ABO, H, Lewis, and P Flashcards

1
Q

The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is:
a. Galactosyl transferase
b. N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase
c. L-fucosyltransferase
d. N-acetylfucosaminyl transferase

A

L-fucosyltransferase

L-fucosyltransferase helps add/bestow an L-fucose molecule to the terminal galactose of the precursor chain.

Know the organic compounds which become carbohydrate based blood groups and the transferases which confer (bestow) activity.

The H antigen can be developed using a type 1 or type 2 precursor. Either mechanism confers activity of H via L-fucosyltransferase.

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2
Q

Individuals who are non-secretor, group A, Le(a+b-) would have which substance in their saliva?
a. A, H, Lea, Leb
b. A, H, Lea
c. A, Lea, Leb
d. Lea only

A

Correct: Lea only

short answer;

If a person is a nonsecretor (sese), then they will NOT have ABH substances in their secretions.

Additionally, a person who inherits the Le gene, will only produce Leb substance ONLY IF they possess the secretor gene (Sese or SeSe)

Long answer;

The secretor gene and Lewis gene use the same precursor chain, having a preference for the type 1 chain (this means that technically type 1 and/or type 2 chains can be used but the precursor prefers type 1).

For simplicity sakes when discussing Lewis, let’s just talk type 1 chains.

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3
Q

To confirm the specificity of a serum containing Anti-P, an inhibition/neutralization study was performed and the following results were obtained:
Inhibition Test: NEG
Inhibition Control: NEG
What conclusions can be made from these results?
a. Anti-P is confirmed
b. Anti-P is ruled out
c. The Anti-P was inhibited
d. The test is not valid

A

Correct: This test is NOT valid

The inhibition/neutralized control should be always be positive!

Here is a piece from the tech manual describing why

The absence of agglutination in the dilution control tube means that the dilution in the neutralization step was too great for the antibody present, and the results of the test are invalid.

The steps in a neutralization procedure include the following:

Action (neutralization for Sda)

  1. Mix equal volumes of thawed urine and test plasma.
         Example:
    
         tube name- neutralized plasma
    
         contents- 10 drops urine + 10 drops test plasma
  2. Prepare a dilution control tube containing equal volumes of Saline and test plasma.

Example:

tube name- dilution control

contains- 10 drops saline + 10 drops test plasma

  1. Incubate all tubes at room temperature for 30 minutes.
  2. Mix 1 drop of each test red cell sample with 4 drops from each of the tubes: neutralized plasma and saline+plasma. Test each one using standard procedures.

If the dilution control is negative, you’ve demonstrated that you have DILUTED the antibody of interest (which makes your testing invalid). You would also expect your neutralized plasma to be negative but you cannot positively confirm whether this is due to diluting the antibody or neutralization.

The dilution control must always be positive for your test to be valid to indicate you have not DILUTED your antibody of interest.

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4
Q

A pregnant woman’s serum contains hemolytic Anti-Lea. Her husband’s RBC type is Le(a+). What is the chance that the fetus will develop immune-mediated HDN?

a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. 0%

A

correct: 0%

Lewis antigens are not expressed on infant’s RBCs at birth, so there is no risk of HDN

Some ordering physicians request Lewis titers on pregnant mothers. An astute serologist will understand that this testing is unnecessary.

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5
Q

A 10 year old child is admitted to the hospital for an investigation of unexplained hemolysis. The mother reported that the child recently had a mumps infection. The child had been playing in the snow, and after he came in from the cold the mother reported he had red urine. The next best test to perform to determine the antibody specificity is:

a. Antibody ID panel
b. Ham’s test
c. Donath Landsteiner Test
d. Elution

A

correct: Donath Landsteiner test

This is a classical pattern of Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuira (PCH). An auto-anti-P antibody develops after a viral infection, and this antibody is biphasic. The antibody binds complement to the RBCs in a cooler temperature, and then causes hemolysis when the temperature rises. These examples are typically seen in children and young adults. A donath landsteiner test is performed to prove the biphasic antibody is present.

