Accounting REFINED COPY Flashcards
What is Working Capital? How is it used?
Working Capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities
- If it’s positive‚ it means a company can pay off its short-term Liabilities with its short-term Assets. It is often presented as a financial metric and its magnitude and sign (negative or positive) tells you whether or not the company is “sound.”
- You use Operating Working Capital more commonly in finance‚ and that is defined as (Current Assets Excluding Cash & Investments) - (Current Liabilities Excluding Debt)
- The point of Operating Working Capital is to exclude items that relate to a company’s financing and investment activities - Cash‚ Investments‚ and Debt - from the calculation.
- “Changes in Working Capital” more commonly called “Changes in Operating Assets and Liabilities) also appears on the SCF in CFO and tells you how these operationally-related B/S items change over time.
“Short-Term Investments” is a Current Asset - should you count it in Working Capital?
- No. If you wanted to be technical‚ you could say that it should be included in “Working Capital‚” as define‚ but left out of “Operating Working Capital.”
- But the truth is that no one lists Short-Term Investments in this section b/c Purchases and Sales of Investments are considered investing activities‚ NOT operational activities.
- “Working Capital” is an imprecise idea and we prefer to say “Operating Assets and Liabilities” b/c that’s a more accurate way to describe the concept of operationally-related B/S items - which may sometimes be Long-Term Assets or Long-Term Liabilities (e.g. Deferred Revenue).
What does negative (Operating) Working Capital mean? Is that a bad sign?
Not necessarily. It depends on the type of company and the specific situation - here are a few different things it could mean:
- Some companies with subscriptions or longer-term contracts often have negative Working Capital b/c of high Deferred Revenue balances.
- Retail and restaurant companies like Amazon‚ Wal-Mart‚ and McDonald’s often have negative Working Capital‚ b/c customers pay upfront‚ but they wait weeks or months to pay their suppliers - this is a sign of business efficiency and means that they have a healthy cash flow.
- In other cases‚ negative Working Capital could point to financial trouble or possible bankruptcy (for example‚ when the company owes a lot of money to suppliers and cannot pay with cash on-hand).
A company has had positive EBITDA for the past 10 years‚ but it recently went bankrupt. How could this happen?
There are several possibilities:
- The company is spending too much CapEx - these are not reflected in EBITDA but represent true cash expenses‚ so CapEx alone could make the company cash flow-negative.
- The company has high Interest Expense and is no longer able to afford its Debt.
- The company’s Debt all matures on one date and it is unable to refinance due to a “credit crunch” - and it runs out of cash when paying back the Debt.
- It has significant one-time charges (from litigation‚ for example) that have been excluded from EBITDA and those are high enough to bankrupt the company.
• Remember‚ EBITDA excludes investments in (and Depreciation of) Long-Term Assets‚ Interest‚ and Non-Recurring Charges - and any one of those could represent massive cash expenses.
Walk me through how Depreciation going up by $10 would affect the statements.
- I/S: Operating Income and Pre-Tax Income would decline by $10 and‚ assuming a 40% tax rate‚ NI would go down by $6.
- SCF: The NI at the top goes down by $6‚ but the $10 Deprecation is a non-cash expense that gets added back‚ so overall CFO goes up by $4. There are no changes elsewhere‚ so the overall Net Change in Cash goes up by $4.
- B/S: PP&E goes down by $10 on the Assets side b/c of the Depreciation and Cash is up by $4 from the changes on the SCF. Overall‚ Assets is down by $6‚ Since NI fell by $6 as well‚ SE on the Liabilities & Equity side is down by $6 and both sides of the B/S balance. • Intuition: We save on taxes with any non-cash charge‚ including Depreciation.
What happens when Accrued Expenses increases by $10
For this question‚ remember that Accrued Expenses are recognized on the I/S but haven’t been paid out in cash yet. So this could correspond to payment being set aside for an employee‚ but not actually the employee in cash yet.
- I/S: Operating Income and Pre-Tax Income fall by $10‚ and NI falls by $6 (assuming a 40% tax rate).
- SCF: NI is down by $6‚ and the increase in Accrued Expenses will increase Cash Flow by $10‚ so overall CFO is up by $4 and the Net Change in Cash at the bottom is up by $4.
- B/S: Cash is up by $4 as a result‚ so Assets is up by $4. On the Liabilities & Equity side‚ Accrued Expenses is a Liability‚ so Liabilities is up by $10 and SE (Retained Earnings) is down by $6 due to the NI decrease‚ so both sides balance.
