulin

61
Q

ID: antibodies and antigen assessed by the 4th generation HIV test

A

HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibody

HIV p24 antigen

62
Q

ID: disease that can cause these syndromes: ulceroglandular, glandular, oculoglandular, pharyngeal, typhoidal, and pneumonic

A

tularemia

63
Q

ID: The 3 most common sites for nocardiosis infection

A

lungs, CNS, skin

64
Q

P: Intervention indicated for severe hypothermia and hemodynamic instability

A

Cardiopulmonary bypass

65
Q

GI: therapy for post-infectious IBS

A

fiber supplement

66
Q

GI: SAAG and ascitic protein concentration thresholds associated with nephrotic syndrome

A

SAAG ≤ 1.1; Protein ≤ 2.5 g/dL

67
Q

GI: Two reasons for a positive HCV antibody test and negative HCV RNA test

A

False-positive test result

cleared HCV infection

68
Q

HO: Most common metabolic complication of Burkitt lymphoma

A

TLS

69
Q

HO: Term for prostate cancer that progresses despite androgen deprivation therapy

A

Castrate resistant disease

70
Q

HO: Genotype tissue testing indicated for metastatic colorectal cancer (2)

A

K-ras and N-ras genotyping

71
Q

HO: Vitamin effective in reducing nonmelanoma skin cancer rate in high risk patients

A

nicotinamide

accept vitamin B3

72
Q

N: Acid-base disorder associated with laxative abuse

A

NON-gap metabolic acidosis

73
Q

N: kidney disease associated with elevated levels of IgG4

A

IgG4-related interstitial nephritis

74
Q

N: Two highest cancer risks in kidney transplant patients

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

Lymphoproliferative disease

75
Q

N: Obesity drug associated with acute oxalate nephropathy

A

Orlistat

76
Q

N: Two diagnostic laboratory abnormalities common to:

  • Beer potomania
  • Tea and toast syndrome
  • Primary polydipsia
A

Hyponatremia

Inappropriately dilute urine