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6
Q

Red blood cells from a patient with HEMPAS typically exhibit which characteristic?
a. increased amounts of i antigen
b. decreased amounts of i antigen
c. increased amounts of H antigen
d. increased amounts of sialic acid

A

correct: increased amounts of i antigen

HEMPAS (Hereditary Erythroblastic Multinuclearity with a Positive Acidified Serum test) is a congenital anemia in which the rbc membranes are abnormal. These cells typically have increased amounts of i antigen, decreased amounts of H antigen, and decreased sialic acid.

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7
Q

A mother who is Lu(a-b+) and a father who is Lu(a+b-) have three children. Their lutheran phenotypes are: Child 1 Lu(a+b+), Child 2 Lu(a+b+), Child 3 Lu(a-b-).
The result of child 3 can best be described by which situation?
a. Inheritance of In(Lu)
b. lulu genotype
c. non-paternity
d. crossing over

A

correct: lulu genotype

The mother is probably Lub lu and the father is probably Lua lu In this situation, the child 3 could have inherited two copies of the lu gene, which is an amorph. A lulu genotype, results in a Lutheran phenotype of Lu(a-b-)If either of the parents had the In(Lu) gene, then they would be Lu(a-b-) as this is a dominant gene which inhibits the formation of Lutheran antigens)Non-paternity is a possiblity, but not the best description here, since the child could in fact have inherited two copies of the recessive lu gene, which is an amorphCrossing over is a rare genetic event, and is not the most likely explanation

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8
Q

Which of the following antigens are NOT developed on cord cells?
a. I and Sda
b. M and N
c. D and c
d. K1 and Lea

A

Correct: I and Sda

The other antigens are well developed on cord cells.

Recall from previous questions newborns express “i” which develop into “I” with age.

Additionally, Sda is a carbohydrate antigen (as is i/I) synthesized by an enzyme. Sda has a characteristic mixed field appearance with free red cells when viewed microscopically. Sda is inhibited by urine from Sda+ individuals (some friends of mine in the IRL had to void their urine!) and by guinea pig urine. Anti-Sda is not generally considered clinically significant.

Sda is noted for its “refractile” appearance under the microscope mixed with tightly bound red cells.

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9
Q

Characteristics of PCH include:

a. The antibody is usually IgM
b. The antibody has P specificity
c. The antibody is nonreactive with enzyme treated cells
d. All of the above are true

A

Correct: antibody has P specificity.

PCH is caused by a biphasic, IgG antibody, which does react with enzyme treated cells.
Diagnostic methods of PCH
Diagnosis is based on evidence of anemia linked to hemolysis, the presence of hemoglobin in urine, a positive result from the Donath-Landsteiner (DL) test and evidence of anti-P specificity of the IgG autoantibodies.
Management and treatment
Most cases of PCH are self-limited so treatment is usually symptomatic, including keeping the patient warm and red blood cell transfusion if necessary. Patients with few clinical symptoms and slight anemia may not require drug therapy. Corticosteroids and splenectomy are usually ineffective and should not be considered. In cases of life-threatening PCH, plasmapheresis can temporarily dampen the hemolysis. Some patients may respond to rituximab, although responses are usually short-lived. If syphilis is present, treatment with antibiotics generally eliminates the concurrent hemolysis.

Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH) is caused by an IgG biphasic hemolysin that most commonly has P blood group specificity. The antibody (autoanti-P) optimally binds red cells at 4C. However, complement is activated and red cells are lysed at 37C. The Donath-Landsteiner test consist of incubating a patient’s serum with P positive red cells at 4C alone, at 37C alone and at 4C followed by 37C. The DL test is positive when the degree of hemolysis is greater in 4C followed by 37C tube. PCH is an autoimmue hemolytic anemia that is associated with viral infections typically in young children. (resource: Transfusion Medicine Self Assessment Review 3rd edition Blackall et al)

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10
Q

Which of the statement(s) is(are) TRUE for the I/i system?
a. I and i are alleles
b. little i antigen is comprised of many branched chains
c. HDN due to potent anti-I has been described
d. Patients with M. pneumoniae infection often develop strong cold agglutinins with I specificity

A

Correct: Patients with M. pneumoniae infection often develop strong cold agglutinins with I specificity

The production of autoanti-I may be stimulated by microorganisms carrying I like antigen on their surface. Patients with Mycoplasma pneumoniae often develop strong cold agglutinins with I specificity as a crossreactive response to mycoplasma antigen and can experience a transient episode of acute abrupt hemolysis just as the infection begins to resolve. I an i are not really alleles. At birth, infant red cells are rich in i, and I is almost undetectable. Over the next 18 months the infant’s red cells will convert from i to I antigen. Remember that the i antigen is a straight chain form, and the I antigen, is a branched form of the chain. HDN due to potent anti-I has not been described, since fetal cells have only i antigen, and not the I antigen.

