Ace The Technical Pilot Interview Notes Flashcards

1
Q

describe the effects of a jammed/degraded elevator ?

A

will result in a less effective elevator manouvrability

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2
Q

what is magnetic direction?

A

is the direction measured to magnetic north

page 89

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3
Q

what is the procedure for a two way comm failure ?

A
  • continue your flight in accordance to flight plan or last assigned ATC lever
  • plan to arrived at estimated ETA
  • commence your descent within 10 min

page 306

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4
Q

What is a super stall ?

A

Also known as Deep Stall is mainly associated with rear engine, high T-tail swept wing aircraft.
As the plane is reaching the stall the turbulent airflow created by the wings flying at low speed is hitting the T-tail causing it to be ineffective cause it would need a clean airflow. As the nose pitches up the elevators are not working therefore the nose will keep rising no stop.

Page 29

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5
Q

explain humidity and relative humidity

A
  • humidity is the amount of water vapour into a parcel of air
  • relative humidity is the percentage of the content of water vapour into a parcel of air

page 227

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6
Q

what do you know about HF communications ?

A
  • long distance communications
  • HF use predictable sky wave (ionosphere)
  • the higher the frequency the greater is the range

page 150

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7
Q

how is propeller noise controlled or reduced ?

A
  • increase blades number
  • reduce take off power

page 61

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8
Q

why on a short sector would you climb to FL330 ?

A

better SFC

page 282

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9
Q

if cumulus clouds were present in the morning what would you expect later ?

A

CB

page 230

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10
Q

why are flight level intervals increased to 2000ft above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace ?

A

because of increased altimeter error due to the even lower air density

page 277

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11
Q

Describe the drag curve of a jet aircraft?

A

-flatter drag curve
-not noticeable change of flying qualities other than a light lack of speed stability
-VIMD is higher because swept wing is more efficient against profile drag
Page 8

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12
Q

What wing design the delay the break up of airflow (stall)?

A
  • wing slots
  • lower angle of incidence
  • greater Chamber for a particular wing section (wing tip)

Page 28

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13
Q

a derated take off will use less or more trip fuel and why ?

A

more trip fuel cause it will take longer to reach to optimum altitude

page 208

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14
Q

what provides the earth’s heat energy ?

A

the sun via solar radiation

the short wave radiation from the sun are absorbed by the ground heating it up (insulation). Energy is then re-radiated out from the ground as long wave, it is this radiations that heat up the lower atmosphere

page 221

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15
Q

what is Q Feel and where it is used ?

A

Q Feel which is a sophisticated computer based artificial feel used on aircraft with powered flight controls

page 49

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16
Q

How does weight affect an aircraft’s flight profile.

A

The heavier the plane the soon it would need to start its descent

Page 18

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17
Q

describe LSS

A

Local Speed of Sound

LSS = 38.94 sq root T
T in Kelvin = 273 + ºC

page 122

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18
Q

how is DME information used ?

A

VOR/DME
ILS

page 108

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19
Q

what is a TAF ?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
usually issued for 9 hours period and updated every 3 hours

page 270

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20
Q

is there a critical engine in a propeller aircraft ?

A

Yes, left, if the props both spin clockwise,
No if they spin anticlockwise

page 58

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21
Q

what is a mass balance?

A

it’s a mass weight that keeps the control surface into position and fights against the twisting moment caused by air loads.

page 48

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22
Q

what is wind velocity ?

A

speed at with wind moves expressed in knots

page 235

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23
Q

describe the errors of magnetic compass ?

A
  • accelerations/deceleration errors
  • turning errors

page 143

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24
Q

how high is the screen height for propeller and jet aircraft ?

A
jet 35ft (dry) 15ft (wet)
prop 50ft

jet aircraft are to heavy to make prop height with same distance so needed to be lowered

page 186

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25
Q

what is wind ?

A

is the horizontal movement of air

page 234

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26
Q

how does weight effect V1 speed ?

A

if the field length is limiting the greater the weight the lower is V1.
if the field length is not limiting the greater the weight the higher is V1

page 190

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27
Q

how are the different type of fog formed ?

A
  • radiation fog = the ground loses heat that condenses
    conditions: cloudless night, light wind, moist air
  • advection fog = warm and moist air flows over a cold surface (from water to land at night, or Sea Smoke in the reverse condition)
  • frontal fog = warm occludent front

page 231

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28
Q

describe the difference between net and gross flight path performance ?

A
  • the gross performance is the average performance that a fleet of aircraft should achieve.
  • the net performance is the gross performance diminished to allow for various contingency

page 203

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29
Q

what is the lowest usable FL ?

A

it has to be at least 500ft over the absolute minimum altitude

page 277

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30
Q

What is differential GPS ?

A

it’s a more accurate GPS

page 96

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31
Q

what is the purpose of retractable landing gear ?

A

reduce drag improves performance

page 166

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32
Q

what is a hinge/horn balance ?

A

hinge balance sets the hinge line back into the control surface thus reducing the center of pressure to hinge line harm.

horn balance is a protruding control surface that produces a balancing force in the opposite direction of the main lift reducing hinge moment.

page 47

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33
Q

what is nose wheel shimmy ?

A

is the left and right jerking of the front wheel due to the flexibility of tire sidewalls

page 166

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34
Q

what is the recovery technique for windshear ?

A
  • power
  • pitch
    to regain flight path
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35
Q

how does a crosswind effect the critical engine ?

A

we prefer a crosswind to come from the side of the critical engine or failed engine to help restore the force on the fuselage and fight against the yaw moment caused by the failed engine

page 60

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36
Q

what is the thermal equator ?

A

is the position of the maximum thermal temperature around the earth’s surface

summer = moves toward the pole due to the greater heating experienced at higher latitude

the thermal equator is more coincidental to the actual equator over the sea than over land

page 266

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37
Q

what is TCAS ?

A

Traffic Collision Avoidance System.
provide traffic information and manoeuvres guidance if the path between two planes is conflicting

page 152

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38
Q

what are the inputs of GPWS ?

A
  • RoD
  • radio altimeter
  • flap and gear position
  • ILS GS
  • approach minima
  • throttle position

page 154

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39
Q

why is a fan engine flat rated ?

A

to give the widest possible range of operation keeping within its define structural limits

page 69

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40
Q

what does alternate red and white edge centreline lights on a runway indicate ?

A

US 600m to the end of the runway
UK 900 to the end of the runway

page 315

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41
Q

What are Fowler flaps?

A

They are three slotted trailing edge flaps

Page 40

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42
Q

what is mist and fog ?

A

parcels of low level suspend water droplets in contact with the ground

page 231

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43
Q

who has the right of way between a landing aircraft and an aircraft on the ground ?

A

the landing aircraft

page 309

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44
Q

what is the definition of GRADU is a forecast ?

A

gradual change to a different weather

page 272

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45
Q

what distance along the runway is the runway touch down aiming point ?

A

300m on a 3º glide, marker board markers

page 215

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46
Q

what produces the ignition on a piston engine ?

A

spark plugs connected to magnetos

page 53

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47
Q

what is the definition of BECMG is a forecast ?

A

it indicates a permanent change in the forecast which will start to happen during the specified period

page 271

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48
Q

who has right of way on the ground ?

A

same as sky
planes taking off and landing have right of way

page 308

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49
Q

what indications should you loo for if windshear is expected ?

A

look for airspeed, temperature and lift trend

page 319

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50
Q

what are the hazards associated with flying in a region of volcanic ash ?

A

engine flame out, because the engine is getting starved of air
due to =
- ash built up on fan and compressor blades which upsets the airflow through the engine
- ash deprive the combustion chamber of the air required

page 326

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51
Q

what fuels are used commonly for jet aircraft ?

A

Jet A1 and Jet A

difference is A1 freezes at - 50ºC, A at - 40ºC

page 82

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52
Q

What are Kruger flaps?

A

They are leading edge flaps that increase chamber therefore increase lift

Page 39

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53
Q

how is RVR reported ?

A
  • touchdown zone
  • midpoint
  • stop end
    whenever it is detected to be less then 1500m

midpoint and stop end are only mention if they are either less then:

  • touchdown point, or
  • 800m, or
  • 400m

page 279

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54
Q

how is 0ft represented by the rising runway on the EADI ?

A

by the rising rwy symbol reaching the base of the aircraft symbol

page 148

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55
Q

What is spiral stability and instability ?

A

Spiral stability is the tendency of an aircraft to return into level flight on its on from a turn on release of ailerons.

Spiral instability is the opposite usually found with planes with large fin where the fin will jump into action creating a side slip which will steep the turn until the point of spiral dive.

Page 32

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56
Q

what does EFIS stand ?

A

Electronic Flight Instrument System

page 147

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57
Q

what is SALR ?

A

Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate = 1.5ºC x 1000ft

it commences at a height where a parcel of air temperature is reduced to its dew point temperature. above this point it will start to condense into liquid form ex.cloud

page 227

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58
Q

what are the disadvantages of a IVSI ?

A

is that the balance weight is also effected by acceleration in a turn

page 133

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59
Q

what is magnetic variation ?

A

is the difference between true direction and magnetic direction

page 89

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60
Q

Describe the characteristics of critical Mach number ?

what happens when Mcrit is reached ?

A
  1. Initial Mach buffet due to shock wave
  2. Increase in drag
  3. Mach Tuck
  4. Possible loss of control

Page 23

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61
Q

how does an INS/IRS work ?

A

the INS determines the initial position an give an up to date position as the aircraft accelerates in the horizontal plane on a great circle track.

component:

  • accelerometer
  • gyroscopes
  • position computer

page 93

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62
Q

what is the critical point ?

A

distance to CP = distance x GS HOME
——————————-
GS OUT + GS HOME

page 213

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63
Q

what is the relationship between VMCG and V1 ?

A

V1 cannot be less than VMCG

page 195

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64
Q

what rate of turn should you use in an holding patter ?

A

rate 1

page 296

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65
Q

Define the two major type of drag?

A
Induced drag: 
as speed increases induce drag decreases 
As speed decreases induce drag increases
Parasite drag 
-form drag
-interference drag
-skin friction
Page 6
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66
Q

what are the ASI errors ?

A
  • instrument error
  • pressure error
  • density error
  • compressibility error
  • manoeuvre error
  • blocked pitot static system

page 128

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67
Q

how does the variation of air density due to temperature effects an aircraft’s performance ?

A

aircraft performance decreases

page 119

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68
Q

what does a constant relative bearing of another aircraft at the same altitude mean ?

A

collison risk

page 307

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69
Q

how are HF communications effected at night (or winter) ?

A

at night the ionosphere rises compared to the day therefore you need a lower frequency to reach the same receiver distance. Typically half then daytime.

page 151

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70
Q

what can you do if an aircraft is limited by a distant obstacle in the third departure profile segment ?

A
  • extend V2 climb profile technique
  • reduce take off weight
  • climbing turns to avoid the obstacles

page 206

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71
Q

how does ground effect affect landing distance ?

A

increases landing distance

page 287

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72
Q

why are thunderstorm an hazard to aviation ?

A
  • severe windshear
  • severe turbulence
  • severe icing
  • airframe structural damage
  • reduced visibility
  • lightning strikes
  • radio comm and nav interference

page 234

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73
Q

what is a thermal wind and how is it generated ?

A

are generated by a difference in temperature between two columns of air over large areas and great upper heights

page 237

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74
Q

what is departure ?

A

departure = change in longitude(min) x cos latitude

page 90

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75
Q

what are the lines that run from pole to pole on the earth called?

A

meridians of longitude

page 90

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76
Q

what is VMU speed ?

A

minimum unstick speed at which is possible to get airborne all engine operative

page 189

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77
Q

what is the definition of wind gust factor ?

A

how much wind speed change you can expect in varying wind conditions.

calculation:
a wind gusting from 15 to 25 with a mean of 20 kt will have a gust factor of : 0.5
25-15 = 10
10/20 = 0.5

page 259

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78
Q

what is AGC on weather radar ?

A

Automatic Gain Control.
it lowers the strength of the signal so that the closer target don’t look the brightest given false indication

page 113

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79
Q

what precautions should be taken before and during after refuelling ?

A
  • establish a safe refuelling zone
  • earth the aircraft

page 174

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80
Q

what is the Fohn wind effect ?

A

it’s when air cools as is rising over high ground, where it will lose the moist content, form a cloud with precipitation and come on the other side warm and dry

Fohn wind is the dry warm wind that blows on the lee side

page 242

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81
Q

what is latent heat ?

A

is the heat energy absorbed or released when water changes from one state to another

page 222

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82
Q

what is the final approach fix FAF ?

A

denotes the start of the final approach segment

page 300

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83
Q

what is VRA/MRA ? (VB)

A

VRA = rough air speed or (VB) turbulence penetration speed

page 208

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84
Q

What is lift?

A

Lift is the force caused by the movement of an aerofoil into a airflow (page 3)

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85
Q

how is the height of a cloud base determined ?

A

cloud base height(ft) = surface temp - dew point
————————————- x 1000
3º(DALR)

when the surrounding temperature is the same as or warmer than the temperature inside the cloud, then the air in the cloud will become stable and stop rising. limiting the height of the cloud top.

page 228

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86
Q

what happens to your CAS or IAS and TAS if you fly at constant CAS into a warmer area?

A

IAS CAS stay the same
TAS increases

page 124

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87
Q

what does it mean if you have a port wind in the NH ?

A

that you are flying towards a low pressure system

page 281

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88
Q

what is an increased V2 ?

A

is a technique to improve and aircraft climb gradient.
more speed egual more lift

page 206

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89
Q

what happens to your TAS if you climb at a constant CAS, IAS ?

A

TAS will increase

page 124

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90
Q

what causes surface turbulence ?

A

caused by surface wind being blown over and around surface obstacle

page 254

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91
Q

what is the landing distance available LDA ?

A

is the distance available for landing.
50ft above the surface of the runway threshold height

page 215

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92
Q

describe the effects of a failure/reduction in elevator feels ?

A

whenever the feel is reduced great care must be exercised in its use. slow and smooth movements

page 46

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93
Q

What are the effects of extending flaps in flight?

A

Mainly increase lift and create a nose up pitching pitching moment

Page 40

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94
Q

what is the difference between maximum range cruise (MRC) and long range cruise (LRC) ?

A
MRC = maximum milage is obtained
LRC = is a speed slightly higher than MRC and requires a speed reduction and weight decreases due to fuel burn

page 210

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95
Q

what restriction does the propeller design have ?

A

blade length due to:

  • ground and fuselage clearance
  • blade tip speed

blade chord size due to:

  • increase in chord size will reduce aspect ration
  • increase in chord size will increase twisting moment

page 56

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96
Q

what are fusible tire plugs ?

A

they are in the tubeless wheel hub and they melt under hight temperature to allow the tire plug to be blown out by the tire air pressure, to prevent to much pressure to built in the tire and let the air leak away.

avoids the tire from bursting

page 167

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97
Q

how is aircraft cabin pressure measured ?

A

by differential pressure which is the difference between outside and inside pressure

page 170

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98
Q

What is the lift formula?

A

L= 1/2rho v2 S CL

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99
Q

what is Vr speed ?

A

rotation speed or unstick speed to achieve V2 at screen height.
even with engine failure Vr cannot be less than 1.05VMCA or 1.1 VMU

page 192

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100
Q

What is angle of attack?

A

The angle between the chord line and the airflow (page 3)

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101
Q

Describe the CoG range ?

A

Is the furthest toward and aft position where the CoG acts and where the tailplane can help the aircraft to be longitudinally stable

Page 13

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102
Q

what does HUGS stand for ?

A

head up guidance display (EADI)

page 149

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103
Q

describe the following turn and slip indicaton

A

if the ball is to the left use left rudder
if the ball is to the right use right rudder

Skid = too much rudder or too little bank
Slip = too little rudder or too much bank

page 140

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104
Q

what are PAPI lights/

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator similar to VASI

page 314

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105
Q

when can you disconnect and reconnect a CSD unit ?

A

can be disconnected at any time but reconnection can only be done on the ground

age 180

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106
Q

why is a turbo prop aircraft better suited for short regional operations ?

A
  • has a better short field capability
  • doesn’t need to fly as high for SFC
  • smaller pax capacity for short route

page 58

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107
Q

what component make up a typical EFIS ?

A
  • cathode ray tube
  • EFIS control panel
  • symbol generators
  • E-ADI
  • E-HSI

page 147

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108
Q

describe the electrically driven AH ?

A

same principal as a air driven AH but it can spin faster and is more accurate because more rigid, and turning and accelerations errors are minimised

page 138

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109
Q

when and where is the jet/gas turbine engine (bypass) at it’s most efficient and why ?

A

at high as possible and at high rpm speeds

page 69

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110
Q

How is spoilers blow back prevented ?

A

Follow speed limits

Page 39

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111
Q

what is a tab surface and what can it be used for ?