- Intuition: We record an additional expense and save on taxes with it‚ but that expense hasn’t been paid in cash yet‚ so our cash balance is actually up.
What happens when Accrued Expenses decreases by $10 (i.e. it’s now paid out in the form of cash)? Do NOT take into account cumulative changes from previous increases in Accrued Expenses.
Assuming that you are not taking into account any previous increases (confirm this):
- I/S: There are no changes.
- SCF: The change in Accrued Expenses in the CFO section is negative $10 b/c you pay it out in cash‚ and so the cash at the bottom decreases by $10.
- B/S: Cash is down by $10 on the Assets side and Accrued Expenses is down by $10 on the other side‚ so it balances.
- Intuition: This is a simple cash payout of previously recorded expenses.
Accounts Receivable increases by $10. Walk me through the 3 statements.
If A/R increases by $10‚ it means that we’ve recorded revenue of $10 but haven’t received it in cash yet. For example‚ a customer has ordered a $10 product from us and we’ve delivered it‚ but we are still waiting on cash payment.
- I/S: Revenue is up by $10 and so is Pre-Tax Income‚ which means that Net Income is up by $6 assuming a 40% tax rate.
- SCF: NI is up by $6 but the A/R increase is a reduction in cash (since we don’t have the cash yet)‚ so we need to subtract $10‚ which results in cash at the bottom being down by $4.
- B/S: On the Assets side‚ Cash is down by $4 and A/R is up by $10‚ so the Assets side is up by $6. On the other side‚ SE is up by $6 b/c NI has increased by $6. Both sides balance.
- Intuition: When A/R increases‚ it means that we’ve paid taxes on additional revenue but haven’t received any of that revenue in cash yet‚ so our cash balance decreases by the additional amount in taxes we’ve paid.
Prepaid Expenses decreases by $10. Walk me through the statements. Do NOT take into account cumulative changes from previous increases in Prepaid Expenses.
When Prepaid Expenses “decrease‚” it means that expenses are now recognized on the I/S. For example‚ we’ve previously paid for an insurance policy in cash and have now recognized that same expense on the I/S.
- I/S: Pre-Tax Income is down by $10 and NI is down by $6.
- SCF: NI is down by $6 but since Prepaid Expense is an Asset‚ a decrease of $10 results in an increase of $10 in cash. At the bottom of the SCF‚ cash is up by $4 as a result.
- B/S: On the Assets side‚ Cash is up by $4 and Prepaid Expense is down by $10‚ so the Assets side is down by $6 overall. On the other side‚ SE is down by $6 b/c of the reduced NI‚ so both sides balance.
- Intuition: Here‚ we’re losing NI and paying additional taxes‚ but we’ve already paid out these expenses in cash previously. So our Cash balance goes up rather than down‚ despite the additional I/S expenses.
What happens when Inventory goes up by $10‚ assuming you pay for it with cash?
- I/S: No changes.
- SCF: Inventory is an Asset so that reduces CFO - it goes down by $10‚ as does the Net Change in Cash at the bottom.
- B/S: On the Assets side‚ Inventory is up by $10 but Cash is down by $10‚ so the changes cancel out and Assets still equals Liabilities & Equity.
- Intuition: We’ve spent cash to buy Inventory‚ but haven’t manufactured or sold anything yet.
A company sells some of its PPE for $120. On the Balance Sheet‚ the PPE is worth $100. Walk me through how the 3 statements change.
- I/S: You record a Gain of $20 ($120 - $100)‚ which boosts Pre-Tax Income by $20. At a 40% tax rate‚ Net Income is up by $12.
- SCF: Net Income is up by $12‚ but you need to subtract out that Gain of $20‚ so CFO is down by $8. Then‚ in CFI‚ you record the entire amount of proceeds from the sale‚ $120‚ so that section is up by $120. At the bottom of the SCF‚ cash is therefore up by $112.
- B/S: Cash is up by $112‚ but PP&E is down by $100 since we’ve sold it‚ so the Assets side is up by $12. The other side is up by $12 as well‚ since SE is up by $12 due to the NI increase.
- Intuition: Gains and Losses are not non-cash‚ but they are re-classified on the SCF. The cash increase here simply reflects the after-tax profit from the Gain - if we had sold the PP&E at its Balance Sheet value‚ there would be no change on the I/S.
Walk me through what happens on the 3 statements when there’s an Asset Write-Down of $100.
