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Jeopardy ACP > ACP 2017 > Flashcards

ACP 2017 Flashcards

1
Q

GI: Most common congenital malformation of the gastrointestinal tract

A

Meckles diverticulum

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2
Q

GI: Condition associated with periodic acid-Schiff-positive macrophages and negative acid-fast stain

A

Whipple disease

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3
Q

GI: SAAG and ascitic protein concentration thresholds associated with constrictive pericarditis

A

SAAG ≥ 1.1

Protein ≥ 2.5 g/dL

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4
Q

GI: A typically transient anemia complication of TIPS

A

Hemolytic anemia

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5
Q

GI: Antibiotic most commonly responsible for drug-induced liver disease

A

Amoxcillin-clavulaunate

augmentin

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6
Q

ID: Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) can produce this toxin

A

Shiga toxin

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7
Q

ID: CDC prefers IGRA over tuberculin skin testing in patients with this medical history

A

BCG vaccination

accept BCG treatment

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8
Q

P: INR range for treatment of pulmonary embolism

A

2.0-3.0

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9
Q

P: Diagnosis in ventilated patient for hypotension, decreased left breath sounds and left deviated trachea

A

R mainstem bronchus intubation

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10
Q

P: acid base disturbance in malignant hyperthermia

A

Respiratory acidosis

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11
Q

P: Liver condition that may result in brown pleural effusion

A

Amebic abscess

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12
Q

P: Most common antecedent of critical illness polyneuropathy

A

sepsis

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13
Q

HO: most pts at risk for leukostasis also at risk for…

A

TLS

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14
Q

HO: playing this musical instrument is classically associated with intravascular hemolysis

A

bongo drum

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15
Q

HO: Two diagnoses most commonly accounting for acute fall in hemoglobin in patients with sickle cell anemia

A

aplastic anemia

hemolytic crisis

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16
Q

HO: Definitive treatment for porphyria cutanea tarda

A

Phlebotomy

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17
Q

HO: Giant hemangiomas can be associated with this coagulation disorder syndrome

A

DIC

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18
Q

HO: Eponym for hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

A

Lynch syndrome

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19
Q

HO: Standard initial therapeutic approach for patients with metastatic prostate cancer

A

Androgen deprivation therapy

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20
Q

HO: Histological stain used to diagnose AL amyloidosis

A

congo red stain

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21
Q

HO: mutation in non-small cell lung cancers predicts favorable response to specific tyrosine kinase inhibitors

A

EGRF activating mutation

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22
Q

HOP: Cancer suggested by positive immunostaining for chromogranin A or synaptophysin

A

neuroendocrine carcinoma

(accept: - small cell lung cancer
- carcinoid
- islet cell tumor)

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23
Q

R: quotidian fevers, arthritis, an evanescent rash and markedly elevated serum ferritin concentrations

A

adult stills

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24
Q

R: Besides the sun, common source of UVB radiation that may result in photosensitive reactions

A

flurescent light bulbs

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25
Q

R: Condition associated with pain at the radial side of the wrist during pinch grasping or during thumb and wrist movement

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

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26
Q

R: two most common ocular syndromes associated with giant cell arteritis

A

Amaurosis fugax

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

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27
Q

E: 2 test to eval amenorrhea after pregnancy test

A

FSH

prolactin

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28
Q

E: Precise time of day for testosterone measurement in evaluation of hypogonadism

A

0800 AM

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29
Q

E: Specific diagnostic antibody associated with Graves disease

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone receptor antibody

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30
Q

E: All normotensive patients with adrenal incidentaloma are screened for these 2 endocrine disorders

A

Pheochromocytoma

Cushing syndrome

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31
Q

E: Diagnosis for bone fragility and dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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32
Q

N: Autosomal dominant disorder causing benign hematuria

A

Thin basement membrane disease

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33
Q

N: Surgical procedure associated with oxalate nephropathy

A

gastric bypass

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34
Q

N: Preferred statin for patients on dialysis for end-stage kidney disease

A

NONE!!!