There are two disease associations with development of anti-i and anti-I.

anti-i development associated with infectious mononucleosis

anti-I development associated with M. pneumonia (ie “walking pneumonia”)

I remember because mononucleosis has circle letters as the letter “i” has the circle at the top and “I” looks like a leg so I remember this as walking pneumonia. (kind of silly but maybe you’ll remember this way too!)

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11
Q

Which gene is needed to produce Lea substance in the saliva of an individual

a. Le
b. Se
c. H
d. Lea

A

Correct: Le
There is no Lea gene. Only the Le gene, which can be modified by the presence of the Secretor gene Se.

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12
Q

Your institution is developing the Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling (PUBS) technique. Physicians need to distinguish RBCs of fetal and maternal origin. Which method below is the best approach for discerning cellular origin?

a. Perform an ABO, RH, and DAT on the sample drawn.
b. Perform P phenotype on the sample
c. Perform a freeze-thaw elution on PUBS sample
d. Perform I phenotype on sample

A

Correct : Perform I phenotype on sample

Neonates have i antigen on their red cells and almost undetectable amounts of I antigen.

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13
Q

Which of the antibody specificities below is a benign autoantibody, found in many normal healthy people?

a. anti-I
b. anti-H
c. anti-P1
d. anti-i

A

Correct: anti-I

It is quite common for patients to have an auto-anti-I which reacts only at 4 C.

The antibody will not be detected often though since we routinely do not screen at 4 C for antibodies, and also use anti-IgG as the primary antiglobulin reagent (not anti-C3 or anti0IgG/C3)

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14
Q

A patient has the genotype hh, AB. What blood group will he appear to be on the forward ABO typing?
a. O
b. B
c. A
d. AB

A

Correct: O

This individual LACKS the ability to produce

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15
Q

A bleeding patient is in need of group O blood. From which US ethnic group would one find the most group O donors?

a. European-American
b. African-American
c. Asian-American
d. Native American
e. Melanesian-American

A

Correct: D Native American

African-American: 49%
Asian-American: 41%
European-American: 44%
Native American: 79%

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16
Q

A mixed-field agglutination reaction may be observed in which of the following situations?

a. Between anti-B and some weak subgroups of B
b. After recent transfusion of group O RBCs to a non-group O individual
c. Between anti-Sda and Sda-positive red cells in the antiglobulin phase of testing
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D. All of the above

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17
Q

Bombay phenotype (Oh) individuals:

a. Have red cells that do not agglutinate with either anti-A or anti-B but do agglutinate with Ulex europaeus lectin
b. Have naturally occurring anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H
c. Can be transfused safely with blood from donors of any blood group (A, B, AB, O)
d. Have naturally occuring anti-A and anti-B but they are not reactive at 37 C
e. Inherit SeSe at the Se locus

A

Correct: B

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18
Q

Which of the following red cell types is most frequently used to demonstrate the specificity of anti-I?

a. Adult cells
b. Oh Bombay cells
c. Cord cells
d. Le(a+b+) cells
e. i adult cells

A

Correct: C

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19
Q

The Leb antigen serves as a receptor for which microorganism?

a. Candida albicans
b. Escherichia coli
c. Streptococcus suis
d. Helibacter pylori
e. Yersinia enterolitica

A

Correct: D

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20
Q

Which of the following antigens or phenotypes occurs more frequently in people of African ethnicity than in those of European ethnicity?

a. A
b. I-negative adult
c. Le (a-b-)
d. p
e. P2

A

Correct: C

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21
Q

Which of the following antibodies is characteristically associated with in-vitro hemolysis?
a. Anti-C
b. Anti-D
c. Anti-Fya
d. Anti-K
e. Anti-Lea

A

Correct: e

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22
Q

An antibody associated with a positive Donath-Landsteiner test result is most likely to have specificity for which blood group antigen?
a. E
b. M
c. I
d. P
e. Lua