- I/S: The $100 Write-Down reduces Pre-Tax Income by $100. With a 40% tax rate‚ NI declines by $60.
- SCF: NI is down by $60‚ but the Write-Down is a non-cash expense‚ so we add it back - and therefore CFO increases by $40. Cash at the bottom is up by $40.
- B/S: Cash is now up by $40 and an Asset is down by $100 (it’s not clear which Asset since the question never stated it). Overall‚ the Assets side is down by $60. On the other side‚ since NI was down by $60‚ SE is also down by $60 - and both sides balance.
- Intuition: The same as any other non-cash charge: we save on taxes‚ so our Cash goes up‚ and something on the B/S changes in response.
Explain what happens on the 3 statements when a company issues $100 worth of shares to investors.
- I/S: No changes (since this doesn’t affect taxes and since the shares will be around for years to come).
- SCF: CFF is up by $100 due to this share issuance‚ so cash at the bottom is up by $100.
- B/S: Cash is up by $100 on the Asset’s side and SE (Common Stock & APIC) is up by $100 on the other side to balance it.
- Intuition: This one does not affect taxes and does not correspond to the current period‚ so it doesn’t show up on the I/S - just like similar items‚ all that changes is Cash and then something else on the B/S.
Let’s say instead of issuing $100 worth of stock to investors‚ the company issues $100 worth of stock to employees in the form of Stock-Based Compensation. What happens?
- I/S: You need to record this as an additional expense b/c it’s now a tax-deductible and a current expense‚ Pre-Tax Income falls by $100 and NI falls by $60 (assuming a 40% tax rate).
- SCF: NI is down by $60 but you add back the SBC of $100 since it’s a non-cash charge‚ so cash at the bottom is up by $40.
- B/S: Cash is up by $40 on the Assets side. On the other side‚ Common Stock & APIC is up by $100 due to the SBC‚ but RE is down by $60 due to the reduced NI‚ so SE is up by $40 and both sides balance.
- Intuition: This is a non-cash charge‚ so like all non-cash charges it impacts the I/S and affects one B/S item in addition to Cash and RE - in this case‚ it flows into Common Stock & APIC b/c that one reflects the market value of stock at the time the stock was issued. The cash increase here simply reflects the tax savings.
A company decides to issue $100 in Dividends - how do the 3 statements change?
- I/S: No changes. Dividends count as a financing activity and are not tax-deductible‚ so they never appear on the I/S.
- SCF: CFF is down by $100 due to the Dividends‚ so cash at the bottom is down by $100.
- B/S: Cash is down by $100 on the Assets side‚ and SE (RE) is down by $100 on the other side‚ so both sides balance.
- Intuition: This is another non-operational CFS/BS item‚ so it is a simple use of cash and nothing else changes.
A company has recorded $100 in income tax expense on its Income Statement. All $100 of it is paid‚ in cash‚ in the current period. Now we change it and only $90 of it is paid in cash‚ with $10 being deferred to future periods. How do the statements change?
- I/S: Nothing changes. Both Current and Deferred Taxes are recorded simply as “Taxes” and NI remains the same. NI changes only if the total amount of taxes changes.
- SCF: NI remains the same but we add back the $10 worth of Deferred Taxes in CFO - no other changes‚ so cash at the bottom is up by $10.
- B/S: Cash is up by $10 and so the entire Assets side is up by $10. On the other side‚ the DTL is up by $10 and so both sides balance.
- Intuition: Deferred Taxes saves us cash in the current period‚ at the expense of additional cash taxes in the future.
Walk me through a $100 “bailout” of a company and how it affects the 3 statements.
First‚ confirm what type of “bailout” this is - Debt? Equity? A combination? The most common scenario here is an Equity (Preferred Stock) investment from the government‚ so here’s what happens:
- I/S: No changes.
- SCF: CFF goes up by $100 to reflect this new investment‚ so the Net Change in Cash is up by $100.
- B/S: Cash is up by $100 so the Assets side is up by $100; on the other side‚ SE goes up by $100 to make it balance (Common Stock & APIC for a normal equity investment or Preferred Stock for preferred).
- Intuition: It’s the same as a normal stock issuance: no I/S changes b/c nothing affects the company’s taxes.
Walk me through a $100 Write-Down of Debt - as in OWED Debt‚ a Liability - on a company’s Balance Sheet and how it affects the 3 statements.
This one is counter-intuitive. When a Liability is written down‚ you record it as an addition on the I/S (with an asset write-down‚ it’s a subtraction).