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35
Q

N: Most common disease cause of proximal RTA (Fanconi’s syndrome) in adults

A

Monoclonal gammopathy
(accept - multiple myeloma
- amyloidosis
- light chain disease)

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36
Q

HO: Classical presentation is painless localized cervical lymphadenopathy

A

hodgkin lymphoma

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37
Q

HO: Preferred drug class for postmenopausal women with HR-positive early stage breast cancer

A

aromatase inhibitor

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38
Q

HO: +S100

A

melanoma

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39
Q

HO: renal side effect of EGFR inhibs

A

proteinuria

accept HTN

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40
Q

HO: RANKL

A

denosumab

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41
Q

ID: Indication for infective endocarditis prophylaxis following cardiac transplantation

A

Valvulopathy

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42
Q

ID: two most important human ehrlichial diseases

A

Human monocytic ehrlichiosis

Human granulocytic anaplasmosis

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43
Q

ID: Acute febrile reaction, headache and myalgia within the first 24 hours of erythema migrans treatment

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

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44
Q

ID: Interval following Td vaccination appropriate for Tdap vaccination

A

Anytime!

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45
Q

ID: L. monocytogenes meningitis treatment in penicillin allergic patient

A

TMP-SMX

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46
Q

NR: Most common presenting severe symptom of diabetic amyotrophy

A

pain

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47
Q

NR: Most effective drug treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

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48
Q

NR: Tremor that occurs exclusively with writing

A

Primary writing tremor

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49
Q

NR: Ice-pack test is associated with this autoimmune neuromuscular disorder

A

Myasthenia gravis

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50
Q

P: Specific quantitative criterion represented by R in the CURB-65 score

A

RR > 30

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51
Q

P: High resolution CT shows diffuse, homogeneous, < 1cm diameter thin-walled cysts

A

Lymphangioleiomyomatosis
(accept LAM)

Lymph - angio - leio - myo - matosis

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52
Q

P: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure required for a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension

A

= 15 mm Hg

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53
Q

P: pleural fluid TB test

A

adenosine deamianse

ADA

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54
Q

C: 2 most common structural diseases a/w syncope

A

HOCM

AS

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55
Q

C: Statin therapy decreases risk of this post-CABG arrhythmia

A

A-fib

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56
Q

C: Condition associated with rising venous pressure, falling arterial pressure, and decreased heart sounds

A

Pericardial tamponade

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57
Q

C: Cardiac condition associated with Carney complex

A

Atrial myxoma

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58
Q

R: SLE skin diagnosis responsible for the “butterfly rash” (malar rash)

A

Acute cutaneous lupus erythematosus

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59
Q

R: noninflammatory disease associated with calcification and ossification of spinal ligaments and of peripheral entheses

A

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)

60
Q

R: entrapment of the median nerve in the proximal forearm where it passes through the pronator teres muscle

A

Pronator teres syndrome

61
Q

R: ENT complication shared by primary atrophic rhinosinusitis, relapsing polychondritis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Saddle nose deformity

62
Q

E: Antibody predicts poor response to oral hypoglycemic drug therapy

A

Anti-GAD (glutamic acid decarboxylase) antibody

also accept islet cell antibody [ICA]

63
Q

E: Next diagnostic step for thyroid nodule associated with low TSH

A 
Thyroid scintigraphy 
(accept iodine or technetium scan or nuclear scan)
64
Q

E: Q: Enhanced susceptibility to statin-associated myopathy occurs in patients with this endocrine disorder

A

hypothyroidism

65
Q

HO: Q: Diagnosis suggested by aquagenic pruritus and elevated hematocrit

A

PV!

66
Q

HO: Q: Condition associated with “Waring blender syndrome” causing fragmentation hemolytic anemia

A

Malfunctioning mechanical prosthetic valve

accept prosthetic valve, paravalvular leak

67
Q

HO: Hydroxyurea therapy in sickle cell disease increases this hemoglobin type

A

Hemoglobin F

68
Q

HO: Thalassemia diagnosis associated with 90% hemoglobin A and elevations of A2 and F

A

Beta thalassemia minor

69
Q

HO: Preferred treatment for RBC transfusion-dependent deletion 5q syndrome

A

Lenalidomide

70
Q

N: Which renal tubular disorder is associated with impaired ammoniagenesis

A

Type 4 renal tubular acidosis

accept hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism

71
Q

N: Gi procedure a/w acute phosphate nephropathy

A

Colonoscopy

accept sodium phosphate bowel prep for colonoscopy

72
Q

N: Most common pattern of glomerular injury associated with hepatitis C infection

A

Membranoproliferative GN

73
Q

N: circulating peptide secreted by osteocytes and osteoblasts that causes renal phosphate wasting

A

Fibroblast growth factor 23 (accept FGF23)