A

is a small hinged surface found on a primary flight control, it can be used for:

  • trimming
  • control balance
  • servo operation

page 46

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112
Q

what are the LNAV and VNAV FMC functions ?

A

LNAV guides the aircraft into lateral navigation, is available from take off.
VNAV guides the aircraft into vertical navigation including climbing and descending.

page 158

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113
Q

Describe CoG.

A

Is the point where weight acts

Page 12

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114
Q

what is an Ohm a measure of ?

A

unit of electrical resistance

page 176

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115
Q

describe a typical approach lighting arrangement for an ILS ?

A

page 311

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116
Q

what is a great circle track ?

A

is the shortest distance between to point

page 91

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117
Q

where do you find microbursts ?

A

are found underneath cumulonimbus clouds and thunderstorms

page 256

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118
Q

what is a multiplex auto land system ?

A

it’s an auto pilots landing system that comprises of two or more independent autopilots that work together

part 161

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119
Q

what factors determine the loading of an aircraft ?

A

weight and balance

page 184

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120
Q

what is the geostrophic wind ?

A

wind parallel to the isobars with a low pressure system to its left. it’s found at 2000ft and above. is created when the pressure gradient force and the coriolis forced are in balance

is straight W to E

page 236

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121
Q

what are trip-free circuit breakers ?

A

they cannot be pushed back in to complete the circuit after tripping

page 177

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122
Q

what it the greatest contamination of fuel ?

A

water

page 172

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123
Q

what is a conversion angle ?

A

is the angle of difference between a great circle and a rhumb line

page 92

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124
Q

what are the advantages of a IVSI ?

A

more reliable due to immediate display

page 133

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125
Q

what is DA or MDA ?

A
DA = the wheel hight at which a go around must be initiated if decided not to land
MDA = minimum descent altitude

page 277

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126
Q

what is the emergency distance available/ ASDA ?

A

TORA + stopway available

page 187

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127
Q

what do you need to see to continue at the MDH for a non precision approach ?

A

at least one of the following

page 312

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128
Q

should you report any hazardous flight conditions ?

A

yes, the PIC would do so

page 316

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129
Q

what is chart scale ?

A

ratio of chart distance to earth distance

page 92

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130
Q

why do you need to calculate the actual height of a pressure altitude ?

A

any difference from 1013 will give a difference between the pressure altitude and the actual altitude

page 117

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131
Q

how does a VSI work ?

A

expresses the rate of change in static pressure as a rate of descent or climb

page 132

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132
Q

can you detect CAT ?

A

is one of the hardest forms of turbulence to detect.
CAT is a form of windshear therefore needs to look out for situations that create windshear.

a large rapid fluctuation in TAT (+-10ºC) is a good indication of CAT

page 260

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133
Q

what is the difference between Celsius and Fahrenheit ?

A

Celsius: is based on the freezing and boiling temperature of water at 0ºC and 100ºC
Fahrenheit: same but 32ºF and 212ºF

page 224

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134
Q

describe Mach number ?

A

Mn = TAS/LSS

Mn becomes the speed reference at high altitudes passing 26000ft

page 122

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135
Q

what is a deicing system ?

A

a system where ice is allowed to built up on a surface and then removed (ex.pneumatic leading edge boots)

page 174

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136
Q

how does an artificial feel work ?

A

the simplest form is a Spring Box or otherwise a Q Feel which is a sophisticated computer based artificial feel

page 48

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137
Q

how does temperature effects LSS ?

A

as temperature decreases LSS decreases

page 122

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138
Q

what are the different types of depression ?

A
  • frontal
  • thermal
  • tropical storm
  • orographic

page 244

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139
Q

what are the different types of fog ?

A
  • radiation fog
  • advection fog
  • frontal fog

page 231

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140
Q

what is specific fuel consumption ?

A

fuel flow / engine thrust

the ratio of how much fuel you burn compared to engine thrust

page 62

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141
Q

what are the two quantities known as weather minima ?

A
  • DA or MDA
  • RVR

page 277

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142
Q

why is the left engine the critical engine on a multi engine propeller aircraft ?

A

due to:

  • slipstream effect
  • asymmetric blade effect

page 59

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143
Q

what is VMCA speed ?

A

minimum control speed when airborne after engine failure

page 192

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144
Q

what happens to engine pressure ratio on take off roll?

A

the initial decreasing is caused by:

  • engine lag to throttle input
  • P7 (exhaust) is lower than P2 (inlet) because before the flow into the engine gets steady, at the initial stage, P2 will always read more than P7

page 78

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145
Q

what is air pressure ?

A

the weight of a column of air or the gravity of air molecule

page 116

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146
Q

What causes Dutch Roll?

A

Swept wings

When a yaw is induced the adverse action is for the aircraft to roll. As the aircraft rolls the outside wing is producing more speed and therefore more lift to a point where it stalls. This cause a wing drop and an adverse yaw towards the dropped wing at this stage the new outer wing is producing more speed and more lift to a point where now it stalls and the aircraft will yaw towards it. This can continue endlessly.

Page 30

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147
Q

how would you fly an approach if you suspect windshear ?

A
  • increase approach speed to compensate for loss of energy

page 319

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148
Q

what is a VOLMET ?

A

is a continuous broadcast on a VHF/HF frequency that includes:

  • actual weather report
  • landing forecast (trend)
  • a SIGMET (if any)

page 270

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149
Q

What is the effect of weight on rate of descent?

A

If weight increases rate of descent increases (page 2)

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150
Q

what is the advantages of a servo assisted altimeter ?

A

reduce

  • instrument error
  • lag error

page 132

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151
Q

what is a ACAS ?

A

a European Airborne Collision Avoidance System

page 153

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152
Q

How do you correct spoilers blow back ?

A

Reduce speed

Page 39

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153
Q

describe the effects of the air loads on a control surface and how this effects are managed ?

A

hinge moment of air load force = lift force(air load) x arm

lift force experienced depends on

  • airspeed
  • angle of deflection

page 46

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154
Q

how do you calculate glide slope is an approach is only given as a gradient ?

A

GSº = gradient% x 0.57

page 298

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155
Q

how is an INS/IRS better than a GPS especially for navigation information ?

A

INS/IRS is the only truly onboard self contained system and suffers fewer errors than the GPS

page 97

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156
Q

what it the best CoG position with a reduced or failed elevator feel system?

A

forward, to reduce the weight over the elevator feel system, since it need gentle movements, the lighter the better

page 46

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157
Q

what are the requirements of a nose wheel ?

A
  • carry the aircraft weight
  • mean of towing
  • withstand shear loads
  • castoring
  • self-centering
  • steering
  • anti shimmy
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158
Q

what is a typical landing gear layout ?

A

tricycle

page 165

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159
Q

what are tropical revolving storm ?

A

TRS are deep, intense depression found in equatorial regions around the ITCZ

cyclones = indian and pacific ocean
hurricanes = Caribbean
typhoons = china sea

TRS take they energy from water vapour.
Water has to be at least 27ºC which happens after a long hot summer. That’s why they don’t form over cold sea and die out when over cold sea or land.

TRS do not form at the equator because the Coriolis effect is Zero, so they form 5º to 20º of latitude.

page 267

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160
Q

what errors do a VOR experience ?

A
  • equipment errors (max 5º error)
  • site error (signal reflection on near object)
  • propagation error (scalloping effect)

page 103

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161
Q

how can you disconnect an auto throttle system and what indications are there ?

A
  • the pilot can over read the AT by moving the thrust levers
  • AT disengaged switch on thrust lever
  • AT disengaged switch on MCP
  • AT disengages automatically after touch down and in abnormal situations

page 163

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162
Q

what is the required action for a jammed/degraded elevator ?

A

if the elevator is jammed than it’s unusable.
if the elevator control is degraded that it could be assessed if can still be safely used.
actions:
- move CoG aft
- plane a long final
- use low flap settings

page 45

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163
Q

what is windshear ?

A

is any variation of wind speed and/or wind direction from place to place including updraught and downdraught

page 254

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164
Q

what is a variable pitch propeller and why is it used ?

A

it’s a propeller that can change the blade AoA use to its optimum settings in order to maintain propeller efficiency and aircraft thrust over a wide range of aircraft speed

page 57

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165
Q

What’s is Mach number?

A

Mn = TAS/LSS

LSS = 38.94 sq root of T
T in Kelvin = 273 + Celcius degrees

Page 23

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166
Q

how does windshear affects an aircraft ?

A
  • affects the lift capability
  • the dynamic speed is reduced
  • downdraft increases aircraft weight
  • runway overshoot or undershoot

during an approach for landing:

  • if HW increases, performance increases, will Overshoot
  • if HW decreases, performance decreases, will Undershoot

page 255

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167
Q

what is the standard holding pattern direction ?

A

right head

page 292

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168
Q

at what height would you expect the rising runway symbol on an EADI to become active ?

A

usually 200ft radio altimeter but may vary

page 148

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169
Q

what are the CAT I, II,III ILS ICAO RVR approach limits ?

A

CAT I = at least 550m touch down or vis 800m
CAT II = at least 300m touch down, 150m midpoint
CAT IIIa = at least 200m touch down, 150m midpoint
CAT IIIb = at least 50m touch down
CAT IIIc = at least 50 m touch down, 0m midpoint

page 298

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170
Q

How does a forward CoG increase stall speed and why.

A

Weight is a factor affecting stall speed, if weight increases stall speed increases

Page 16

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171
Q

how does aircraft weight affects take off performance ?

A

if weight increases take off performance decreases

page 197

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172
Q

what is typically displayed on a EADI ?

A

(think of glass cockpit, is the digital AH)

page 148

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173
Q

how to calculate the stall speed ?

A

Stall Speed = [2Weight / (Clmax1.225*WingArea)]

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174
Q

what is rate 1,2,3 turn ?

A

rate 1 = 180º per min
rate 2 = 360º per min
rate 3 = 540º per min

page 280

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175
Q

what is a tear drop and when is it used ?

A

180º turn to intercept opposite radial

page 303

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176
Q

how long can you not flying after scuba diving ?

A

12 hrs with compressed air
24 hrs with compressed air below 30ft

page 322

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177
Q

what advantages does AC has over DC ?

A
  • simpler
  • better power to weight ratio
  • voltage can be converted to higher or lower value (transformer)
  • dc can be obtain via a rectifier
  • more reliable

page 179

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178
Q

explain Bernoulli’s theorem

A

if the kinetic energy is increased the pressure/temperature energy drops proportionally and vice versa so as to keep the total energy constant

page 51

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179
Q

how is visibility reported ?

A

from:
- meteo reports
- RVR

page 265

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180
Q

why is fuel measured in terms of mass(weight) rather than its volume ?

A

for mass and balance calculation where mass(weight) is needed. plus volume is effected by temperature

page 174

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181
Q

what is the aviation definition of altitude ?

A

distance above QNH or altitude above mean sea level

page 115

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182
Q

What is elevator reversal?

A

At high speed the air loads over the elevator can be so strong to cause a twisting moment that can push the elevator back to neutral or opposite position cause a reverse of aircraft’s pitch attitude

Page 36

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183
Q

what are the GPWS modes order of priority ?

A

page 155

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184
Q

describe a runaway stabiliser condition and required action ?

A
it's when the brakes te hold the stabiliser into a certain position don't work anymore. 
required action:
- hold control column firmly
- disengage the autopilot 
- cut stab trim out
- hold trim wheel

page 45

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185
Q

what is the purpose of engine relight boundaries ?

A

is to ensure the correct proportion of air is delivered to the engine combustion chamber

approved relight envelope against height

page 79

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186
Q

what are VASI lights ?

A

Visual Approach Slope Indicator

can be 2 or 3 light bars on the side of the runway that give an indication of your position on the glide path

page 314

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187
Q

what is density altitude ?

A

is the pressure altitude corrected for temperature

page 118

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188
Q

describe the diurnal variation of the surface wind

A

by day = the day surface wind is stronger therefore it loses less speed and backs only slightly
by night = the night surface wind is weaker and loses more speed and backs significantly

page 239

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189
Q

What causes/are wing tip vortices?

A

Are caused by the high pressure under the wing trying to reach the low pressure over the wing, the two pressure mix at the trailing edge and wing tip and cause vortices

Page 10

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190
Q

what do you know about air data computers (ADC) ?

A

modern aircraft feed their static and pitot line into an ADC and this data calculates can be feed to other systems like

  • AP
  • FDS
  • FMS
  • GPWS

page 134

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191
Q

Describe how you would optimise the lift design of a swept wing?

A

Add lift devices

Page 20

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192
Q

giving a temperature deviation from ISA of 36ºC the pressure altimeter will over read, under read or remain constant and why ?

A

the altimeter will over read because the deviation is colder than ISA

page 132

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193
Q

what type of extinguisher should be used for electrical and flammable fires normally found in the cockpit ?

A

BCF is a liquified gas agent that vaporises on deployment

page 172

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194
Q

Describe (component) arm?

A

Is the distance between the datum and where the weight component of something acts

Page 12

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195
Q

what errors does a Mach Meter suffer from ?

A
  • instrument error
  • pressure error (position or configuration error)
  • blocked pitot static system

page 129

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196
Q

what factors effect the range of VHF communications ?

A
  • transmission power
  • frequency
  • height
  • obstructions
  • fading

page 150

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197
Q

what are chimed tires ?

A

has a special sidewall construction that diverts the runway water to the side reducing the amount of water getting thrown into the engine

page 167

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198
Q

how does an INS/IRS find true north ?

A

it’s aligned to true north via gyroscopes

page 93

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199
Q

describe the remote indicating compass ?

A

is a combination of DG and Magnetic Compass in a single instrument

page 143

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200
Q

describe a typical breaking system ?

A

most use hydraulic fluid pressure to move friction brakes pads

page 167

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201
Q

describe a typical FMS ?

A

the main section of the FMS is the FMC which is a dual system using dual FMC, and two CDU (control display units)

page 157

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202
Q

what is VCMG speed ?

A

minimum control speed on the ground

VMCG need to be lower than V1 to ensure directional control of the aircraft after the critical engine has failed, once a decision has been made to reject the take off before the latest decision speed is reached

page 189

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203
Q

what is visual black hole effect ?

A

when the runway is the darkness and gives the illusion of begin higher

page 332

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204
Q

what is VNO speed ?

A

is the normal operation speed

page 209

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205
Q

what are the ICAO aircraft category weight definitions ?

A

H 136000kg
M 7000kg 136000kg
L below 7000kg

page 288

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206
Q

what is a SPECI ?

A

report issued whenever a critical meteorological conditions exist

page 269

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207
Q

Describe stability at high altitudes?

A

Stability is reduced at high altitudes in term of dynamic stability mainly because aerodynamic damping(restoring moment) decreases with altitude

Page 34
Whenever in-flight maneuvers result in rotation of an aircraft about or near its center of gravity, a restoring moment is created by the changed relative airflow. This restoring moment opposes the control demands, and it arrests maneuvers as and when the control demands cease. The effectiveness of the restoring moment (known as aerodynamic damping) is dependent on the dynamic pressure (i.e., indicated air speed). As altitude increases, true air speed increases for the given equivalent air speed, resulting in decreased aerodynamic forces. Thus, at higher altitudes the pilot must apply greater opposite control movements to arrest rotation.

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208
Q

why does a powered control surface needs a artificial feel system ?

A

cause they do not feed back to the pilot any sensory information

page 48

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209
Q

what colour container is BCF stored in ?

A

red

page 172

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210
Q

what is MLS ?

A

Microwave Landing System, is more accurate then ILS

page 105

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211
Q

why and when should a pilot use 100% oxygen on demand ?

A

in case a life support reasons

loss of decompression

page 171

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212
Q

can a maximum take off weight aircraft use a reduce take off thrust ?

A

yes, but needs a longer runway

page 77

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213
Q

what are the wind gust correction applied to the approach speed ?

A

ex. Vref 120kt, HW 20ktG28kt

120 + 10 (1/2 stable wind) + 8(gust value)=138kt

at the MCC course was:
120 + 5 + 14(1/2 gust factor) = 139

page 286

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214
Q

what is a secondary cell battery ?

A

is a battery that can be recharged

page 178

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215
Q

what does it mean if a take off weight is limited by an obstacle in the second segment ?

A

it means that the weight has to be reduce to clean an obstacle in the second segment being able to fly at V2

page 205

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216
Q

what is frontal activity ?

A

is the interaction of at least 2 air masses

page 249

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217
Q

describe TAT

A

is the total air pressure

TAT is higher than OAT whenever there is a airflow into the temperature probe (heating error)

page 224

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218
Q

For are the 4 reasons for a variable incidence tailplane stabiliser especially on jet aircrafts ?

A
  • provide balance force for large centre of gravity range
  • provide a balancing force for a large speed range
  • to cope with large speed changes
  • to reduce elevator trim drag to a minimum

Page 43

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219
Q

how do antiskid system work ?