- I/S: Pre-Tax Income goes up by $100‚ and assuming a 40% tax rate‚ NI is up by $60.
- SCF: NI is up by $60‚ but we need to subtract that Debt Write-Down b/c it was non-cash - CFO is down by $40‚ and Cash is down by $40 at the bottom.
- B/S: Cash is down by $40 so the Assets side is down by $40. On the other side‚ Debt is down by $100 but SE is up by $60 b/c the NI was up by $60 - so Liabilities & SE is down by $40 and both sides balance.
- Intuition: One way to think about this is that writing down Assets is “bad” for us b/c it reduces our ability to generate future cash flow‚ but writing down Liabilities is “good” b/c it reduces our future expenses (sort of). I don’t recommend presenting it like that in an interview.
- Apple is buying $100 worth of new iPad factories with debt.
- How are all 3 statements affected at the start of “Year 1‚” before anything else happens?
- I/S: At the start of “Year 1‚” there are no changes yet.
- SCF: The $100 worth of CapEx would show up under CFI as a net reduction in Cash Flow (so Cash Flow is down by $100 so far). And the additional $100 worth of Debt raised would up as an addition to CFF‚ canceling out the investment activity. So the cash number stays the same‚ for now.
- B/S: There is now an additional $100 worth of factories‚ so PP&E is up by $100 and Assets is therefore up by $100. On the other side‚ Debt is up by $100‚ so the entire other side is up by $100 and both sides balance.
- Apple is buying $100 worth of new iPad factories with debt.
- Go out one year‚ to the start of Year 2. Assume the Debt is high-yield‚ so no principal is paid off‚ and assume an interest rate of 10%.
- Also assume the factories Depreciate at a rate of 10% per year. What happens now?
- Assume that we have already factored in the changes from Part 1 and are only tracking what happens AFTER those have taken place.
- I/S: Operating Income decreases by $10 due to the 10% Depreciation charge each year‚ and the $10 in additional Interest Expense decreases the Pre-Tax Income by $20 altogether ($10 from the Depreciation and $10 from Interest Expense). Assuming a tax rate of 40%‚ NI falls by $12.
- SCF: NI at the top is down by $12. Depreciation is a non-cash expense‚ so you add it back and the end result is that CFO is down by $2. That’s the only change on the SCF‚ so overall cash is down by $2.
- B/S: On the Assets side‚ Cash is down by $2 and PP&E is down by $10 due to the Depreciation‚ so overall the Assets side is down by $12. On the other side‚ NI was down by $12‚ SE is also down by $12 and both sides balance.
- Remember that the Debt number itself does not change since we’ve assumed that nothing is paid back.
- Apple is buying $100 worth of new iPad factories with debt. Go with 10% Depreciation per year. Go with 10% interest expense.
- At the end of Year 2‚ the factories all break down and their value is written down to $0.
- The loan must also be paid back now.
- Walk me through how the 3 statements change ONLY from the start of Year 2 to the end of Year 2.
After 2 years‚ the value of the factories is now $80 if we go with the 10% Depreciation per year assumption. It is this $80 that we will write down on the 3 statements. Also‚ don’t forget about the Interest Expense - it still needs to be paid in Year 2.
- I/S: We have $10 worth of Depreciation and then the $80 Write-Down. We also have $10 of additional Interest Expense‚ so Pre-Tax Income is down by $100. NI is down by $60 at a 40% tax rate.
- SCF: NI is down by $60 but the Write-Down and Depreciation are both non-cash expenses‚ so we add them back and cash flow is up by $30 so far. There are no changes under CFI‚ but under CFF there is a $100 charge for the loan payback - so CFF falls by $100. Overall cash at the bottom decreases by $70.
- B/S: Cash is now down by $70‚ and PP&E has decreased by $90‚ so the Assets side is down by $160. On the other side‚ Debt is down by $100 since it was paid off‚ and since NI was down by $60‚ SE is down by $60. Both sides are down by $160 and balance.
- Apple is ordering $10 of additional iPad inventory‚ using cash on hand.
- They order the inventory‚ but they have not manufactured or sold anything yet.
- What happens to the 3 statements?
- I/S: No changes.
- SCF: Inventory is up by $10‚ so CFO decreases by $10. There are no further changes‚ so overall Cash is down by $10.
- B/S: Inventory is up by $10 and Cash is down by $10 so the Assets number stays the same and the B/S remains in balance.