A

Correct: D

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23
Q

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE for the I/i system?
a. I and i are alleles
b. HDN due to potent anti-I have been described
c. i antigen is comprised of many branched chains
d. Patients with M. pneumoniae infection often develop strong cold agglutinins with I specificity

A

Correct: D

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24
Q

A Le (a-b-) individual with an anti-Lea in his serum is transfused with Le (a+) red blood cells. Which statement below best describes the most likely result of this transfusion?
a. The patient will not have a transfusion reatction, and the DAT will be negative
b. The patient will have a moderately severe delayed transfusion reaction
c. The patient will have a mild transfusion reaction, having only a positive DAT
d. The patient will have a severe intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Correct: a

There are two reasons why the patient is not likely to have a transfusion reaction.
1. The anti-Lea antibodies are typically IgM cold reacting antibodies, which do not react at warmer temperatures.
2. Lewis antigens are not intrinsic to the RBC membrane, but rather are Type 1 carbohydrate chains which are absorbed from the plasma. This adsorption is reversible, and as such the donor cells typically acquire the Lewis phenotype of of the transfusion recipient within a few days of transfusion.

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25
A and B genes are inherited in a co-dominant fashion and are located on the long arm of what chromosome?
Chromosome #9
26
Amount of H antigen on red cell:
O>>A2>>B>>A2B>>A1>>A1B A1B people have so little H antigen left exposed that they may make a cold reacting anti-H.
27
Inheritance of hh and sese results in :
The rare Bombay (Oh) phenotype in which no H antigen is expressed on red cells or in secretions. Regardless of A or B genes inherited by Oh individuals, A and B antigens are not formed. Patient’s have a wide thermal amplitude anti-H as well as anti-A, anti-B and anti-A,B in plasma
28
True or False: The bombay phenotype is nonreactive with H lectin- Ulex europaeus
True
29
Cis AB Phenotype:
Genetic unit formed when both the A and B genes are inherited on the same chromosome . Often due to a portion of the B gene getting spliced into the A gene. The B antigen in Cis-AB individuals is weaker than normal B antigen in group AB people. The serum of Cis-AB people may contain a weak anti-B that reacts with all normal group B cells but not with other Cis-AB people. Due to the fact that only a portion of the B gene is spliced in. Mixed-field agglutination has been reported.
30
Unusual ABO Types - B(A) Phenotype:
Weak A antigen present on group B cells Autosomal dominant gene Reactions – Patient Cells: Anti-A = <2+ (monoclonal reagents) Anti-B = 4+ Patient Serum – Strong Anti-A Test polyclonal anti-A or other monoclonal anti-A reagents
31
Acquired B phenotype
Transient ABO discrepancy in group A people Reactions – Patient cells: Anti-A = 4+ Anti-B = <2+ Patient serum – Strong anti-B Found in patient’s with gastrointestinal infections
32
Anti-IH
Cold reacting autoantibody Reacts with red cells that have both I and H antigens present Reacts strongest with O adult cells and weakest with A1B cord cells Can be adsorbed by RESt – Rabbit Erythrocyte Stroma
33
What substances would be found in the saliva of a group B secretor who also has Lele genes? a. H, Lea b. H, B, Lea c. H, B, Lea, Leb d. H, B, Leb
C: H, B, Lea, Leb
34
The Le gene codes for a specific glycosyltransferase that transfers a fucose to the N-acetylglucosamine on: a. Type 1 precursor chain b. Type 2 precursor chain c. Types 1 and 2 precursor chains d. Either type 1 or type 2 in any on individual but not in both
A: Type 1 Chains
35
Which of the following characteristics best describes Lewis antibodies? a. IgM, naturally occuring, cause HDFN b. IgM, naturally occuring, does not cause HDFN c. IgG, in vitro hemolysis, can cause hemolytic transfusion reactions. d. IgG, in vitro hemolysis, do not cause hemolytic transfusion reactions
b. IgM, naturally occuring, do not cause HDFN