74
Q

D: painful, chronic and recurrent sterile abscesses

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

75
Q

GI: Q: Most consistently effective biological therapy for recurrent and antibiotic refractory C. difficile infection

A

Fecal microbiota transplantation (accept fecal transplantation)

76
Q

GI: To reduce false-negative urea breath test results, the patient should be off antibiotics for this length of time

A

4 wks

77
Q

GI: Two conditions associated with the highest serum gastrin level measurements

A

Atrophic gastritis
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
(accept gastrinoma)

78
Q

ID: Most common indication for treating asymptomatic bacteruria in women

A

pregnancy

79
Q

ID: Q: Varicella vaccine can be given to patients with HIV infection and this CD4 count

A

CD4 >/= 200

80
Q

ID: IDSA definition of the cfu threshold in a voided urine specimen defining asymptomatic bacteruria in women

A

> /= 100,000k

81
Q

ID: Antibiotic always included in a multiple antibiotic regimen for anthrax meningitis

A

ciprofloxacin

82
Q

ID: IDSA recommended combination antibiotic therapy for severe Babesia microti infection

A

PO quinine

IV clindamycin

83
Q

ID: IDSA recommended combination antibiotic therapy for severe Babesia microti infection

A

PO quinine

IV clindamycin

84
Q

C: TIMI =

A

Thrombolysis in Myocardial Infarction

85
Q

C: Valvular heart lesion associated with nail bed pulsations

A

aortic regurgitation

86
Q

C: Postmenopausal women account for most cases of this syndrome of transient regional LV dysfunction

A

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

87
Q

C: USPSTF grade assigned to screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm in women

A

D

88
Q

NR: First-line oral drug for symptomatic treatment of myasthenia gravis

A

pyridostigmine

89
Q

NR: age exclusion for TPA between 3.5 - 4 Hrs

A

age >80

90
Q

NR: Likely diagnosis for neck pain, partial Horner syndrome, and TIA or stroke

A

Carotid artery dissection

91
Q

NR: Effective injectable therapy for prevention of chronic migraine headache

A

botox

92
Q

R: Most common joint condition associated with anserine bursitis

A

Osteoarthritis

93
Q

R: Disease most commonly associated with “capillary dropout” on nailfold capillary microscopy

A

Systemic sclerosis

accept scleroderma

94
Q

R: Bacterial organisms known to trigger reactive arthritis (6)

A 
Chlamydia 
Yersinia
Salmonella
Shigella
Campylobacter
Clostridium difficile
95
Q

R: Diagnosis for a painful and stiff glenohumeral joint that has lost distensibility of the capsule and range of motion

A

Frozen shoulder

adhesive capsulitis

96
Q

R: Most common form of lung inflammation associated with Sjögren’s syndrome

A

Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia

97
Q

E: MEN 2A and MEN 2B have these 2 conditions in common

A

Medullary thyroid cancer

Pheochromocytoma

98
Q

E: most common sex chromosome abnormality

A

Turner syndrome

99
Q

E: Syndrome of vitiligo, autoimmune thyroid and adrenal disease , type 1 DM, and hypopituitarism

A

Polyglandular autoimmune syndrome

100
Q

E: Adjuvant treatment for thyroid storm that blocks release of T4 and T3

A

Iodine (accept lithium)

101
Q

E: Mediator of transient subclinical hyperthyroidism during first half of pregnancy

A

HCG

102
Q

HO: Leukemia most commonly associated with leukostasis syndrome

A

AML

103
Q

HO: Most common thrombophilia associated with warfarin skin necrosis

A

Protein C deficiency

104
Q

HO: Patients with hemochromatosis are at risk for this bacterial infection (4)

A

V. vulnificus,
Y. enterocolitica
L. monocytogenes
Klebsiella sp (any one)

105
Q

HO: Diagnosis accounting for Coombs-negative hemolytic anemia and Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

106
Q

HO: Myelodysplastic syndrome-associated skin condition that may herald change to acute leukemia

A

sweet syndrome

107
Q

HO: Class of drug for hormone-receptor positive early stage breast cancer in premenopausal women

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator

accept SERM or tamoxifen

108
Q

HO: Leukemic variant of cutaneous T cell lymphoma commonly presenting with erythroderma and generalized lymphadenopathy

A

Sézary syndrome

109
Q

HO: Most likely primary cancer accounting for metastatic squamous cell carcinoma to upper cervical lymph node