A

once it sense the wheel is not rotating it releases brakes pressure

page 170

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220
Q

describe a veering and backing wind ?

A
veering = clockwise change (souther hemisphere)
backing = anticlockwise change (northern hemisphere)

page 235

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221
Q

what is the compression ratio of a gas turbine engine ?

A

is the difference between the Inlet and Outlet part of either a:

  • individual compressor stage, or
  • the complete compression section of the engine

page 65

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222
Q

How do you prevent span wise flow?

A

Fences and vortex generators which direct the airflow perpendicular to the upper wing leading edge

Page 11

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223
Q

why is the propeller blade twisted ?

A

to maintain a constant AoA

page 56

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224
Q

what steps can be taken to safeguard against water contamination ?

A
  • water drain in fuel tanks
  • fuel heater (heat the fuel and evaporate water)
  • atmosphere exclusion in the fuel tanks

page 172

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225
Q

what is the main influence on mach number ?

A

if LSS decreases Mn increases

page 123

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226
Q

what is a SIGMET ?

A

report that advises of significant weather conditions

page 269

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227
Q

what are the ICAO final approach separation minima ?

A
H-H 4nm
H-M 5nm
H-L 6nm
M-H 3nm
M-M 3nm
M-L 5nm
L-H 3nm
L-M 3nm
L-L 3nm

page 289

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228
Q

what actions should you take to prevent or remove carburator/throttle icing ?

A

carburator heat on

page 325

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229
Q

what do you know about CAT II and III procedures ?

A

they are low visibility procedures

page 299

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230
Q

describe a typical aircraft fire detection and protection system ?

A
  • overheat and fire detection loop
  • fault monitoring system
  • fire extinguishers and fire circuits
  • testing facility
  • toilet/cargo smoke detectors

page 83

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231
Q

What are winglets and how do they work?

A

Are little fences on the wing tip that help reduce drag and increase fuel consumption by preventing the mixing of the bottom and upper wing airflow

Page 11

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232
Q

what is MABH ?

A

minimum approach break off height, is the lowest height of the wheels above the ground where if a go around was initiated wheels will not touch the ground

page 300

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233
Q

Describe how you would design a high speed aircraft wing?

A

Thin, minimal chamber, swept wings

Page 19

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234
Q

what are the common types of aviation forecast ?

A
  • Area Forecast
  • TAF and Trend
  • Special Forecast

page 270

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235
Q

how does humidity affects landing performance ?

A

high humidity decrease air density therefore reduces aircraft performance and increases LDR

218

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236
Q

how is tire creep detected ?

A

is detected by a mark that is coincidental on the tire and wheel hub, if it moves so that it doesn’t match up anymore tire creep is happening

page 167

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237
Q

when would you expect carburator icing in a piston engine ?

A

carby icing = -10º to +30º with a high humidity or visible moisture in the air
throttle icing = +10º to +15º with a relative humidity greater than 40%

page 325

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238
Q

describe an ILS and how it works ?

A

is the most accurate precision approach landing system

it’s made off two beacons which guide the aircraft to land
the first one is provided by the Localiser which gives left and right on track guidance.
the second one is the Glide Slope which gives up and down on track guidance.

GS extends to 8º left and right and can be captured at 10 nm.
ILS uses 100 to 150 MHz frequency
GS uses 329 to 335 MHz frequency

page 104

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239
Q

can you obtain ground reverse/braking thrust from propellers ?

A

Yes
ex. Cessna Caravan

page 61

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240
Q

what is temperature ?

A

temperature is measure of molecule agitation in a substance

page 223

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241
Q

describe tire speed limits

A

restrict the aircraft maximum take off weight to protect tires from blowing out on take off roll

page 203

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242
Q

What produces the maximum glide range?

A

Best lift drag ratio, flying at minimum drag speed VIMD (page 2)

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243
Q

what do you know about servo assisted altimeters ?

A

is more accurate because it doesn’t rely on the mechanical but it’s electrically conducted bar arrangement

page 132

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244
Q

what are the advantages of a pneumatic system over a hydraulic system ?

A
  • air weights less then fluid
  • there is an free endless supply of it

page 165

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245
Q

what inflight weather report can you access ?

A
  • flight info services or ATC
  • VOLMET
  • ATIS

page 269

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246
Q

what are the ICAO ISA conditions at sea level ?

A

15ºC, QNH 1013, ELP 2º x 1000ft

page 115

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247
Q

what are the FMS’s three sources of input data?

A
  • stored database
  • pilot inputs
  • other aircraft system

page 157

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248
Q

describe an engine hung start, its causes, indications and actions ?

A

it happens when the engine ignites but it doesn’t reach its self sustaining rpms due to the insufficient airflow to supply the combustion.

causes:

  • low air density (high elevation, hot condition)
  • inefficient compression
  • low starter rpms

indications:

  • EGT above normal
  • engine rpms below normal

actions:

  • close fuel lever
  • motor the engine

to have a successful start in hot and high conditions you need supply more air not more fuel

page 74

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249
Q

what are METARS ?

A

a snapshot of conditions at the time, compiled every 30 min

they include =

  • w/v
  • vis
  • precipitation
  • cloud
  • temperature
  • dew point
  • pressure (QNH)

page 268

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250
Q

what are the disadvantages of an INS ?

A

errors that do not increase:

  • shuler loop
  • north alignment

errors that increase:

  • incorrect position input (will cause velocity and position error)
  • north alignment

Inherent system errors:

  • no allowance for distance being greater at height than on the ground (not very large)
  • doesn’t make allowance for the earth not being a real sphere

page 94

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251
Q

what is an EFIS ?

A

is fully integrated computer base digital nav system

page 147

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252
Q

What is Dutch Roll ?

A

It’s yaw and roll together. It’s a oscillatory instability associated with swept wings.

Page 30

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253
Q

what is the combustion cycle of an piston engine ?

A
  • induction
  • compression
  • combustion
  • exhaustion

page 52

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254
Q

what are the various ETOPS category ?

A

from 60 to 180 min

page 274

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255
Q

how is range increased when flying into a head wind ?

A

we want to spend less time as possible into wind and that is why speed in increased. with increased speed to spend less time into wind, the less time we are effected by the wind the more Range we gain.

page 210

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256
Q

What is the aileron and how does it work?

A

Page 35

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257
Q

what is the runway stopway ?

A

it’s an area at the end of the runway used for an aircraft to stop in case of rejected take off

page 187

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258
Q

how does wind affect landing performance ?

A
HW = reduces LDR
TW = increases LDR

page 218

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259
Q

What is anhedral ?

A

Is the downward inclination of the wings to decrease lateral stability ex.antonov Russian plane (page 3)

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260
Q

why gas turbine engine have auto igniters ?

A

they work by sensing a particular value of incidence of the aircraft and ignite to make sure the engine doesn’t stall in case of turbulent airflow

page 81

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261
Q

describe windshear warning ?

A

the GPWS will generate the windshear warning.
are active from the ground level to a height of 1500ft.

they require immediate go around at full thrust

page 156

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262
Q

what speed stability difference are there between a jet aircraft and a prop driven aircraft

A

the jet has poorer stability then prop plane

page 87

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263
Q

what is FADEC ?

A

full authority digital engine control

page 81

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264
Q

what is an ADS-B ?

A

Automated Dependant Surveillance Broadcast similar to TCAS

page 153

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265
Q

what is VMO/MMO ?

A

is the maximum operating speed

page 209

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266
Q

how does a basic CSD work ?

A

consist of an engine driven hydraulic pump that drives a hydraulic motor which itself drives the alternator

page 180

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267
Q

when are you not permitted to take off from a wet runway ?

A
  • if the antiskid is not operative
  • if standing water is too much
  • type restrictions

page 200

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268
Q

how do you engage an auto throttle system ?

A

is engaged by a master switch on the MCP

page 163

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269
Q

what is climb gradient ?

A

change in height divided by horizontal distance travelled

page 204

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270
Q

how do you time a holding pattern ?

A

up to 14000ft = 1 minute outbound

above 14000ft = 1 1/2 minute outbound

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271
Q

what is aquaplaning ?

A

is the phenomenon of tyres skating (not rotating) over the runway surface over a thin film of water

page 321

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272
Q

what are the two main types of anti icing fluids used for deicing on the ground ?

A

type I fluid = they provide limited protection
type II fluid = better hold over time

hold over time depends upon =

  • type of snow
  • wet or dry snow
  • airframe temperature
  • OAT
  • amount of precipitation

page 323

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273
Q

what is the purpose of cockpit window heating ?

A

to reinforce the windshield and prevent it from braking in case of bird strike

page 175

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274
Q

what is the wind direction around a high pressure system ?

A

clockwise in NH
anticlockwise SH

page 247

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275
Q

describe how a mach meter works ?

A

measures the airspeed relative to the speed of sound.
It’s a combined ASI and Altimeter.

Mn = dynamic pressure/static pressure

page 128

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276
Q

describe GPS

A

it’s Global Positioning System.
- it’s made of 24 satellites but only 21 are operative at one time.
- 6 orbital planes (each one is 3-4 satellites)
- each orbital plane is 55º to equator
- 4 satellites will always be in line of sight at any position of the earth
n1 e n2 establish LAT and LONG
n3 confirm the FIX
n4 altitude info

the GPS receiver uses the time delay between transmission and reception to calculate its distance to the satellite

page 95

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277
Q

What are the effects of compressibility?

A
  • airspeed indicator shows and over-read error
  • shock wave / drag

Page 25

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278
Q

what is the aviation definition of flight lever ?

A

pressure lever above standard QNH 1013

page 115

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279
Q

describe secondary (surveillance) radar and how it works /

A

works on the respondent-reply signal principal

page 110

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280
Q

How do flaps affect take off ground run?

A

The right a degree of flaps will improve lift and reduce the take off run

Page 41

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281
Q

describe the characteristics and weather common to a passage of a warm front

A

as the warm front approaches:

  • lowering cloud base
  • poor vis
  • pressure drops

as the front passes:

  • temperature rises
  • pressure stops falling or rises
  • low level stratus
  • wind veers
  • good vis

page 250

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282
Q

what are the indications of thermal expansion and use of the fire bottle on the side of the aircraft fuselage ?

A

separate disks, one for extinguishment release and one to indicate use

page 83

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283
Q

what are the IFR flight levels ?

A

0º to 179º is odd
181º to 359º is even

up to FL290 is 1000ft difference the it becomes 2000ft

RVSM start from FL290 and keep the 1000ft

page 276

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284
Q

describe an engine hot start and its causes, indications, and actions ?

A

it starts as a normal start but then the EGT rises above max limits

causes:

  • overfueling
  • air intake/exhaust blocked
  • tailwind causing compressor to run backward
  • seized engine

actions:

  • close fuel lever
  • motor the engine

page 75

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285
Q

Describe the change in the centre of pressure as an aircraft speed increases past the critical Mach number ?

A

As speed increases above Mach critical number the shockwave created will get bigger and move backwards and backward. The highest lift is in front of the shock wave so the CoP will move with it. As the CoP moves rearward it will lift the tail and pitch the nose down causing Mach Tuck

Page 23

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286
Q

what does HUD stand for ?

A

head up display (EADI)

page 149

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287
Q

how does the wind affects the position of the critical point ?

A

the critical point moves into wind

page 214

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288
Q

What is CL?

A

Is made of angle of attack and chamber (page 4)

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289
Q

what are the general EFIS color coding?

A
green = active or selected
white = present situation and scale
magenta = command infos
cyan = nonactive 
red = warning
yellow = caution
black = off

page 149

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290
Q

what is the most most practical way to eliminate a fire ?

A

remove its oxygen supply

page 172

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291
Q

what procedures would you adopt when flying in a region of volcanic ash ?

A
  • 180º turn
  • if in it select high bleed system on
  • APU on if necessary to help the engine to restart

page 326

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292
Q

what are active(automatic) controls?

A

an active control is a control surface that moves automatically

page 49

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293
Q

what is compression ration in a piston engine ?

A

total volume / clearance volume

page 52

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294
Q

Describe the effects of a stuck stabiliser.

A

Is degraded longitudinal balancing ability which is due to the employment of the less powerful elevator in providing this longitudinal balancing force

Page 43

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295
Q

What happens to the stall speed at very high altitudes and why ?

A

The stall speed increases

Because of:

  • Mach number compressibility effect over the wing
  • compressibility error on the IAS

Page 28

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296
Q

describe the SRA non precision approach ?

A

a radar controller can provide tracking guidance and height information down to final approach

radar knows lateral position not vertical position

page 301

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297
Q

what is dew and how is it formed ?

A

is a water cover over the ground that is formed when:

  • cloudless night
  • moist air
  • light winds

page 232

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298
Q

what guaranteed altitude/height would you be able to achieve at MTOW WAT limited conditions with one engine inoperative ?

A

the circuit height

page 201

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299
Q

what elements are required for a fire ?

A
  • oxygen
  • combustible material (ex.fuel)
  • ignition source (ex.heat)

page 172

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300
Q

what are the recommended adjustments to HW and TW component when calculating the take off and landing field performance ?

A

not more than 50% of report HW
not less than 150% of reported TW
should be used to calculate take off and landing performance

page 200

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301
Q

how do you control an aquaplane ?

A

antiskid system that releases brakes if it senses a skid

page 322

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302
Q

what is ELR ?

A

Environmental Lapse Rate = 2ºC x 1000ft

page 226

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303
Q

What is negative g force ?

A

Above 1 g

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304
Q

why does a jet aircraft climb as high as possible ?

A

because that is where they operate the best .

high rpm speed due to low air density

  • minimum cruise airframe drag
  • best engine SFC

page 70

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305
Q

how does an automatic brake system decelerates an aircraft ?

A

the control the amount of break pressure by controlling the metering valve .
usually monitors the reverse thrust and applies the autobrakes and a combined system

page 168

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306
Q

what are the normal route operating performance limitations for an aircraft ?

A
  • en route terrain clearance
  • max range limit
  • ETOPS (extended twin ops)

page 212

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307
Q

what is the definition of PROB ?

A

probability of weather change

page 272

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308
Q

what is the significance of the 40 to 100 kt calls during the take off ?

A

is used to check the requirements that must be established by certain speed called

page 189

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309
Q

what is an INS/IRS ?

A

Inertial Navigation System, it’s a navigation system, like an internal gps without external assistance.

Inertial Reference System, is a modern INS that work with the FMS and provides actual magnetic position and heading information with reference to the FMS required position and heading

page 92

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310
Q

describe the earth’s magnetic field ?

A

the earth act like a big magnet with north and south magnetic poles that are slightly offset from the geographic poles

page 142

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311
Q

what is specific heat capacity ?

A

is the capability to hold heat

page 222

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312
Q

how do you define propeller efficiency ?

A

propeller efficiency = prop thrust / engine bhp

page 56

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313
Q

what is a procedure turn and when is it used ?

A

45º/180º
80º/260º

page 302

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314
Q

describe brakes energy limits

A

restrict the aircraft maximum take off weight to protect brakes from being effective

page 203

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315
Q

What are the 4 flying qualities penalties experienced at very high altitude?

A
  1. Restricted operating speed range
  2. Reduced manoeuvrability
  3. Reduce aerodynamic damping
  4. Reduced stability

Page 34

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316
Q

what is a servo driven attitude indicator ADI (remote AH) ?

A

is used in modern aircraft to display attitude informations calculated by the IRS.
the system is free of errors

page 138

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317
Q

what is and ADF beat frequency oscillator (BFO) used for ?

A

BFO imposes a tone onto the carrier wave to make it audible to the pilot

page 101

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318
Q

what is the definition of CAVOK ?

A
  • vis equal or greater then 10km
  • no clouds below 5000ft or below the highest MSA, and no CB at any altitude
  • no precipitations

“CAVOK does not mean clear blue sky”

page 272

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319
Q

what happens to Mn and CAS or IAS when climbing through an isothermal layer at a constant TAS?

A

isothermal layer is a layer of constant temperature
Mn depends on temperature therefore it will remain constant.
CAS and IAS will decrease

pag 125

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320
Q

What are the effects of raising flaps in flight?

A

Lift loss

Page 40

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321
Q

what do you need to see to continue at DH for a CAT II approach ?

A

less restrictive cause more precise then CAT I

  • approach light centreline
  • touch down zone light
  • runway centre lights
  • runway edge lights

page 313

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322
Q

what are the different ways of transferring heat energy into the atmosphere ?

A
  • radiation
  • conduction
  • convection

page 222

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323
Q

where do you find windshear ?

A

low lever windshear = below 3000ft

  • CAT
  • frontal passage
  • microburst

medium high lever windshear

  • CAT in form of jetstreams
  • frontal passage

page 254

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324
Q

Describe parallel Yaw Dampers?