36
Which statement below in regard to the P blood group system is false? a. The P1 antigen deteriorates with storage b. P1 antigen expression varies among individuals c. There is an association between anti-P1+P+Pk and spontaneous abortions occurring early in pregnancy in p women. d. Anti-P1 is a biphasic, IgM antibody found in individuals who have paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) often.
False: Anti-P1 is a biphasic, IgM antibody found in individuals who have paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) often. Auto-anti-P (not anti-P1) is a biphasic IgM antibody found in individuals who have paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH).
37
A patient inherits the following genes: Se, H, Le. Which choice below represents the correct phenotype information for this patient? a. Secretor, Le(a+b-) b. Non-secretor, Le (a+b-) c. Non-secretor, Le (a-b+) d. Secretor, Le (a-b+)
Correct: d. Secretor, Le (a-b+) The Le gene actually codes for the production of the Lea antigen. When the Se gene is also inherited, the Lea antigens are converted to Leb antigens.
38
Oh individuals lack which one of the following transferases? a. Galactosaminul transferase b. 2-L-fucosyl transferase c. 2-L-glucosylaminyl transferase d. N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase
Correct: b. 2-L-fucosyl transferase
39
Which of the statement(s) is(are) true for the I/i system? a. I and i are alleles b. HDN due to potent anti-I has been described c. i antigen is comprised of many branched chains d. Patients with M. pneumoniae infection often develop strong cold agglutinins with I specificity
Correct: d. Patients with M. pneumoniae infection often develop strong cold agglutinins with I specificity
40
A person inherits the A and H genes. Which products are coded for by those genes? a. Lactosylceramide and L-fucosyltransferase b. Carbohydrate straight chains c. Paragloboside and Type 1 precursor substance d. L-fucosyltransferase and N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase
Correct: d. L-fucosyltransferase and N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase
41
A person has the following genotype: AO,Hh,Lele, SeSe. What phenotype will the RBCs have? a. Group A, Le(a-b+) b. Group A, Le(a+b-) c. Group O, Le(a+b+) d. Group AO, Le(a-b+)
Correct: a. Group A, Le(a-b+)
42
Which individual listed below will produce Lea antigen in her saliva? a. HH, AB, SeSe, lele b. HH, OO, SeSe, Lele c. HH, BO, sese, lele d. Hh, AA, Sese, lele
Correct: b. HH, OO, SESE, Lele
43
What phenotype produces a weak A antigen on group B cells, strong anti-B reaction, weak anti-A reaction, and elevated levels of H antigen? a. B(A) b. A el c. A int d. Acquired B
Correct: a. B(A)
44
What would cause an unexpected positive result in the front type? a. Leukemias b. Antibody coated RBCs c. Antibodies to reagent dyes d. Out of group transfusion
Correct: a. Leukemias
45
What action can be taken to resolve an ABO discrepancy due to an unexpected antibody to reagent dye? a. Heat/Acid elution b. Use saline-suspended RBCs c. Wash before testing
Correct: b. Use saline-suspended RBCs
46
What techniques can be used to resolve a cold autoantibody? a. DTT treatment b. Cold autoadsorption c. Pre-warm technique d. Elution
Correct: DTT treatment, Cold autoadsorption, Pre-warm technique
47
What is the paragloboside? a. Beginning of an IgM b. Protein based amino acid c. Precursor to the I antigen
Correct: c. Precursor to the I antigen
48
What A Subgroup has the most A antigen sites? a. A3 b. A1 c. Ax d. A2
Correct: anti-A1
49
What A subgroup is controlled by a separate gene? a. Am b. Ax c. Ael d. Ay
Correct: d. Ay
50
What Bombay phenotype has a weak Anti-H reaction? a. H Deficent Bombay Secretor b. Classic Bombay c. Parabombay
Correct: C Parabombay
51
The gene that regulates secretions is: a. FUT1 b. Le c. H d. FUT2
Correct: a FUT2
52
What blood group has the least amount of H antigen present on the red cells and may produce Anti-H? a. O b. A1B c. A2B d. B
Correct: b A1B
53
A Korean male is both with A and B genes inherited on the same chromosome which indicates what phenotype? a. Bx b. Cis AB c. Weak B d. B3
Correct: b Cis AB