A

Head & Neck

110
Q

A/I: Most sting-related reactions are caused by this order of insects

A

Hymenoptera

111
Q

A/I: Condition associated with urticaria pigmentosa

A

Mastocytosis

112
Q

A/I: Fish-related poisoning often misdiagnosed as “seafood allergy”

A

Scombroid poisoning

113
Q

N: Most common cause of primary glomerulopathy in developed countries

A

IgA nephropathy

114
Q

N: Non-inflammatory, nonatherosclerotic disorder that leads to arterial stenosis, occlusion, aneurysm, and dissection

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

115
Q

N: Antihypertensive drug class that decreases risk of acute gout

A

Calcium channel blockers

would also accept losartan but not ARBs

116
Q

N: Diagnostic urinalysis finding associated with acyclovir acute kidney injury

A

Needle shaped crystals

accept crystals or crystalluria

117
Q

P: Timing of initial imaging follow up for 4 mm pulmonary nodule on CT scan in high risk patient

A

1 year

118
Q

P: First line treatment for reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy

A

lower blood pressure

119
Q

P: The strategy of permissive hypercapnia is used to manage this mechanical ventilation complication associated with COPD

A

Auto-PEEP

120
Q

P: The strongest risk factor for critical illness myopathy

A

IV glucocorticoids

121
Q

P: Acid-base disorder characteristic of propofol infusion syndrome

A 
Metabolic acidosis 
(accept increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis)
122
Q

C: Atrial fibrillation ablation therapy involves this cardiac structure

A

Pulmonary vein

123
Q

C: Most likely finding on ECG prior to this Vtach

A

prolonged QT

124
Q

C: Headache drugs implicated as a cause of valvular heart disease

A

Ergotamine

125
Q

C: Lenient atrial fibrillation heart rate shown to be non-inferior to <80/min

A

<110/min

126
Q

C: Late gadolinium enhancement on CMR is associated with this condition

A

myocarditis

127
Q

GI: Sigmoidoscopic finding associate with anthraquinone laxative abuse

A

melanosis coli

128
Q

GI: Diagnosis associated with acute upper abdominal pain, vomiting, and an inability to pass a nasogastric tube

A

gastric volvulus

129
Q

GI: Concurrent inflammatory bowel disease that may be found with celiac disease

A

microscopic colitis

130
Q

GI: Parasitic disease causing Symmer’s pipestem fibrosis, splenomegaly and portal hypertension

A

Schistosomiasis

131
Q

NR: Encephalitis associated with muscle weakness and extrapyramidal symptoms

A

West Nile virus encephalitis

accept Japanese encephalitis

132
Q

NR: Treatment as effective as plasma exchange for Guillain-Barr? syndrome

A

IVIG

133
Q

NR: Term describing a form of hypertonia with an involuntary variable resistance during passive movement

A

Paratonia

or gegenhalten

134
Q

HO: Factor that carries factor VIII in the circulation

A

vWF

135
Q

HO: Four vitamin K dependent coagulation factors

A

2, 7, 9, 10

136
Q

HO: metalloproteinase that is deficient in patients with TTP

A

ADAMTS-13

137
Q

HO: Therapy that decreases recurrent stroke in sickle cell disease

A

Exchange transfusion

138
Q

HO: Cause of splenomegaly and hepatomegaly in myelofibrosis (myeloid metaplasia)

A

Extramedullary hematopoiesis

139
Q

HO: Q: Lung cancer complication suggested by dyspnea, cough, and facial swelling

A

Superior vena cava syndrome

140
Q

HO: Components of FOLFOX chemotherapy

A
  • Folinic acid (leucovorin)
  • 5-FU
  • Oxaliplatin
141
Q

HO: Cancer treatment cause of LV dysfunction that is not dose dependent

A

Trastuzumab

142
Q

N: correct hypoNa, locked in syndrome

A

Osmotic demyelination syndrome

accept central pontine myelinolysis

143
Q

N: Diagnosis associated with this skin finding (photo of hypopig patch) and angiomyolipomas or tubers of the skin, retina, brain, and kidneys

A

Tuberous sclerosis

144
Q

N: Syndrome caused by metabolism of ADH by circulating vasopressinase

A

Gestational diabetes insipidus

145
Q

N: Therapeutic infusion associated with type B lactic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, and hyperlipidemia

A

propofol

Jeopardy ACP (3 decks)

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