A

They works in parallel with the pilot’s pedals. Their activity is reflected in the rudder bar activity because they move the pedals

Page 42

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325
Q

descrive the weight, altitude and temperature limits

A

they can all limit the aircraft weight

page 201

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326
Q

what is an holding procedures ?

A

awaiting procedure

page 292

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327
Q

what is screen height ?

A

is the minimum height to be achieved before the end of the clearway (should engine failure occur on take off)

page 186

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328
Q

how does the runway length, surface, slope affects take off performance ?

A
  • length can restrict take off weight
  • surface can increase or reduce the take off and landing distance per weight
  • slope can increase or reduce the take off and landing distance per weight

page 200

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329
Q

what effect does windshear have during an approach for landing ?

A

during an approach for landing:

  • if HW increases (or TW decreases)performance increases, aircraft will Overshoot
  • if HW decreases (or TW increases) performance decreases, aircraft will Undershoot

page 319

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330
Q

describe the airflow between a low and a high pressure system

A

page 248

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331
Q

how does a battery create electrical energy ?

A

due to chemical action that separates the electrons from from atoms

page 178

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332
Q

what are the gyro flight instruments ?

A
  • DG
  • AH
  • turn and slip indicator or coordinator

page 135

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333
Q

what is a DME arc procedure ?

A

a procedure following a DME arc distance

page 302

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334
Q

describe the Auto Throttle control system ?

A

are designed to control and maintain thrust and speed

page 162

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335
Q

What are the reason/effects of keeping the CoG inside its limits ?

A

Ensure

  • Not too nose or tail heavy
  • aircraft pitch control is not compromise
  • minimum horizontal tailplane deflection
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336
Q

how are cloud types classified /

A
  • cirriform or fibrous
  • cumuliform
  • stratiform
  • nimbus
  • cirro = high level clouds 16500ft to 20000ft
  • alto = medium level clouds above 6500
  • low level clouds below 6500

page 229

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337
Q

describe SAT

A

ambient static air temperature

page 224

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338
Q

how do you correct for a high sink rate on approach ?

A

increase thrust

page 285

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339
Q

on a color weather radar display, what colours represent the areas of greatest turbulence ?

A

thunderstorms appear as red colour, turbulence are associated with them

page 113

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340
Q

can you extend the outbound leg of an holding pattern as a base tunr ?

A

Yes

page 303

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341
Q

what is the purpose of a FMS ?

A

it’s to manage the aircraft performance and route navigation to achieve the optimum results

page 157

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342
Q

how does pressure altitude affects take off performance ?

A

high pressure altitude decrease take off performance
and vice versa

page 198

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343
Q

What is dihedral ?

A

Is the upward inclination of the wing to improve lateral stability ex.PA28 (page 3)

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344
Q

what are circuit breakers ?

A

they are thermal devices that open the circuit when they experience an overload

page 177

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345
Q

describe the purpose built ILS indicator ?

A

it’s an instrument that can show VOR or ILS depending on the frequency

page 145

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346
Q

how does the use of flaps affects aircraft performance ?

A

page 197

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347
Q

what is real wander of a gyroscope ?

A

occurs when the gyroscope’s spin axis moves away from its alignment in space

page 136

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348
Q

What is the best CoG position with a stuck stabiliser and why ?

A

is the AFT position.
Because it need to be tail heavy to improve elevator movements

page 43

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349
Q

why is it important to monitor pneumatic tire temperature prior to take off ?

A

an increase in temperature lead to an increase in tire pressure

page 169

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350
Q

how do you calculate the pressure altitude actual height ?

A

difference between actual QNH and standard QNH multiplied by 27 (27ft x 1 hpa), then add or subtract from starting altitude.

from high to low beware below
from low to high you-re up in the sjy

page 117

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351
Q

describe EAS

A

is the equivalent airspeed,
is CAS corrected for compresability error

page 121

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352
Q

describe the characteristics of a surface wind ?

A

at the surface the wind weakens in strength and backs in direction in the Northern H. and veers in the Southern H.

page 238

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353
Q

what is an adequate/suitable aerodrome, especially in regards to ETOPS diversion/alternate aerodrome ?

A

page 274

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354
Q

why does a warm front move slower than a cold front ?

A

because the warm front uses a lot of energy when the warm air tries to climb over the cold air mass

page 251

355
Q

what is Loran C ?

A

long range navigation system that uses ground based beacons that operates in the low frequency band using surface waves to achieve range of more the 100 nm

page 99

356
Q

what do you do if V1 is greater than VMBE ?

A

take off weight has to be reduced

page 192

357
Q

how is the oxygen pax system activated ?

A

manually by the flight crew

automatically by a barometric pressure controller that sense a 14000ft cabin altitude

358
Q

why does EPR need to be set by 40 to 80 kts on take off ?

A

to ensure V1 and Vr are achieved by the take off run required rotate point

page 79

359
Q

what do you know about VHF communications ?

A
  • are used for short communications
  • they are line of sight

page 150

360
Q

what actions should be taken if two planes are approaching head on ?

A

both turn right

page 307

361
Q

how do propeller aircraft generate noise ?

A

from the sheer effect of propeller spinning through the air

page 61

362
Q

with two aircraft converging in the air which one must give way and how ?

A

the one that has the other one on its right by turning both to the right

page 307

363
Q

What properties affect an aircraft’s stall speed ?

A
  • weight
  • altitude
  • wing design
  • configuration
  • prop speed

Page 27

364
Q

What is coffin corner?

A

Coffin corner is reached when the aircraft reaches its absolute ceiling where stall speed and Mach critical number are the same.

Stall speed is the lowest speed to fly at before reaching stall
Mcrit is the maximum speed to fly at before reaching stall

Page 27

365
Q

describe the formation of mountain lenticular clouds ?

A

airflow rises over mountains due to orographic lifting and cools adiabatically.
stable air = stratus clouds
unstable air = cumulus clouds

also , rotor clouds may be present on the lee side

page 230

366
Q

describe a radio altimeter and how it works ?

A

it’s an altimeter that uses radio waves to calculate height instead of pressure change.
the time taken for the reflected signal to return corresponds to its height.

it work from:
0 to 2500ft for continuous wave radar beam
50ft to 2500ft for pulse radar beam

page 146

367
Q

describe the in flight precautions for icing conditions

A
  • avoid icing conditions
  • keep probe heating
  • visually check for ice build up
  • monitor air temp

page 324

368
Q

what are the pressure flight instruments and how do they work ?

A
  • ASI and MM
  • ALT
  • VSI

VSI and ALT measure the change in static pressure via static ports

ASI via the use of a pitot tube which measures the dynamic pressure by the difference of total pressure minus static pressure.

page 127

369
Q

what is a microburst ?

A

is a severe downdraft

page 256

370
Q

what is the definition of RAPID in a forecast ?

A

rapid change less then 30 min

page 272

371
Q

What are the primary control surface?

A

Ailerons, elevators, rudder

Page 35

372
Q

what do you need to see to continue at DH for a CATI approach ?

A

same least as non precision approach

page 312

373
Q

what is EPR ?

A

is the primary engine thrust instrument

jet engine:
fan outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure

turbo prop:
max compressor cycle to compressor inlet ambient temperature

page 73

374
Q

if two aircraft are flying at two different flying levels at the same Mn, which aircraft has the highest TAS/CAS(IAS) ?

A

the one at the lower altitude

page 125

375
Q

give the following definition QUJ, QTE, QDR, QDM

A

QUJ: true bearing TO the station
QTE: true bearing FM the station
QDR: magnetic bearing FM the station
QDM: magnetic bearing TO the station

page 100

376
Q

what is the difference between a dry V1 and wet V1 ?

A

dry V1 is the normal decision speed
wet V1 improves the stopping capabilities back to dry conditions but with a reduce screen height

Wet V1 is a LOWER speed than Dry V1

page 190

377
Q

describe how clouds are formed ?

A
  • moisture in the air
  • a lifting action : convection, turbulence, frontal, orographic
  • adiabatic cooling of the raising air

page 228

378
Q

what is electricity ?

A

the movement of electrons that produces power

page 175

379
Q

describe the directional indicator instrument (DG) ?

A

it is a gyro that displays aircraft heading

  • tied gyro
  • rotates around earth horizontal axis
  • two gimbals
  • three planes of freedom
  • the axis is aligned to true north

page 136

380
Q

what are the inputs to Q Feel ?

A
  • static and dynamic pressure
  • control surface angle of deflection

page 49

381
Q

how is the landing gear extended and retracted ?

A

via a gear lever
green = down and locked
red = up and locked

the gear is locked by mechanical locks.

for emergency dumping the gear is hold up by pressure so that the release of that pressure will dump the gear down in case of lever malfunction

page 166

382
Q

how is MAP defined on a NDB approach ?

A

it’s a fix to where you have to fly to before you can start a miss approach

page 297

383
Q

what indications are there of a discharged crew oxygen bottle as a result of excess pressure ?

A
  • a green disk is blown out on the aircraft fuselage
  • oxygen pressure gauge will show below normal or zero

page 171

384
Q

what is a variable/reduce thrust take off ?

A

it’s a take off with reduce take off thrust

page 75

385
Q

what oxygen supply is delivered when selected to normal ? (pilot mask)

A

a mixture of oxygen and cabin air on demands

page 171

386
Q

what are a typical aircraft source of AC power ?

A
  • AC generator
  • Inverter (DC to AC)
  • ground AC supply
  • transformer (change AC voltage level)

page 179

387
Q

what is the adiabatic process ?

A

is a process where heat is neither added nor released but the expansion or compression of a gas changes is temperature

page 226

388
Q

what is an extended V2 climb ?

A

one in which the aircraft second segment climb is either

  • continued to the highest possible level off height, or
  • continued to an unlimited height with max continuous thrust

page 207

389
Q

why do cumulus clouds have flat bases and round tops ?

A

flat bases = due to the uniform decrease in temperature
round tops = due to the uneven decrease in ELR at different magnitude within the cloud due to currents of rising air

page 229

390
Q

what is an isothermal layer ?

A

a layer where the temperature is constant

page 226

391
Q

what is a fuel injected system and what are its advantages and disadvantages ?

A

advantages:

  • free of icing problem in the venturi
  • more uniform delivery
  • improved fuel-air ratio
  • fewer maintenance problem
  • instant response
  • increased engine efficiency

disadvantages:

  • subjected to fuel vaporisation (fuel line close to engine)
  • difficult to start when already hot
  • more susceptible to contamination (fine fuel lines)
  • the fuel return line goes only to one tank causing unbalance

page 64

392
Q

explain the auto throttle operating control mode ?

A
  • take off thrust
  • go around thrust
  • max continues thrust
  • airspeed
    airspeed and mach hold

page 164

393
Q

What is the recovery technique from Dutch roll?

A

Use of opposite ailerons (2-3 times)
Rudder will not be effective as the pilot is not quick enough to counteract the yaw.

Yaw damper

Page 30

394
Q

What do leading edge slats do?

A

Increase wing chamber, increase lift, decrease stall speed

Page 39

395
Q

what is RVR ?

A

Runway Visual Range, is an highly accurate instrument derived visibility measurement that represents the range at which the runway high intensity lights can be seen in the direction of landing along the runway

RVR are measured at three points along the runway:

  • touchdown point
  • midpoint
  • endpoint

page 278

396
Q

what does radar stand for ?

A

radio detection and ranging

page 109

397
Q

What advantages does a jet aircraft gain from a swept wing?

A
  • High Mach cruise speed
  • stability in turbulence

Page 20

398
Q

describe the requirements for a CAT II and III approach ?

A
  • pilots have to be endorsed
  • equipment is certified
  • weather minima

page 299

399
Q

what is a transformer ?

A

changes AC voltage level

page 179

400
Q

how does a change in the air temperature affect an aircraft’s flight level ?

A
  • an higher than ISA air temperature makes the air less dense. actual flight will be higher than the pressure level red by the altimeter
  • a lower than ISA air temperature makes the air denser. actual flight will be lower than the pressure level red by the altimeter

page 225

401
Q

what is the point of no return PNR ?

A

the last point enroute which is possible to turn back
PNR = endurance( hours) x GS HOME
———————————————
GS OUT + GS HOME

page 214

402
Q

decode the following TAF ?

A

page 271

403
Q

What is the mean chord line?

A

Wing area divided by wing span

404
Q

what is pressure altitude ?

A

is the height above 1013

page 116

405
Q

who has right of way over the overtaking manoeuvre ?

A

the overtaken plane

page 308

406
Q

how is the cabin pressure control ?

A

via cabin outflow valve

page 170

407
Q

is there a critical engine on a jet gas turbine aircraft ?

A

No but there are crosswind considerations to be made

page 82

408
Q

What is a stabiliser / variable incidence tail plane ?

A

It’s an all moving tail plane

409
Q

how would you overtake another aircraft ?

A

by keeping right of it

page 308

410
Q

What limits the use of spoilers and why they blow back?

A

Very high speeds which cause them to blow back

Page 39

411
Q

which brake get the hotter during a landing ?

A

with a crosswind, the downwind brakes

page 169

412
Q

describe the net take off flight path

A

is the true distance versus the horizontal distance travelled

pag 204

413
Q

What is the purpose of vortex generator / fences?

A

Vortex generators disturb the airflow improving ailerons effectiveness because disturbed airflow sticks to the wing longer

Fences they impose in front of the airflow that tries to reach the wing tip when the root has stalled, keeping the airflow over the wing tip un-stalled

Page 11

414
Q

Describe series yaw dampers?

A

It operates on the rudder but the system doesn’t actually move the rudder pedals

Page 42

415
Q

what is an AIRMET ?

A

recorded telephone forecast for a particular area

page 267

416
Q

what is the difference between VMCA and V2 ?

A

V2 cannot be less than VMCA x 1.1

page 196

417
Q

Why does a jet aircraft have (need) a large CoG range ?

A

Because it’s CoG can change with the change in weight during the flight

Page 17

418
Q

what is the wind direction around a low pressure system ?

A

NH anticlockwise
SH clockwise

page 244

419
Q

describe the minimum rate climb profile (Vy)

describe Vy

A

best rate of climb

page 207

420
Q

What are spoilers and how do they work?

A

Spoilers consist of opening panels over the wing. They can work as spoiler, differential, to spoil the airflow, create more drag to help in a turn.

They can work as speed breaks, working in parallel to increase drag and dump lift on landing and to slow the plane down

Page 37

421
Q

what are the various GPWS modes ?

A

page 155

422
Q

Describe aspect ratio

A

Ratio of wing span and geometric chord
High aspect ratio = high lift
Low aspect ration = low lift

423
Q

what does HST mean on a airfield runway chart ?

A

high speed turn off a runway

page 280

424
Q

what is compass deviation ?

A

is the difference between magnetic direction and compass direction

page 89

425
Q

what are the minima for SRA procedures ?

A

SRA 1/2 NM = 250FT MDH
SRA 1 NM = 300FT MDH
SRA 2 NM = 350FT MDH

page 301

426
Q

when fling over or even landing at a foreign state whose air law do you abide to ?

A

the country i am landing on

page 306

427
Q

what common pressure error is commonly experienced ?

A

barometric pressure error on the altimeter

page 117

428
Q

what produces thrust in propeller driven aircraft ?

A

the movement of the propeller through the air

page 55

429
Q

why is the correct rotation rate important especially on large jet ?

A

ensures the aircraft leaves the ground at the correct distance

page 281

430
Q

what are SIDs ?

A

Standard Instrument Departures

page 291

431
Q

what is GPWS and how it works ?

A
Ground Proximity Warning System 
it's a central computer system that detects:
- excessive barometric rate of descent
- excessive terrain closure rate
- height loss after take off
- flaps or gear not selected for landing
- too low on ILS GS
- descending below approach minima

page 153

432
Q

what is density ?

A

mass per unit volume of a substance

page 118

433
Q

what is compass direction?

A

is the direction measured to compass north

page 89

434
Q

if VMCG is limited for the weight of an aircraft what can you do?

A

use reduce take off thrust

so that any off center engine loss during take off run has a reduced asymmetrical thrust imballance

page 195

435
Q

what errors does the turn and slip indicator experience ?

A
  • gyro system failure
  • looping error (tilting)
  • real wander

page 140

436
Q

what are the VSI indications and actions for a blocked static port ?

A

the VSI will show ZERO

page 133

437
Q

how does a change in pressure effects an aircraft flight level ?

A

from high to low beware below
from low to to high you are up in the sky

page 249

438
Q

what does two or more white crosses displayed on a runway or taxiway indicate ?

A

surface is unfit aerea is closed

page 315

439
Q

describe CAS

A

IAS corrected for instrument and pressure error

page 120

440
Q

how does the ASI work?

A

the pitot tube measures the difference between total pressure and static pressure which is dynamic pressure

page 128

441
Q

what is the purpose of anti skid system ?

