ABP's and SRM's Flashcards

1
Q

What is an ABP?

A

The whole animal, part of an animal or product of animal origin that is not intended for human consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Can ABP’s revert back into the food chain?

A

NEVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between an ABP and a co-product?

A

Edible co-products are intended for human consumption after processing
eg. fats, stomach, bladders, intestines and gelatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the main legislation for ABP’s?

A

(EC) 1069/2009

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who regulates the ABP’s?

A

FBO: Due diligence
APHA: Licences ABP plants
LA: Transport of ABP’s and supervision of plants
OV: Supervison and enforcement at the abattoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the types of ABP?

A

Category one- high risk to animals and people
Category two - Unfit for human or animal consumption
Category three - Not intended for human consumption (ok for animals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What ABP category are all SRM?

A

Cat 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What ABP category are entire bodies of dead animals containing SRM (unless the SRM has been removed and disposed of)?

A

Cat 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What ABP category are all body parts (including hides) of animals that are suspected to be infected with transmissible spongiform encephalopathies?

A

Cat 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What ABP category is the sludge from the water drains in slaughterhouses in which SRM’s are removed?

A

Cat 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What ABP category are animals killed in the context of TSE eradication?

A

Cat 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What ABP category are wild animals that have suspected (zoonotic) disease?

A

Cat 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What ABP category are products from animals treated with substances prohibited under EC legislation (or containing environmental contaminants)?

A

Cat 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define what is category 2 ABP?

A

Material unfit for human consumption or the sludge collected from waste water drains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What ABP category are products containing residues of licenced veterinary drugs?

A

Cat 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What ABP category are materials imported from third countries that do not comply with EU veterinary requirements?

A

Cat 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What ABP category are animals that die rather than be killed for human consumption (including animals that die for disease control - unless they are SRM)?

A

Cat 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What ABP category are animal products that were declared unfit for human consumption because they contained a foreign body?

A

Cat 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What ABP category is blood from any animal that did not pass an antemortem?

A

Cat 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define category 3 ABP

A

Not fit for human consumption, can go for pet food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What ABP category are gut contents and manure

A

Cat 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If an animal passed the antemortem, what parts of it are cat 3?

A
Poultry heads and feathers
Pig Bristles
Feet
Horns
Hides and skin
Blood (only cattle if passed the PMi)
PM rejections if they don't pose a risk to animal health
23
Q

What category is a liver with lesions from ascaris scum or fasciola hepatica?

24
Q

Category 3 ABP’s can be used for raw pet food if…

A

It is stored in a new, leak proof container that is clearly labelled not fit for human consumption
Is stored and transported at <7’C
Sampled for salmonella spp. and enterobacteria

25
How are category 1 ABP's disposed of?
Approved incineration Pressure sterilisation followed by permanent marking and disposal at landfill Fuel combustion at approved combustion plant
26
How are category 2 ABP's disposed of?
As cat 1 or can be used as fertiliser after processing, for cosmetics, medical devices Manure and gut contents can go straight to non-pasture land without processing
27
How are cat 3 ABP's disposed of?
Pet food plants Technical plants (pharmaceuticals) biogas plants and tanneries
28
How are category 1 and 2 ABP's pressure sterilised?
133'C and 3 bars of pressure for 20mins
29
What animals can be fed cat 2 (and 3)?
Zoo and circus animals Reptiles or birds of prey Hound packs and maggot farms
30
How are category 1, 2 and 3 tubs labelled?
Cat 1 : Disposal only Cat 2: Not for animal consumption Cat 3: Not for human consumption
31
What colour are SRM's dyed?
Blue
32
What colour are non-SRM cat 1 and cat 2 ABP's dyes?
Black
33
What colour are cat 3 ABP's Dyed
No dye
34
What are the exceptions to dying of ABP's?
``` Whole carcasses Teaching/research material Dispute or OV inspection Blood Manure/gut contents ```
35
When transporting ABP's what should be recorded?
Weight, description, category, destination, date, signature
36
Who enforces the ABP rules inside the abattoir?
The FSA on behalf of DEFRA
37
Who enforces the ABP rules outside the abattoir?
TSA, AHPA but the OV must report any shady business
38
Who is responsible for the separation, dying and storing of ABP's
The FBO
39
What are SRM's?
The parts of an animal that are most likely to pose an infective risk if the animal were to be infected with TSE
40
What parts of cattle (of all ages) are SRM?
Tonsils Last 4m of small intestine Caecum Mesentery
41
What parts of cattle over 12m are SRM?
Tonsils Last 4m of small intestine Caecum Mesentery PLUS Skull (excluding the mandible) Brain and eyes Spinal cord
42
What parts of cattle over 30m are SRM?
Tonsils Last 4m of small intestine Caecum Mesentery PLUS Skull (excluding the mandible) Brain and eyes PLUS Spinal cord and vertebral column including the dorsal ganglia EXCLUDING: Vertebrae of the tail and lumbar region Spinous and transverse processes of the cervical and thoracic vertebrae Wings of the sacrum
43
How is a cattle carcase over thirty months (OTM) identified?
Red stripe on the label | REMOVE VC
44
How are cattle under thirty months identified (UTM), what does this mean?
No red stripe on the label, no need to remove the VC
45
If a cow carcass has lost its label or ID, what happens to its VC?
Get rid
46
How is it established if a cow is OTM or UTM?
Teeth | Identification (tags, FCI)
47
What parts of a sheep (all ages) are SRM?
Spleen | Ileum
48
What parts of a sheep (over 12m) are SRM?
Spleen Ileum PLUS Skull including the brain, eyes Tonsils Spinal cord
49
How many incisors do cows OTM have?
4
50
How many incisors do sheep over 12m have?
2
51
What cattle do we test for BSE?
All cattle that die or are killed for HC over 48m All cattle that are emergency slaughtered or found sick at antemortem over 48m All animals born before 1996 (21 year old cows???)
52
Romanian cattle, Bulgarian cattle and UK imported cattle (If not slaughtered within 20d of arrival) are tested for BSE at what age?
All healthy cattle over 20m All ES over 24m All fallen stock not fit foR HC at over 24m
53
How is BSE testing done and by who?
Brain stem taken by the FBO FBO trained by the APHA Carcass and offal only released on a negative test result Not health marked until receipt of negative test