A

is to sense when the wheels are locked.
wheel spin is required to maintain directional control and braking efficiency

page 169

442
Q

what is a jet engine surge, causes and indications ?

A

a surge is the reversal of airflow through an engine, where the high pressure air the combustion chamber is expelled forward, instead of back, through the compressor with a loud bang and the resulting loss of engine thrust.

causes:

  • compressor stage stall
  • excessive fuel flow

indications:

  • total loss of thrust
  • TGT rise

actions:

  • close the throttle slowly
  • adjust aircraft attitude
  • reopen the throttle slowly

page 81

443
Q

describe the two types of taxiway lighting system

A
  • one line of green taxi centreline lights
  • two lines of blue taxiway edge lights

page 315

444
Q

What are the effect of span wise airflow over the wing?

Normal wing airflow

A
  • create wing tip vortices
  • reduce aileron efficiency
  • the flow that tries to reach low pressure from bottom creates extra disturbance on wing tip causing wing tip stall

Page 10

445
Q

what is the minimum for a PAR procedure ?

A

200 MDH

page 302

446
Q

How does a swept wing aid the increase in its critical Mach number?

A

The airflow going over the swept wing “sees” a already thin wing even thinner due to the oblique backward shape.
A thin wing equals small chamber therefore slow acceleration.

Swept wing = slower air velocity = higher Mcrit = later shockwaves onset = later drag onset

Page 19

447
Q

what pressure settings are Flight Levels based on ?

A

1013

page 277

448
Q

what is tire creep ?

A

is the tendency of the tire to rotate around the wheel hub.

page 167

449
Q

how do you calculate HW,TW and XW ?

A

chart page 284

450
Q

what is engine toque ?

A

is a force causing rotation, like the twisting moment caused by the spinning propeller onto the engine

page 53

451
Q

what is bypass ratio?

A

is the difference from the air ducted around the core and the air flowing into the core.

page 66

452
Q

what is a fail passive autopilot landing system ?

A

it’s a dual system where one fails and the pilot has to take over to complete the landing

page 162

453
Q

Explain speed stability.

A

A speed is said to be stable when after being disturbed from its trimmed state it returns back to its original speed.

Unstable is when the speed keeps changing after a disturbance

Page 22

454
Q

what is a ridge ?

A

it’s a line of high pressure systems

page 247

455
Q

describe the CAT II and III runway holding runway markings

A

are more further back then CAT I yet they have the same restrictions

page 315

456
Q

what doe it mean to be cleared for the approach ?

A

that you are cleared for the complete approach

you are not cleared for landing
page 296

457
Q

what density errors are commonly experiences ?

A
  • altitude errors
  • airspeed errors

page 119

458
Q

What is positive G force?

A

1 g

Page 18

459
Q

what hazards to aviation does icing cause ?

A
  • adverse aerodynamic performance effect
  • control surface effect
  • increases aircraft weight
  • reduce engine power if ice builds near the air inlet
  • vent blockage
  • degraded nav and radio comm if ice builds on aerial

page 262

460
Q

What are the advantages of an INS ?

A
  • it’s a global system
  • it’s self contained
  • it’s very accurate

INS with laser gyroscopes

  • short warm up
  • no real wander
  • no precession

page 93

461
Q

describe a PAR approach system

A

similar to SRA but also with vertical guidance

page 301

462
Q

what id VDF/MDF speed ?

A

maximum flight dividing speed for a jet aircraft established during trial

page 209

463
Q

describe the functions of a transponder

A
  • code selection
  • transmission function switch (STDBY, ON, ALT, TEST)
  • reply/monitoring light
  • ident switch
  • system switch
  • fault light

page 111

464
Q

how can a stopway extend beyond the clearway ?

A

in case the length of the clearway is limited by an obstruction

page 188

465
Q

what is katabatic/anabatic wind ?

A
katabatic = a wind that blows down a hill
anabatic = a wind that blows up hill

page 242

466
Q

Describe the pitching moment associated with the T/D couple?

A

With jet plains with engines under the wing the increase and decrease in thrust causes the plane to pitch up or down

Page 9

467
Q

what is wake turbulence ?

A

are turbulence created due to disturbed airflow

wing tip vortices

page 260

468
Q

describe the weather associated with a depression ?

A
  • unstable air
  • cumulus clouds
  • low vis
  • moderate to strong winds
  • frontal weather

page 244

469
Q

what is an occludent front ?

A

a combination of both cold and warm front.

it’s where the cold front moves quicker than we warm front and will catch up to it

Cold occlusion – air mass overtaking warm front is colder than cold air ahead of warm front and plows underneath both air masses.

Warm occlusion – air mass overtaking warm front is not as cold as cold air ahead of warm front and therefore rides over it whilst lifting the warm air.

page 252

470
Q

what is the emergency distance required ?

A

distance required to accelerate to V1 at which point an engine failure is assumed to have occurred

page 187

471
Q

give the definitions of radar control, advisory and information centre

A
control = all type of radar whenever is available
advisory = traffic info, advisory avoidance
information = traffic info only

page 279

472
Q

what’s TORA ?

A

usable length of runway available suitable for the ground run

page 185

473
Q

what is a MayDay call and when is it used ?

A

immediate danger

page 305

474
Q

What is aileron reversal?

A

At high speed the air loads can produce a twisting moment and cause the downgoing aileron to reverse upwards and cause an adverse roll (a roll in the opposite direction)

Page 36

475
Q

what is a Series Circuit ?

A

one circuit path

page 176

476
Q

What is the angle of incidence ?

A

Is the angle between the aerofoil’s chordline and the aircraft’s longitudinal datum (which is fix for a wing) (page 3)

477
Q

where do you find jetstreams ?

A

polar jetstream = 60ºN or S at 25000ft, westerly direction
subtropical jetstream = 20to30ºN or S at 45000ft, westerly
easterly equatorial jetstream = 20ºN to 20ºS at 65000ft

page 237

478
Q

what is the TODR ?

A

distance required to accelerate to Vr and climb to screen height at a speed not less than VTOSS or V2

page 186

479
Q

what is a gyroscope ?

A

it’s a body rotating freely in one or more direction that possess rigidity and precession

page 135

480
Q

what is the range of the NDB ?

A

300nm over land, 600nm over water

page 101

481
Q

what is a supercharged piston engine ?

A

supercharger compresses the air for a greater engine power output.

it is engine driven connected by a belt

page 53

482
Q

what is smog and how is it formed ?

A

smoke + air contamination

page 265

483
Q

what is MSA ?

A

Minimum Sector Altitude which provides 1000ft vertical distance within 25nm

page 275

484
Q

what is a cold front ?

A

a boundary between two air masses where the one at the back is cold and the one at the front is warm.
the cold air mass slides under the warm one.

a band of 30 to 50 nm

page 251

485
Q

if you were at 33000 ft with an OAT of -45ºC what is the temperature deviation from ISA?

A

-45 - ( 15 - (33 x 2) ) = 6ºC

page 118

486
Q

how do you measure a change of longitude ?

A

with the departure formula because as latitude increases longitude decreases

page 90

487
Q

how does the runway length, surface, performance affect landing performance ?

A
Length = restricts max weight
Surface = low friction increases LDR
Slope = downslope increases LDR

page 218

488
Q

describe the difference between a jet and a piston engine propeller aircraft’s stall speed ?

A

the stall speed of a piston engine is lower but the range of the jet is wider

page 87

489
Q

what is a meteorologic forecast ?

A

it’s prediction

page 270

490
Q

What is an airfoil chord line?

A

Straight line from leading edge to trailing edge (page 2)

491
Q

what do lenticular clouds indicate ?

A
  • mountain waves
  • CAT
  • high speed upper level wind

page 259

492
Q

what happens to your Mn if you climb at a constant CAS, IAS ?

A

Mn increase

page 124

493
Q

what are NOTAMS, and how are they distributed ?

A

they contain informations about :

  • facilities
  • service
  • procedures
  • hazards

page 273

494
Q

what is the definition of INTER in a forecast ?

A

temporary variation in the general forecasted weather lasting up to 30 min

page 272

495
Q

what is a cruise (step) climb ?

A

as the aircraft loses weight due to fuel burn it can fly at higher altitude

page 212

496
Q

what is the standard circuit direction ?

A

left

page 280

497
Q

what advantages does an aircraft gain from a propeller ?

A
  • creates a high energy slipstream
  • has a quick response to throttle input

page 54

498
Q

describe the characteristic of a low pressure system

A

air converges at the bottom, rises up, and diverts at the top

  • the pressure drops as you move towards the centre
  • spins anticlockwise in the NH
  • are more concentrated
  • move faster
  • shorter life span

page 243

499
Q

what is a turn coordinator ?

A

is an advanced development of the turn and slip indicator but is both sensitive to roll and yaw and it shows a turn as soon as the roll in begins

page 140

500
Q

how can you calculate the distance from the threshold at which you would intercept the glide path ?

A

height x 3º + 10% = distance

page 298

501
Q

What is an airfoil?

A

A body that produces lift when into an airflow like wings, rudder, tail plane, propeller (page 2)

502
Q

how does density altitude affects take off performance ?

A

high density altitude decreases take off performance and vice versa

page 198

503
Q

how is windshear detected ?

A
  • good interpretation of weather
  • aerodrome windshear measuring equipment
  • windshear warning system in GPWS

page 255

504
Q

what is a rhumb line ?

A

is the line that cuts meridians at the same angle, also a longer distance than a great circle

page 91

505
Q

what is MEA ?

A

Minimum EnRoute Altitude, is the safe altitude within the airway (5nm each side from centreline)

page 276

506
Q

what is the most efficient for stopping at high speed ?

A

reverse thrust

page 287

507
Q

which EHSI modes can display the weather radar ?

A
  • expanded VOR/ILS (arc)
  • expanded NAV (arc)
  • MAP mode
  • CTR mode

page 149

508
Q

what is the ITCZ ?

A

is where converging air masses meet near the thermal equator

page 266

509
Q

what are the errors of an NDB/ADF ?

A
  • interference form other NDB station
  • thunderstorms
  • night effect (ionosphere raising at night)
  • coastal refraction
  • mountain effect
  • quadrantal error

page 101

510
Q

what are the main engine instruments ?

A
primary:
- EPR
- N1 gauge
- EGT
then
- N2 gauge
- Fuel Flow

secondary:

  • oil e temp
  • engine vibration meter

page 73

511
Q

what is turbulence ?

A

is the eddy motion of the atmosphere

vertical gust:

  • convection turbulence = caused by ground heating
  • orographic turbulence = caused by wind and terrain

horizontal gust:

  • jetstreams
  • wake turbulence

page 253

512
Q

Where does a swept wing stall first, and what effects does this have on an aircraft’s attitude ?

A

At Wing Tip

After the wing tip has stalled the CoP will move inward and forward towards the leading edge, this will cause the nose to rise and the plane to stall.

Solutions:

  • increase wing tip chamber
  • wash out or twist on wing tip

Page 21

513
Q

What are high drag devices?

A
  • trailing edge flaps
  • spoilers
  • landing gear

Page 9

514
Q

what error does DME experience ?

A

slant range error (when close to the beacon the pilot cannot get a reading)

page 108

515
Q

what are the crosswind limitation on an aircraft ?

A

check aircraft manual

page 200

516
Q

describe the characteristics and weather common to a passage of a cold front

A

as the cold front approaches:

  • cumulus and CB clouds
  • poor vis
  • pressure falls

as the front passes:

  • temperature drops
  • clear sky
  • good vis
  • wind veers
  • pressure stops falling

page 252

517
Q

explain a typical fuel plan for a trip ?

A

fuel for:

  • take off and climb
  • en route
  • descent
  • contingency
  • alternate
  • approach
  • holding

page 213

518
Q

what is landing distance required LDR ?

A

the point from where the aircraft is 50ft over the runway to where it stops

page 215

519
Q

what do you know about microburst ?

A
  • they last not more then 10min
  • most severe can be 3000ft/m downdraft at 100kt

updrafts are on the side of the cloud(inside the cloud), they reach the top and converge together sinking down as downdraft in the centre of the cloud and cause a microburst

page 256

520
Q

initially on a wet runway what is the most effective means of stopping ?

A

thrust reverse

page 322

521
Q

how is engine power monitored ?

A

MAP and boost pressure gauge

page 54

522
Q

how to do correct for apparent wander ?

A

by periodically realigning it (every 10-15 min)

part 137

523
Q

describe a maximum angle climb profile (Vx)

describe Vx

A

Vx is the steepest angle or highest climb gradient

page 207

524
Q

why are control surfaces hydraulically operated on large aircraft ?

A

it is simply beyond the strength of a pilot

page 48

525
Q

what is specific gravity ?

A

is the weight of the unit volume of a substance compared to the same volume of water, under same temp and press

page 173

526
Q

what is the theory of jet/gas turbine engine ?

A

Newton’s Third Law : Thrust = air mass x velocity

Frank Whittle : when you let air out of a balloon, a reaction propeller the balloon in the opposite direction

page 61

527
Q

What is the purpose of a stabiliser ?

A

The purpose of the horizontal stabiliser is to provide s longitudinal balance force to the aircraft. The stabiliser covers large and small pitching moments

Page 43

528
Q

what is the formula to convert C and F ?

A
F = 9/5 (C + 32)
C = 5/9 (F - 32)

page 224

529
Q

what is ground effect and how is it caused?

A

is the cushioning of the aircraft over the air between it and the ground during flare

page 286

530
Q

what is the coriolis force or geostrofic force ?

A

the air that flows from high to low pressure system is deflected either left or right due to the spinning of the earth
northern h. = right
southern h. = left

page 236

531
Q

what is the purpose of an Auto Pilot system ?

A

to release work load form pilots, and to fly the planes better then a pilot

page 158

532
Q

explain the jet/gas turbine engine’s thrust to thrust lever position ?

A

at low rpm speed an inch movement of the thrust lever could produce only 600lb of thrust but at hight rpm this could produce 6000lb

page 72

533
Q

what has the furthest range VOR or NDB ?

A

NDB because of its surface wave propagation path. where VOR is line of sight

page 103

534
Q

what is thermodynamics ?

A

is the study of the behaviour of gases under variation of temperature and pressure

page 51

535
Q

describe the DME system and how it works ?

A

it consist of a onboard aircraft interrogator and a ground beacon transmitter. (UHF)
The time delay between sending and receiving these pulses is converted into a range (SLANT) and distance (nm).

transmitter and receiver are correctly associated via the unique DME random pulse (jittering)
the ground transmitter re-transmits at a difference frequency 63 MHz apart from the interrogator

page 107

536
Q

what is a front ?

A

is a boundary between two air masses

page 249

537
Q

how is VMO displayed on the ASI ?

A

a red/black striped pointer on the ASI

page 128

538
Q

what error does a flight director system have ?

A
  • interpretation of FDS
  • it’s response are to quick for the pilot to catch up

page 160

539
Q

what is ISA temperature deviation ?

A

the measurement of actual temperature against ISA

page 118

540
Q

what is the range of a VOR ?

A
line of sight propagation path
below 5000ft is 60 nm
5000 to 10000 is 90 nm
10000 to 15000 is 120 nm 
and so on

page 103

541
Q

describe the characteristics of a high pressure system ?

A

air converges at the top, sinks down and diverges ant the bottom

  • weak pressure gradient, wide isobars
  • wind is clockwise in the NH
  • usually only one air mass
  • greater extent but weaker
  • move slowly

page 246

542
Q

What are the forces acting on an aircraft in flight?

A

Lift Weight Thrust Drag (page 1)

543
Q

what is the altitude effect on wind direction and speed ?

A

slows down getting closer to the ground and back in NH

page 281

544
Q

what it is important to monitor brakes temperature ?

A

if the brakes overheat they lose efficiency

page 169

545
Q

What limits an aircraft structural weight ?

A

The lift capability of the aircraft therefore the wings

Page 12

546
Q

how does the response of an auto pilot system compare with that of a pilot ?

A

quicker response and more accurate

page 159

547
Q

how does a fast approach speed affects landing performance ?

A

the landing distance required will exceed the one calculated

page 216

548
Q

what errors does the VSI suffers from ?

A
  • lag error
  • pressure error (position error)
  • manoeuvre error

page 133

549
Q

what factors effects the range of HF communications ?

A
  • transmitter power
  • frequency
  • time of the day
  • season
  • location
  • disturbance of the ionosphere

page 151

550
Q

what does an ammeter show ?

A

the number of amperes in a electrical circuit

page 176

551
Q

how does screen height change with a wet V1 ?

A

is reduced

page 191

552
Q

How does the stall speed varies with weight ?

A

If weight increases stall speed increases

As weight increases we can either increase wing size to produce more lift or increase speed always to produce more lift

Page 27

553
Q

what is Buys Ballot’s law ?

A

northern hemisphere = if you put your back to the wind and raise your left harm you will point at the low pressure (temperature).
southern hemisphere = vice versa

page 235

554
Q

What is lateral stability ?

A

Is the tendency of a aircraft to return to a laterally lever position around he longitudinal axis on release of the ailerons into a side slip.

Two main features:

  • wing dihedral
  • side loads produced on the keel surface (fin)

Page 32

555
Q

what is the absolute ceiling ?

A

the maximum attainable attitude where performance decrease and plane cannot climb any higher.
also where Mach Buffet and Prestall Buffet occur at the same time. COFFIN CORNER

page 209

556
Q

how is air temperature measured ?

A

total head thermometer

page 134

557
Q

if you had an engine failure between V1 and Vr and you had a max crosswind, which engine would be the best to lose ?

A

upwind engine

page 195

558
Q

What systems protect against a stall?

A

Stall warning and stick pusher

A stick shaker is activated at or just before the onset of pre stall buffet

Page 30

559
Q

what is critical speed ?

A

is the lowest speed at which a pilot is able to keep is heading after an engine failure. (VMCA,VMCG)

page 189

560
Q

how is jet gas turbine engine noise controlled reduces ?

A
  • bypass engine
  • flex thrust
  • maximum rate of climb of take off

page 82

561
Q

what are the initial action required for a GPWS alert ?

A

the corrective response to warning

page 156

562
Q

what visual clue should you look for at landing ?

A

3º glide patch, PAPI, VASI

page 283

563
Q

at what height does the radio altimeter normally become active ?

A

2500ft

page 147

564
Q

what are non-trip-free circuit breakers ?

A

after tripping they can be pushed back in to complete the circuit

page 177

565
Q

what is Vs speed ?

A

stall speed also is the reference speed for V2 and Vref

page 192

566
Q

what causes the noise from jet aircraft ?

A

shear effect of the air

page 281

567
Q

define maximum endurance and range with reference to the drag curve.

A
endurance = VIMD minimum drag speed
range  = slightly higher above VIMD

page 209

568
Q

what are the approximate changes in wind direction and speed compared with the free air 2000ft gradient wind?

A

northern h. = on the ground it back, in the air it veer
southern h. = on the ground it veers, in the air it backs

page 239

569
Q

describe a typical runway lighting arrangements ?

A

runway centre lights = white
runway edge lights = white
touch down zone = white during the first 900m
threshold = green

runway centre lights and runway edge lights change over the last 600m to red/white (caution zone) then over the last 300m they change to red

page 312

570
Q

what are and aircraft typical sources of dc electrical power

A
  • DC generator
  • Battery
  • ground dc supply (ground battery)
  • rectifier (AC to DC)

page 178

571
Q

when is lightning most likely to occur ?

A

OAT +10º to -10º

page 234

572
Q

Describe CoP?

A

The CoP is the point where Lift force acts (page 4)

573
Q

what are the altimeter errors ?

A
  • instrument errors
  • pressure errors
  • time lag error
  • barometric error
  • temperature/density error
  • blocked static port

page 130

574
Q

what is Omega ?

A

is a long range global navigation system that uses ground based beacons operating in very low frequency

page 99

575
Q

what are the main variables that affect an aircraft take off and landing performance ?

A
  • weight
  • flap settings
  • pressure altitude
  • density altitude
  • humidity
  • wind
  • runway surface, slope, length

page 196

576
Q

what is the TODA ?

A

is the length of the runway + clearway available

page 185

577
Q

what is the definition of Tempo in a forecast ?

A

temporary variation in the general forecasted weather lasting less then 1 hour

page 271

578
Q

how would you fly an approach if you suspect a microburst ?

A

you should not attempt the approach into an area where a microburst is reported or likely.
HOLD for 10/15 min !!!

page 320

579
Q

what is the order of priority for all vehicles landing ?

A
  • a/c landing
  • a/c taking off
  • vehicles towing a/c
  • a/c taxing

page 308

580
Q

what climb departure uses the least trip fuel ?

A

Vy cause it reaches the optimum altitude as quickly as possible.
The aircraft will spend more time at its optimum altitude

page 207

581
Q

what is frost and how is it formed ?

A

is frozen water cover, it forms like dew but freezes but to ground being at subzero temperature

page 232

582
Q

how is an MDA calculated for a precision approach ?

A

take in account OCH

page 278

583
Q

what aircraft systems used hydraulic power ?

A
  • landing gear
  • brakes antiskid system
  • steering
  • flight controls (including yaw damper and spoilers)
  • stairs
  • doors

page 165

584
Q

what is hypoxia ?

A

the lack of oxygen or better the decreasing of oxygen pressure that can reach the lungs

page 327

585
Q

how can you calculate the approximate rate of descent for a 3º glide slope ?

A

ground speed x 5 = RoD

page 298

586
Q

what errors does an ILS experience ?

A
  • false glide slope (approaching the 150hz lobe which overlaps the 90hz lobe you will descent at twice as the 3º glide path)
  • phantom signals (outside range signals cannot be relied on)
  • back course approaches (would display exactly the opposite of the correct indications)

page 105

587
Q

describe the flight director system ?

A

the FDS shows the aircraft attitude and manoeuvres to be set via bars over the EADI

page 160

588
Q

how does air density (rho)/density altitude (pressure altitude and temperature) affects the landing performance ?

A

an increased in density altitude decreases an aircraft performance which results in an increased LDR

page 217

589
Q

what are the disadvantages of a fixed pitch propeller ?

A

that it only produces its maximum efficiency at one predetermine engine RPM, altitude and airspeed.

page 56

590
Q

describe an engine wet start, its causes, indications and actions ?

A

it is a failure to start after the fuel has been delivered to the engine.

indication is:
- EGT does not rise

action:

  • close the fuel
  • motor the engine

page 74

591
Q

what is island holding fuel, and when is it used ?

A

is a quantity of fuel uplifted where there is no diversion option and there is a possible delay

page 213

592
Q

how does wind affects the take off performance ?

A

HW increased take off performance
TW decreases take off performance

page 199

593
Q

why is an extended V2 climb used ?

A

used to clear the obstacle by the third segment so that a normal acceleration can be achieved

page 207

594
Q

what is radar vectoring ?

A

when radar control passes to an aircraft an heading to steer

page 180

595
Q

Explain speed margins

A

A speed margin is the difference between the aircraft’s normal maximum operating speed and its higher certified testing speed

Page 25

596
Q

what is a range of V1 speed ?

A

when the planned TOW is not field length limited the minimum V1 speed in the range is still restricted by VMGC, and the maximum V1 is still restricted by VMBE

page 190

597
Q

What is adverse yaw?

A

As the aircraft rolls to the right the nose yaw to the left, caused by the downgoing aileron on the left wing.

Features:

  • frise ailerons
  • differential ailerons

Page 36

598
Q

explain balance and unbalanced field

A

exist when TODA = ASDA

page 188

599
Q

describe the aeronautical light beacons at airfields ?

A

identification beacon = for identification and bearing

  • flashes a two letter morse
  • green

aerodrome beacon

  • flashes an alternating signalas homing indication
  • white

page 310

600
Q

what is dynamic pressure ?

A

is the movement of air molecules

  • by movement of a body through the air
  • air flowing over a stationary object

dynamic pressure = 1/2rho x V2

page 120

601
Q

what is the typical jet take off technique and the various flight path options ?

A

think about segments

page 204

602
Q

prior to take of what are the oxygen requirement for a flight ?

A
crew = 15-20min descent + rest of the flight
pax = 15-20min descent + 10% of rest of the flight

page 172

603
Q

How does the effectiveness of the control surfaces vary with speed?

A

As speed increases they become more effective

Page 36

604
Q

what is the runway clearway ?

A

is the length of an obstacle free area which can be used by an aircraft for the initial climb out

page 185

605
Q

who’s ultimate responsibility is to avoid any type of traffic collision ?

A

the PIC

page 307

606
Q

how is wind described or expressed ?

A

wind direction and wind strength

page 235

607
Q

describe field length limits

A
  • all engine operative runway length
  • ASDA
  • one engine inoperative runway length

page 201

608
Q

why do you use reduced derated take off thrust in a jet aircraft ?

A
  • engine life
  • to reduce noise

page 77

609
Q

what is an assumed/flexible temperature ?

A

is a performance calculation use to find the EPR for flex thrust

page 201

610
Q

what is heat ?

A

is a form of energy measured in calories

page 221

611
Q

what conditions present an icy risk ?

A

+10ºC and -45ºC

page 262

612
Q

what is EGPWS ?

A

provides a greater level of detection than GPWS.
ex. terrain mapping

page 154

613
Q

what affects the specific gravity of a substance ?

A

if air temperature increases the SG decreases

page 173

614
Q

What are the effects of excessive aircraft weight?

A
Take off and landing distance is increased 
Rate of climb of climb is reduced
Range and endurance is reduced
Max speed is reduce
Stall speed is increased
Manoeuvrability is reduce

Page 12

615
Q

What is rate of climb/descent?

A

Is the height achieved compared to the distance travelled over the ground (page 2)

616
Q

what is dew point ?

A

is the temperature where a parcel of air becomes saturated

page 227

617
Q

what is a Jetstream ?

A

narrow bands of high speed, high altitude thermal winds found in the tropopause or stratosphere characterised by strong vertical and/or lateral windshear (CAT).
Their speed is directional proportional to thermal gradient.

to be called jetstream:

  • speed must be greater than 60kt
  • 1500 nm long
  • 200 nm wide
  • 1200 ft high

page 237

618
Q

what is risky shift ?

A

the tendency of a group to take risks

page 322

619
Q

What is Drag ?

A

Drag is the resistance of motion of an object (page 6)

620
Q

what are the following aircraft weight definitions ?

A

basic weight = the weight of empty aircraft + unusual fuel and oil
variable load = weight of crew + crew bags + catering
DOM = basic empty weight + variable load
payload = pax or cargo
ramp weight = TOW + fuel for start and taxi
MTOW = max take of weight
MLW = max landing weight

page 183

621
Q

What are the proposes of roll and yaw dumpers and how do they work?

A

A Yaw Damper is a gyro system that applies opposite rudder, especially used again Dutch Roll.

A Roll Damper applies opposite roll in turbulence controlling lateral stability

Page 42

622
Q

what is sublimation ?

A

water turns straight into ice, this happens when the dewpoint or actual temperature is less than 0ºC. the usual result is Hoar Frost

page 261

623
Q

at what cabin altitude should pax go on oxygen ?

A

14000 ft

page 171

624
Q

What is the purpose of a Mach Trimmer?

A

To compensate for Mach Tuck

Page 24

625
Q

What is the primary use of flaps on jet aircraft ?

A

To increase lift by increasing wing area

Page 40

626
Q

what do constant speed drive (CSD) unit achieve ?

A

maintain the AC frequency output of an alternator (400Hz)

page 180

627
Q

how do you avoid wake turbulence ?

A
  • separation minima
  • alteration to the flight path
  • knowing how the wake turbulence move

page 290

628
Q

what is a Parallel Circuit ?

A

there are two or more alternative path in parallel that reunite

page 177

629
Q

what is a through ?

A

it a line of low pressure systems

page 245

630
Q

at what cabin altitude should a pilot go on oxygen ?

A

10000ft

page 171

631
Q

what is convergency ?

A

is the convergency of meridians towards the poles

page 91

632
Q

Describe the drag curve of a piston propeller aircraft?

A

Page 7

633
Q

what are the emergency radio frequencies ?

A

121.50 and 243.00 VHF

page 304

634
Q

how does a pressure altimeter work ?

A

it measures changes in static pressure

page 130

635
Q

what a gradient wind ?

A

is very similar to a geostrophic wind but it’s able to curve around the isobars

page 236

636
Q

what is the purpose of a fuse ?

A

piece of wire with a low melting point that burns when an higher value that its ampere rating is placed on it, thus protecting the electrical load from power surge

page 177

637
Q

what is propeller feather and why is it used ?

A

is the 90º pitch(usually a bit less) of the propeller set in that way to reduce drag in case of engine failure

page 61

638
Q

what is the purpose of using balance field calculation ?

A

to optimise the V2 climb performance with a correct V1//Vr speed with a single performance calculation

page 188

639
Q

what is V1 speed ?

A

decision speed at which a decision to abort or continue the take off has to be already made

page 189

640
Q

What disadvantages does a jet aircraft suffer from a swept wing ?

A
  • poor lift
  • stall speed increased
  • unstable at low speed
  • wing tip stalling tendency (due to greater angle of incidence)

Page 21

641
Q

describe the turn and slip (turn coordinator) indicator instrument ?

A

is two instrument combined:

  • one measure turn
  • one measure skid or skip

consist of:

  • a rate gyroscope
  • rotates around horizontal axis
  • two panes of freedom (the gyro spin axis, yaw axis of gimbal)
  • the gyro is aligned to the aircraft’s lateral axis

page 140

642
Q

what is true direction?

A

is the direction measured to true north

page 89

643
Q

what is the pressure gradient force ?

A

is the natural force generated by a difference in pressure across a horizontal distance

page 235

644
Q

what are the advantages of the MLS ?

A
  • offers a curved or off center beam
  • not sensitive to reflection from terrain
  • has more transmitting channels

page 107

645
Q

describe the differences between propeller and jet aircraft wing performance.

A

prop driven aircraft have better performance then jet swept wings especially when contaminated. the prop driven aircraft wing has more energised airflow on the upper surface.

page 87

646
Q

on an ILS approach when can you descent on the glide path ?

A
  • when cleared
  • when established

page 297

647
Q

what are the advantages of secondary radar ?

A
  • positive identification
  • abnormal situation
  • altitude ground speed reporting
  • ident

page 112

648
Q

tire temperature before the take off, depends on what factors ?

A
  • OAT
  • aircraft weight
  • taxi time
  • amount of braking

page 168

649
Q

a reduce power climb uses more or less trip fuel and why ?

A

more trip fuel cause it will extend the time spent at an altitude lower than the optimum altitude

page 208

650
Q

what is a maximum service ceiling ?

A

en-route maximum operating altitude with a safety margin from absolute ceiling

page 209

651
Q

What is the critical Mach number ?

A

Is the number at which airflow becomes sonic

0.72 is a typical Mach number where airflow becomes sonic Mach 1 over the upper surface of the wing

Page 23

652
Q

describe the horizontal situation indicator HSI

A

the basis of the HSI is the remote indicating compass that displays VOR and ILS all on one instrument

page 146

653
Q

how to jet gas turbine engine generate noise ?

A

jet’s faster displaced air moves into the slow ambient air

page 82

654
Q

What prevents Dutch Roll?

A

Yaw Damper which improves the effectiveness of the fin

Page 31

655
Q

what happens to the indicated Mn in a long range cruise as weight decrease at the same flight level ?

A

Mn decreases

as weight decreases to fly at the same TAS we need a lower Mn otherwise te same will increase our TAS

page 123

656
Q

what regulates the supercharger to deliver a constant boost manifold pressure ?

A

the Auto Boost Control

page 54

657
Q

What is the effect of weight on the glide range?

A

Weight doesn’t effect glide range. A light and a heavy plane would fly the same gliding range but the heavier will do so at higher speed or to reach the same point it would have to start the descent earlier (page 2)

658
Q

how do you calculate cloud tops ?

A
                                 60 range in ft = nm x 6080 = ft

page 113

659
Q

what it the EGT and why is this an important engine parameter ?

A

exhaust gas temperature tells us the temperature the turbine is experiencing.
the only real threat to engine life is excessive turbine temperature.

page 74

660
Q

Explain why an aircraft stalls

A

When a wing is not able to produce lift anymore

Page 27

661
Q

what are STARs ?

A

Standard Instrument Arrivals

page 292

662
Q

when do you use emergency 100% oxygen ?

A
  • life support above 34000ft
  • hypoxia
  • smoke or other gases

page 171

663
Q

how does the AP FDS, AT combine to control attitude and speed during TO, LDG, APP ?

A

page 164

664
Q

what are the common aviation meteorologica report ?

A
  • METAR, SIGMET, SPECI
  • ATIS
    VOLMET (inflight report)

page 268

665
Q

what drift would you experienced when flying from a low to a high pressure system ?

A

left drift NH
right drift SE

page 248

666
Q

what is an isobar ?

A

is a line over a chart that connects point of same pressure

page 220

667
Q

what is VNE speed ?

A

never exceed speed

page 209

668
Q

what is a pressure system ?

A

is a circulating air mass

(a low pressure system will have more than one mass)

page 243

669
Q

explain compass swinging ?

A

is a procedure to check the accuracy of and to adjust an aircraft’s magnetic compass

there are particular situations when this should be accomplished

page 143

670
Q

what are the altimeter indications and actions for a blocked static port ?

A

show the altitude it got blocked at

page 131

671
Q

describe the magnetic compass instrument ?

A

primary source of direction information.
it comprises of freely suspended horizontal magnet attached to a compass card that is enclosed in a liquid filled case.
the aircraft moves around the magnet.

page 142

672
Q

what is the best CoG position with a jammed/degraded elevator?

A

AFT, to lessen the need for large pitch control demand

673
Q

What is a yaw induced adverse rolling motion, and when is it likely to occur?

A

Yaw left roll right and vice versa.

It happens at high speeds

Page 37

674
Q

what is a fail operational autopilot landing system ?

A

it’a a three system where one fails and the other two carry out the landing

page 162

675
Q

what do you know about FANS ?

A

future air navigation system

page 97

676
Q

describe ground speed

A

is the speed related to ground distance travelled
is TAS plus TW or minus HW

page 121

677
Q

what is an anti icing system ?

A

a system where ice is prevented from building up

page 175

678
Q

what selection will give you TOGA ?

A

depends on aircraft type

B737 pressing the TOGA switches on the thrust levers

page 288

679
Q

what are the advantages of hydraulic system over pneumatic system ?

A
  • hydraulic fluid is incompressible and this makes the system respond instantly
  • fluid leak are easier to detect then air pneumatic one

page 165

680
Q

what considerations should you take for taking off in icing conditions ?

A
  • deice the plane
  • engine antiice switch on

page 322

681
Q

describe an Auto Pilot system

A

flies the plane on its own

page 158

682
Q

what is DC electrical power ?

A

is Direct Current that flows in only one direction

page 178

683
Q

what is the advantage of the DG over the magnetic compass ?

A

turning and acceleration errors

page 137

684
Q

describe the cruise climb profile

A

it’s a compromise between the best en route speed profile and the best climb profile

page 207

685
Q

what is an isotherm ?

A

is a line over a chart that connects point of same temperature

page 220

686
Q

what is the nighttime visual effect ?

A

empty field myopia at night

page 322

687
Q

describe primary (pulse) radar and how it works

A

works on the reflected signal principal
primary radar uses UHF VHF

page 109

688
Q

what is a temperature inversion layer ?

A

a layer where the temperature raises instead of decreasing

page 225

689
Q

what to you know about an IVSI ?

A

the inertia of the balance weight on the other side of the needle enhances a quick response to change in altitude

page 133

690
Q

what does an anti skid system protects against ?

A
  • locked wheels
  • wheel skid/slip
  • acqua planing
  • zero brake pressure at touch down

page 170

691
Q

how does aircraft weight affects landing performance ?

A

increases landing distance

page 216

692
Q

when must you file a flight plane ?

A
  • IFR
  • SVFR
  • VFR in CTR

page 273

693
Q

what are the three types of aquaplaning ?

A
  • dynamic = tyres are lift on top of water
  • viscous = likely on touch down zone
  • reverted rubber = the steam caused by the tyre temperature prevents the tyre from contacting the ground

page 321

694
Q

what is the relationship between Vs and V2 ?

A

V2 cannot be less than Vs x 1.2

page 196

695
Q

when is an increased V2 climb profile used ?

A
  • in case of an obstacle in the second segment
  • to increase take off weight

page 206

696
Q

What is Longitudinal stability ?

A

Is the aircraft’s natural ability to return to a stable pitch position around the lateral axis after a disturbance

Page 32

697
Q

explain the (low) speed control difference between a jet aircraft and a propeller driven aircraft ?

A

the value of drag against a speed is different which make their speed controllability different

page 86

698
Q

what is RLW ?

A

restricted landing weight, is the max landing weight for runway length

page 219

699
Q

what is VMBE speed ?

A

maximum brake energy speed is the maximum speed on the ground from which a stop can be accomplished with the energy capabilities of the brakes

page 191

700
Q

Describe CoG moment?

A

Moment = arm x weight

Page 13

701
Q

what factors are taken into account on restricted landing weight ?

A
  • engine out overshoot
  • performance
  • weight
  • altitude
  • pressure
  • runway length
  • conditions

page 219

702
Q

how does a microburst affect an aircraft ?

A

initially:

  • updraft
  • increasing HW causes the nose to rise
  • IAS rises
  • RoD reduces
central area:
the updraft becomes a downdraft = Windshear Reversal
- HW reduces, nose falls
- IAS falls
- RoD increases

continuing the approach:

  • TW increases
  • IAS continues to fall
  • RoD continues to increase

“always avoid microburst areas”

page 358

703
Q

describe the departure profile segments 1 to 4

A
  • first segment: from the reference point (35 ft) to the point where landing gear is retracted at V2
  • second segment: from first segment’s end to 400ft or 1000ft AGLS (maximum) at V2
  • third segment: starts at the end of second segment where levelling off and accelerating to clean up the plane
  • forth segment: from the the third segment level off height to 1500ft or more with flaps up and max continues thrust

page 204

704
Q

what it transport wander ?

A

if a DG is aligned to true north and it’s moved east-west to another part of the globe it will be out of alignment

page 137

705
Q

What are the effects of CoG outside limit range ?

A

Forward CoG

  • nose heavy
  • stable
  • stall speed increases
  • fuel flow increase
  • range decreases

Aft CoG

  • tail heavy
  • unstable
  • stall speed decrease
  • fuel flow decreases
  • range increases

Page 15

706
Q

describe maximum continues thrust ?

A

the maximum permissible engine thrust for continuous use

page 65

707
Q

Give six reasons for spoilers?

A
  • ailerons are limited in size therefore effectiveness
  • on this swept wing ailerons are too large and can experience air loads twisting moment
  • ailerons lose effectiveness at high speeds
  • to fight adverse rolling moment with yaw
  • due to lag in engine response to slow down
  • dump lift off during rejected take off or landing

Page 38

708
Q

what is Va speed ?

A

manoeuvring speed, max elevator deflection

page 192

709
Q

what are the EHSI modes ?

A
  • full VOR/ILS
  • ful NAV
  • expanded VOR/ILS (arc)
  • expanded NAV (arc)
  • MAP mode
  • CTR mode
  • PLAN

page 149

710
Q

describe the aircraft navigation’s and anti collision light

A
  • right = green 110º
  • left = red 110º
  • a steady white nav tail light 140º
  • white strobe lights position on both wing tips
  • red beacon light on tail

page 309

711
Q

describe upper winds

A

upper winds are determined by the Thermal Gradient.
A difference in temperature between two mass of air will also cause a difference in pressure that creates a wind parallel to the isobars

In the Northern Hemisphere the Thermal Gradient is generally N/S (north cold, south warm) and therefore the Upper Winds are generally Westerly in direction, with the highest wind speed where the thermal gradient is the greatest (jet streams)

page 236

712
Q

how long should you wait before flying after consuming alcohol ?

A

8 hrs

page 333

713
Q

what is R-NAV ?

A

is a form of onboard area navigation aircraft equipment that uses either a basic VOR/DME systems or either position sensors

page 98

714
Q

what is a Volt a measure of ?

A

Electrical Potential (EMF electromotive force)

the energy that could be released if electric current is allow to flow

page 175

715
Q

what is an Ampere a measure of ?

A

flow rate of electrical charge

page 176

716
Q

why are bleed valves fitted to turbine engine ?

A
- to provide bleed air to auxiliary system
air conditioning 
engine cooling
accessories colloing 
engine e wingtip anti icing system
  • to regulate the correct airflow pressure between different engine sections

page 81

717
Q

how is the piston engine power output increased to compensate for low atmospheric pressure ?

A

by the use of superchargers or turbocharges

page 54

718
Q

explain land/sea breezes, especially in connection with coastal airports

A

a a product of surface heating and atmospheric convection currents that produce small local airflow circulation cells

sea breeze = they occur during daytime when land heats up quicker than sea
land breeze = they occur during nighttime when land cools down quicker than sea

page 241

719
Q

what happens to CAS or IAS if an aircraft descent through an isothermal layer at a constant TAS ?

A

they increase

page 125

720
Q

What is the mean chamber line?

A

Is the line that cuts the wing in half (page 3)

721
Q

what is a VOR and how does it work?

A

a VOR is a VHF Omni Range short range navigation aid that projects 000º to 359º radials .
transmits at very high frequency band 108 to 118 MHz

page 102

722
Q

how does a contaminated runway (ice and rain) affect distance and V1 speed ?

A

TORR is increased
the normal dry V1 offers the best compromise

page 191

723
Q

what is VMCL speed ?

A

minimum control speed for a multi engine plane in approach and landing configuration

page 215

724
Q

what is the advantages of an EFIS flight deck ?

A

same information in a clearer and more versatile manner

page 147

725
Q

what does Trend mean in a meteorological report ?

A

is a forecast of any significant weather changes expected in the next 2 hours after the time of report

also known as Landing Forecast

page 269

726
Q

what is an engine windmill start, and when is it used ?

A

a start without the aid of the starter because the compressor are being turned by a natural airflow when airborne.

page 79

727
Q

what is a QGH let down ?

A

a VDF let down available to military

page 100

728
Q

explain the various auto pilot modes of operation ?

A
  • heading
  • L NAV
  • VOR/LOC
  • Altitude hold
  • Vertical speed
  • level change
  • V NAV
  • ILS

page 159

729
Q

describe VHF directional finding (VDF) ?

A

uses radio waves and does not require any additional instrument in the cockpit. the system allows ATC to provides pilots with bearing information

page 99

730
Q

what are supercooled water droplets ?

A

their temperature is well below 0ºC which will freeze at contact with a cold surface.
it doesn’t actually freeze straight away it will be washed back along the cold aircraft surface and become ice.

page 262

731
Q

give the definitions of the following altimeter sub scale settings.

A

QNH: altitude above mean sea level
QFE: this zeros the altimeter on the airfield elevation datum
QFF: QNH for actual conditions not ISA

page 130

732
Q

what can you do if an aircraft is limited by a close in obstacle in the second departure profile segment ?

A
  • increase flaps
  • reduce take off weight
  • increase V2 climb
  • max angle climb profile

page 205

733
Q

how does humidity affects take off performance ?

A

high humidity decreases take off performance

page 199

734
Q

how many inches of mercury in a millibar ?

A

0.00295 in 1 hpa

page 116

735
Q

how do you measure a change of latitude?

A

1 Nm = 1 min therefore 60 min = 1º of latitude

page 90

736
Q

describe IAS

A

the measurement of dynamic pressure translated into speed

page 120

737
Q

what is V4 speed ?

A

is the all engine operative take off climb speed the aircraft will achieve at 400ft

page 196

738
Q

how does pressure altitude affects landing performance ?

A

high pressure altitude will decrease landing performance increasing landing distance required

page 217

739
Q

what is CAT and give an example ?

A
Clear Air Turbulance
ex.
1. low level CAT:
- temperature inversion
- difference between surface wind and gradient wind
- land/sea breeze
- terrain generated winds
2. jetstreams
3. fronts
4. thunderstorms
5. wake turbulence

page 260

740
Q

how does a gyroscope work ?

A

due to vacuum the gyro spins due to the rigidity the the gyro stays stable as the aircraft moves around it

page 135

741
Q

what is VAT/Vref speed ?

A

VAT is velocity at threshold speed
Vref velocity reference speed

is the target approach threshold speed above the fence height for a specified falp setting

VAT/Vref = 1.3 Vs in the landing configuration

page 216

742
Q

what advantages does a jet engine aircraft gain from flying at a high altitude ?

A
  • best SFC although will need to be flown at the maximum endurance speed
  • higher TAS for constant IAS

page 71

743
Q

why is the surface wind important to pilots ?

A

cause of the effects it has on take off and landing

page 240

744
Q

what is the gyroscope caging system and why is it used?

A

a caging system locks the gyroscope this is used to avoid toppling (stay rigid in space) once the aircraft is restarted

ex. AH

page 136

745
Q

what is a primary cell battery ?

A

is a battery that cannot be recharged

page 178

746
Q

what is a meteorological report ?

A

an observation of the weather at the time of the report

page 267

747
Q

describe the radio magnetic instruments (RMI) and how it works ?

A

is an advance development of the RBI can be used to display ADF or VOR navigation information

page 144

748
Q

what are the CAT I, II,III ILS ICAO approach limits ?

A
CAT I = DH not less then  200ft
CAT II = DH 200ft not lower than 100ft
CAT IIIa = DH 100ft not lower than 50ft
CAT IIIb = DH less then 50 ft
CAT IIIc = DH 0ft 

page 298

749
Q

what is hyperventilation ?

A

too much oxygen breathing

page 328

750
Q

What is Mach Trimmer and what is used for?

A

Is a system that with a proportional upwards movement of the elevator or variable incidence stabiliser maintains the aircraft’s pitch attitude above its Mcrit

Page 24

751
Q

During what phases of flight is lift the greatest?

A

During take off (page 5)

752
Q

describe and auto land system ?

A

it’s a function of the auto pilot that can land the plane by it self

page 161

753
Q

what is a wind-milling propeller ?

A

when the propeller is spinning due to the aircraft speed and not due to the engine power.

as the propeller is not getting propelled by the engine is not causing lift. The airflow that hits the outside of the propeller created a force on the outside AoA (negative AoA) causing the prop to spin.

page 60

754
Q

why should you not use reverse thrust at low speed ?

A

to don’t get contaminations into the engine and make the engine breath its own exhaust gas

page 287

755
Q

what is ETOPS ?

A

Extended Twin Operations
it’s an approval to fly more than 60 min away from alternate considering the event of one engine failure

ETOPS to cross Pacific Ocean is 180min

page 274

756
Q

what are trade winds ?

A

are surface wind of 15kt that can extend up to 10000ft they blow in the subtropical high and convergent into ITCZ.
N.H. = NE
S.H. = SE

page 241

757
Q

what is V2 speed ?

A

V2 is VTOSS to be achieved at screen height even with one engine failure
V2 cannot be less than Vs x 1.2 and VMCA x 1.1

page 196

758
Q

what is an air mass ?

A

is a large parcel of air with similar temperature and pressure throughout

page 243

759
Q

can you use reverse thrust in flight ?

A

No

page 288

760
Q

what’s TORR ?

A

the measure run required to the unstick speed Vr + 1/3 of airborne distance to reach screen height + 15% safety margin

page 185

761
Q

what is an ATIS ?

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service pre recorder to reduce workload on ATC

page 269

762
Q

what is an airborne doppler system ?

A

is a self contained radio system that calculates the ground speed based on doppler effect

page 92

763
Q

how is fuel measured ?

A

in terms of mass (kg)

page 173

764
Q

when should the anti collision and navigation lights be switch on ?

A

anti collision light = whenever and engine is running by day or night
nav lights = at night

page 310

765
Q

what causes a jet/gas turbine upset, and how do you correct it ?

A

disturbed and turbulent airflow will cause the engine to be upset and stall.

indications:

  • TGT rises
  • engine vibration
  • RPM fluctuations

page 80

766
Q

What are the effect of wing tip vortices?

A
  • create induce drag
  • create turbulence
  • down wash affects the direction of the relative airflow over the tailplane which affects longitudinal stability

Page 11

767
Q

how does air temperature effects relative humidity ?

A
  • if temperature increases the parcel of air expands therefore the amount of water compared to the size of the parcel of air is reduced.
  • if the temperature decreases the parcel of air shrinks therefore the amount of water compared to the size of the parcel of air is increased.

page 227

768
Q

what is magnet dip ?

A

a natural phenomenon caused by the vertical component of the magnetic field that causes the magnet to dip down.

is stronger getting closer to the poles and weaker getting further form the poles

page 143

769
Q

describe the approach difference between a jet and a piston engine propeller aircraft ?

A
  • momentum (jet is heavier so changes are much slower)
  • speed stability
  • wing lift value
  • engine response rate (acceleration/deceleration)
  • slipstream effect
  • power on stall speed (the prop slipstream lowers the stall speed when powering on, jet don’t have that)

page 85

770
Q

how would you teach a student about VMCG/A ?

A

they are the minimum speed to don’t loss control after one engine has failed

page 192

771
Q

how is a DH or MDA calculated for a precision approach ?

A
  • take the higher OCH
  • add 50ft if not suffering from PEC

page 278

772
Q

describe the weather associated with a high pressure system

A
  • clear upper sky with little of no clouds
  • stable air (stratus)
  • light winds
  • possible low vis at low level

page 247

773
Q

what actions should be taken for filed navigation and anti collision light ?

A

at night:

  • on the ground = aircraft cannot dispatch
  • in flight = land asap unless advised different by ATC

at day:
both on the ground or in flight keep flying

page 310

774
Q

What is the rudder and how does it work?

A

Page 35

775
Q

how are frontal depression developed ?

A

when two air mass meet but do not mix together

page 249

776
Q

What is Mach Tuck?

A

As speed increases above Mach critical number the shockwave created will get bigger and move backwards and backward. The highest lift is in front of the shock wave so the CoP will move with it. As the CoP moves rearward it will lift the tail and pitch the nose down causing Mach Tuck

Page 24

777
Q

describe the doppler effect ?

A

is the change of frequency between the transmitted and received signal.
as you get closer the frequency circles increase and you get further the frequency of coming circles decreases

page 92

778
Q

describe the air driven AH ?

A

primary attitude instrument that displays pitch and roll about the horizontal axis

  • earth gyro
  • rotates about vertical axis
  • two gimbals
  • three planes of freedom
  • aligned to earth vertical

page 137

779
Q

what lightning designations are on air navigation obstacles ?

A

obstacles greater than 150m = high intensity flashing white light, day and night
obstacles less than 150m but higher than 100m = medium intensity flashing red light by night

page 275

780
Q

what are the advantages of the GPS ?

A
  • truly global
  • high capacity use
  • high redundant satellites
  • built in fix confirmation (n3)
  • able to be integrated into FMS
  • potential to be very accurate
  • ability to fly great circle tracks very accurately
  • free of charge

page 95

781
Q

what is DALR ?

A

Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (Unsaturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate) = 3ºC x 1000ft

page 227

782
Q

what is alternating current AC ?

A

continuously reverses its direction of flow in an electric circuit

page 178

783
Q

what is OCH/A ?

A

Obstacles Clearance Height above aerodrome level

page 274

784
Q

what are the advantages of a wide-chord fan engine ?

A

the wider the fan chord, the higher is the balde tip speed, the greater is the generated airflow speed, and the greater is the discharged air pressure, resulting in an increased engine thrust

page 67

785
Q

how are reverse thrust, antiskid, and braking applied to stopping distance ?

A
  • reverse thrust is not applied to the ASDA calculation but 10% to landing distance in case of reverse malfunction
  • antiskid applied to TOD and LD
  • braking applied to ASDA and LDR

page 203

786
Q

what is alert height ?

A

is a specific radio height where if a failure occurs during CAT II and III approach , the fail operational system will carry a go around

page 300

787
Q

how does differential GPS work ?

A

a ground station fixes up the GPS signal and sends a more accurate signal to aircrafts within 70 nm

page 96

788
Q

what are the visual and aural indications of ILS marker beacons ?

A

outer marker = blue = O (morse code)
middle marker = amber = C instead of M cause too similar to O (morse code)
inner marker = white = I (morse code)

page 297

789
Q

What happens the CAS and IAS if you descent at constant TAS ?

A

they both increase

page 124

790
Q

what controls the propeller blade angle/ speed ?

A

the governor (CSU)

page 57

791
Q

why is the risk per flight decreased with a reduces thrust take off ?

A
  • full reverse thrust has more effective quicker
  • if engine failure continued take off we can increase thrust

page 77

792
Q

describe how a jet/gas turbine engine works ?

A
  • induction
  • compression
  • combustion
  • expansion
  • exhaustion

page 63

793
Q

What is the elevator and how does it work?

A

Page 35

794
Q

convert fuel weight to volume

A

if SG 0.8
WT (kg) / 0.8 = volume in liters

page 173

795
Q

explain a Venturi

A
a venturi is a convergent/divergent tube
convergent:
- velocity increase, 
- static pressure decreases, 
- temperature decreases 

divergent:

  • velocity decrease
  • static pressure increases
  • temperature increases

page 52

796
Q

what does a watt meter shows ?

A

the number of watts being consumed

page 176

797
Q

describe the fan engine and it’s advantages ?

A

85% of airflow is ducted, the other 15% goes into the engine core. After passing through the front Fan, the air goes into Low Pressure Compressor(N1), where air pressure and temperature start to rise. After it goes into the High Pressure Compressor(N2) where 70% of pressure and temperature rise is experienced. Then it goes through the Diffuser that slows the airflow down to be properly ignited in the Combustion Chamber. The airflow then goes through the High Pressure Turbine that extracts energy to spin the High Pressure Compressor via a connecting rod (spool). Then it goes into the Low Pressure Turbine that extracts energy to spin the Low Pressure Compressor and the Fan
(spool). In the exhaust phase the ducted air and the core air mix. The ducted air causes 80% of thrust the core air 20%.

Advantages:

  • smaller engine size
  • better propulsive efficiency
  • better specific fuel consumption
  • reduce engine noise
  • contaminations are discharged via the bypass duct

page 67

798
Q

what work functions does an auto pilot achieve ?

A
  • stabilising the aircraft
  • manoeuvring the aircraft

page 158

799
Q

what is the relationship of V1 and Vr ?

A

Vr can never be less then V1

page 192

800
Q

what is the minimum height/altitude rule ?

A

IFR = 1000ft above the highest terrain within 5 nm

ICAO increased it to 2000ft

page 275

801
Q

describe the formation of a thunderstorm

A

four conditions:

  • high moisture content in the air
  • a trigger lifting action
  • adiabatic cooling of the rising air
  • a highly unstable atmosphere

3 stages:
- developing stage = up draught move air aloft that start to condensate
- mature stage = water drops start to fall with associated down draught
dissipating stage = last showers

page 233

802
Q

what are the main influences on air density ?

A
  • temperature
  • pressure
  • humidity

page 118

803
Q

what is a balanced tab?

A

reduces the overall hinge moment like a trim tab

804
Q

why is it important not to lose speed on the approach ?

A

to don’t lose lift, especially when getting closer to the ground

page 286

805
Q

how many feet are in a millibar ?

air pressure rate of change

A

the rate of change in air pressure is more near the ground and less at high altitude

page 116

806
Q

how does the propeller converts energy horse power to produce thrust ?

A

thrust = air mass x velocity

page 56

807
Q

what is atmospheric/ meteorological visibility ?

A

the greatest horizontal distance

page 264

808
Q

how do you calculate the aquaplaning speed ?

A

9 x sq.root of tyre pressure in pound for TO
7.5 x sq.root of tyre pressure in pound for LDG

page 321

809
Q

which is the most difficult landing a left or right XW ?

A

left in NH
right in SH

page 284

810
Q

what is a visual whitening effect ?

A

a white surface can distort a person;s visual depth

page 331

811
Q

what happens to CAS or IAS an Mn if an aircraft climbs at a constant TAS through and inversion layer ?

A
Mn decrease (if temp increases LSS increases, if LSS increases Mn decrease)
IAS CAS will decrease

page 126

812
Q

what is the primary meaning of preflight meteorological forecast briefing for aircrew ?

A

using facilities available to pilot

page 267

813
Q

how does an INS/IRS find magnetic north ?

A

applies the stored variation the true north

page 93

814
Q

what is the aviation definition of height ?

A

distance above ground (QFE)

page 115

815
Q

what it rho rho rho Omega ?

A

a omega system using three stations position fixing

page 99

816
Q

when can you descent during a NDB approach ?

A
  • when at the define procedure descent point
  • maintain +-5º

page 297

817
Q

where are CAT found ?

A

warm air = level with or just above the jetstream core
cold (polar) air = on the side of the jetstream

page 238

818
Q

what is a special forecast, and when is it requested ?

A

meteo forecast for flights over long routes outside the coverage of the local countries’ area forecast

page 271

819
Q

what are the basic parameters of aircraft electrical system ?

A
  • no paralleling of the AC source of power
  • all generator bus source have to manually connected via a switch

page 181

820
Q

what is the principal of the bypass engine ?

A

move of the thrust (acceleration of air) is caused by airflow getting duct around the engine core

page 65

821
Q

describe the triple spool turbo an engine.

A

it works like a twin spool with the difference that it also has as an intermediate pressure compressor.

Low Pressure Compressor (N1)
Intermediate Pressure Compressor (N2)
High Pressure Compressor (N3)

advantages:

  • the compressors have their own connecting shafts
  • higher engine thrust
  • easier to start
  • easier to built and maintain

page 68

822
Q

how to you fly a crosswind approach and landing, yaw or wing down ?

A

follow company policy

page 284

823
Q

how does the wind (direction and speed) change with height ?

A

northern h. = increases in speed and veers
southern h. = increases in speed and backs

page 239

824
Q

in what conditions would you expect icing and when should you turn on the engine anti icing ?

A

on the ground = when OAT is +10º or lower with visible moister
in flight =
- during climb and cruise: TOT is between +10º and -40º with visible moisture
- during descent : TAT is below +10º with visible moisture

note: temperatures below -40º don’t pose a threat because crystals don’t have no liquid state that can stick to the plane

page 325

825
Q

what is a Watt a measure of ?

A

unit of electrical power
Watts = volts x amps

page 176

826
Q

If you were loading and aircraft for max range, aft of forward CoG?

A

Aft

Page 16

827
Q

what is icing ?

A

the change of water state to solid

page 261

828
Q

why does an aircraft descent quicker when is lighter ?

A

because an aircraft is restricted to a maximum speed during a descent, therefore a heavy aircraft will have to maintain a lower RoD to don’t overspeed

page 283

829
Q

when must the pilots be at the aircraft’s control ?

A
  • one pilot at all times
  • during take off and landing
  • transition to 10000ft
  • ToD

page 316

830
Q

describe TAS

A

is the true airspeed,
is EAS corrected for density error

page 121

831
Q

describe the relative bearing indicator (RBI) instrument and how it works ?

A

the RBI is a simple ADF that display NDB navigation informations

page 144

832
Q

why was the jet/gas turbine engine invented ?

A
  • to achieve higher altitudes
  • to achieve higher speeds
  • to create a simpler more reliable engine

page 62

833
Q

What is the direct lift control ?

A

Elevator / stabilizer (page 6)

834
Q

what does red only edge centreline lights on a runway indicate ?

A

the last 300m of the runway

page 315

835
Q

how does VMCG/A varies with CoG position ?

A

a aft position required an higher VMCG/A cause to the moment arm to the rudder will be shorter.

forward position is vice versa

page 195

836
Q

what is the night effect on wind direction and speed ?

A

decreases more in speed and backs more in NH

page 281

837
Q

what is carburetor icing ?

A

ice can form in the carburator, especially in the venturi shape part where temperature can drop by 25ºC, and around the throttle valve

page 264

838
Q

what is gyroscopic wander ?

A

any movement away from its fixed direction is called wander which can cause inaccurate instrument readings

page 135

839
Q

what is V3 speed ?

A

is the all engine operative take off climb speed the aircraft will achieve at screen height

page 196

840
Q

what is the pilot’s order of priority given a windshear, GPWS, and TCAS warning at the same time ?

A
  1. windshear
  2. GPWS
  3. TCAS

page 156

841
Q

what is visual empty field myopia ?

A

when flying over water, sheet of cloud or at night your eyes focus to 1 m of distance ahead

page 332

842
Q

how does an isoecho (weather radar) work ?

A

the radar aerial fitted in the nose scans 90º left and right and 15º up and down. it detects water droplets

page 112

843
Q

a flight carried out below its optimal altitude has what results on jet performance ?

A

it uses more fuel but it takes less time to complete the trip when flying at constant mach number

page 211

844
Q

what are the disadvantages of the GPS ?

A
  • selective availability
  • system errors

page 96

845
Q

what errors does DG suffer ?

A
  • system failure
  • total wander errors
  • ONUS (S.H.) and UNOS (N.H.)

page 137

846
Q

What are high lift devices ?

A

Slats ( leading edge flaps - Kruger Flaps),
Trailing edge flaps ( fowler flaps)
Slots (boundary layer control)
(Page 6)

847
Q

describe how a NDB/ADF works ?

A

a non directional beacon is a medium range radio navigation aid that send out signals(bearings) for aircraft to home to.
transmits in the 200 to 1750 kHz medium and low frequency

page 100

848
Q

what does a voltmeter gauge shows ?

A

the number of volts produce by an electrical source

page 175

849
Q

describe the usual runway holding runway markings

A

on the runway side they are broken yellow right next to a straight yellow line on the side of the taxiway

page 315

850
Q

what effects the range of primary pulse radar ?

A
  • atmospheric attenuation
  • antenna power
  • height of the aircraft

page 109

851
Q

What are the 3 purposes of spoilers?

A
  • roll control
  • speed brakes
  • ground lift dumpers

Page 38

852
Q

what identifies (are the indications of) a microburst ?

A
  • mature cumulonimbus clouds
  • roll clouds around a CB
  • virga
  • flight path and IAS fluctuations
  • wind direction and speed changes

page 257

853
Q

what factors determine the temperature at the earth’s surface ?
(why is it hot at the tropics and cold at the poles ?)

A
  • latitude: tropics are more direct to the sun radiations than poles
  • seasons : the earth gets further in winter and closer in summer, to the sun
  • time: of the day

page 223

854
Q

what conditions reduce visibility ?

A

stable air where the moisture and contamination in the air remains in situ (dust, pollen, etc)

page 264

855
Q

explain fuel howgozit ?

A

is a comparison of the actual fuel remaining against the planned fuel remaining along the flight path

page 213

856
Q

how many spare fuses should be carried on an aircraft ?

A

minimum of 10% of total

page 177

857
Q

what is a warm front ?

A

it’s a front between two air masses where the mass at the back is warm and the one at the front is cold.
the warm air mass slides over the cold air mass.

up to 600 nm wide

page 249

858
Q

what is a ILS back course approach ?

A

a mirror image of the localiser beam on the reciprocal runway

page 104

859
Q

what errors do an AH experience ?

A
  • turning errors
  • acceleration errors
  • real wander

page 138

860
Q

describe maximum take off thrust and its limitation ?

A

is the max thrust to be selected at take off for not more then 5 min to don’t cause damage to the engine

page 65

861
Q

how does cloud cover affects the heating of the earth’s surface ?

A

by day = stops the incoming solar radiations
by night = traps the heat of the lower atmosphere

page 222

862
Q

what are TOGA switches ?

A

are located at the aft edge on the thrust levers and are used to set AT on take off or go around

page 163

863
Q

describe flight technique in moderate/severe wether/turbulent rought air

A
  • do not take off and land in this area
  • avoid these areas in flight
  • ignition on
  • autopilot on
  • select rough air speed
  • etc

page 317

864
Q

where are you likely to need a PNR ?

A

especially over large water areas

page 214

865
Q

you are flying an approach and you experience rain on the windscreen. what should you be cautious of, or what is the biggest hazard in heavy rain on final approach ?

A

microburst

page 320

866
Q

what are the lines that run east west called ?

A

parallel of latitude

page 90

867
Q

what is the combustion cycle of a jet/gas turbine engine ?

A
  • induction
  • compression
  • combustion
  • expansion
  • exhaustion
    page 62
868
Q

what is a normally aspired pistone engine ?

A

an engine where its power output is restricted by the cylinder capacity without the help of super/turbo charge

page 53

869
Q

what is static pressure ?

A

the pressure around us

page 119

870
Q

what drift would you experience when when flying from a high to low pressure system ?

A

right drift in the NH
left drift in the SH

page 245

871
Q

how do you use weather radar informations ?

A

as a mean of circumnavigating

  • below 30000ft avoid cells by 10/15nm
  • above 30000ft avoid cells by 15/20nm

page 318

872
Q

what does ISA stand for ?

A

International Standard Atmosphere

page 115

873
Q

what is a Pan Pan call and when is it used ?

A

urgency

page 305

874
Q

what is the range of a VHF signal ?

A

1.25 sq.root H1(in ft AMSL) + 1.25 sq.root H2(in ft AMSL)

H1 height of the transmitter
H2 height of the receiver

page 150

875
Q

what are the 3 entry procedure into a holding patter ?

A

sector 1 entry (110º)= parallel entry
sector 2 entry (70º)= tear drop (30º off inbound radial)
sector 3 entry (180º= direct entry

page 293

876
Q

how does the use of flaps affects landing performance ?

A

increased flap settings decrease the landing distance required

page 217

877
Q

describe OAT

A

ambient outside air temperature

page 224

878
Q

What is washout on a wing ?

A

A decrease of angle of incidence from the root to the tip to fight against early wing tip stall (page 3)

879
Q

what do you need to see to continue at DH for a CAT III approach ?

A

less restrictive than CAT II

  • approach light centreline
  • touch down zone light
  • runway centre lights

page 313

880
Q

what does blue, black, white smoke indicate ?

A

blue: oil burn (oil leak in cylinder)
black: fuel bun (mixture is too rich)
white: water (high water content into combustion chamber)

page 53

881
Q

how does the TCAS work ?

A

it will interrogate the SSR transponder of nearby planes to plot their position and relative velocity

TA = traffic advisory
RA = resolution advisory

page 152

882
Q

Describe the L/W pitching moment ?

A

If the forces of L and W are not acting to the same point there will be either a nose down or nose up pitching moment depending whether the CoG is acting in front or behind the CoP (page 5)

883
Q

what are the ASI/Mach meter indications and actions for a blocked pitot and/or static probe ?

A

Static line blockage:

  • descent they will over read
  • climb they will under read

Pitot line blockage:

  • descent will under read
  • climb will over read

page 130