54
Which Lewis antibody is known for being hemolytic and binding complement a. Anti-Le(b) b. Anti-Le(a) c. Anti-Le (c) d. Anti-Le(ab)
Correct: b Anti-Le(a)
55
Anti-IH is a cold reacting autoantibody that is adsorbed using: a. Lui Freeze-thaw b. RESt c. Cole Autoadsorption d. Acid Elution
Correct: b. RESt
56
What antibody reacts with 90% of Caucasians and is produced by Le (a-b-) people? a. Anti-Le (bh) b. Anti-Led c. Anti-Le(ab) d. Anti-Lec
Correct: c. Anti-Le(ab)
57
Autoanti-I may be found in patients with what condition? a. Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia b. Infection mononucleosis c. Lymphoma d. Cataracts
Correct: b. Infection mononucleosis
58
Pk antigen is related to what medical condition?
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)
59
What Lewis phenotype is found in non-secretors?
Le(a+b-)
60
True or False: Lewis expression is increased with enzymes and DTT treatment.
True
61
True or False: Lewis antigens are built on type 1 chains.
True
62
Most newborns type and which of the following Lewis phenotypes? a. Le (a+b-) b. Le (a-b-) c. Le (a+b+) d. Le (a-b+)
b. Le (a-b-)
63
The red cells of a nonsecretor (sese) will most likely type as: a. Le (a-b-) b. Le (a+b+) c. Le (a+b-) d. Le (a-b+)
c. Le (a+b-)
64
Which of the following characteristics best describes Lewis antibodies? A. IgM, naturally occurring, cause HDFN B. IgM, naturally occurring, do not cause HDFN C. IgG, in vitro hemolysis cause hemolytic transfusion reactions D. IgG, in vitro hemolysis, do not cause hemolytic transfusion reactions
B. IgM, naturally occurring, do not cause HDFN
65
The Le gene codes for a specific glycosyltransferase that transfers a fucose to the N-acetylglucosamine? A. Type 1 precursor chain B. Type 2 precursor chain C. Types 1 and 2 precursor chain D. None of the above
A. Type 1 precursor chain
66
What substances would be found in the saliva of a group B secretor who also has Lele genes? A. H, Le^a B. H, B, Le^a, C. H, B, Le^a, Le^b D. H, B, Le^b
C. H, B, Le^a, Le^b
67
Transformation to Le^b phenotype after birth may be as follows? A. Le(a-b-) to Le(a+b-) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a-b+) B. Le(a+b-) to Le(a-b-) to Le(a-b+) to Le(a+b+) C. Le(a-b+) to Le(a+b-) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a-b-) D. Le(a+b+) to Le(a+b-) to Le(a-b-) to Le(a-b+)
A. Le(a-b-) to Le(a+b-) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a-b+)
68
In what way do the Lewis antigens change during pregnancy? A. Le^a antigen increases only B. Le^b antigen increases only C. Le^a and Leb both increase D. Le^a and Leb both decrease
D. Le^a and Leb both decrease
69
A type 1 chain has: A. The terminal galactose in a 1-3 linkage to subterminal N-acetylglucosamine B. The terminal galactose in a 1-4 linkage to subterminal N-acetylglucosamine C. The terminal galactose in a 1-3 linkage to subterminal N-acetylgalactosamine D. The terminal galactose in a 1-4 linkage to subterminal N-acetylgalactosamine
A. The terminal galactose in a 1-3 linkage to subterminal N-acetylglucosamine
70
Which of the following best describes Lewis antigens? A. The antigens are integral membrane glycolipids B. Lea and Leb are antithetical antigens C. The Le(a+b-) phenotype is found in secretors D. None of the above
D. None of the above
71
Which of the following genotypes would explain RBCs typed as group A Le(a+b-)? A. A/O Lele HH Sese B. A/A Lele HH sese C. A/O LeLe hh SeSe D. A/A LeLe hh sese
Which of the following genotypes would explain RBCs typed as group A Le(a+b-)? A. A/O Lele HH Sese B. A/A Lele HH sese C. A/O LeLe hh SeSe D. A/A LeLe hh sese
72
Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paraxysmal cold hemoglobinuria? a. anti-I b. anti-i c. anti-P d. antiP1
c. anti-P
73
Which of the statements below in regard to the P Blood Group System is false? a. The P1 antigen deteriorates with storage. b. P1 antigen expression varies among individuals. c. There is an association between anti-PP1Pk and spontaneous abortions occurring in early pregnancy in p women. d. Anti-P1 is a biphasic, IgM antibody found in individuals who have paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) often.
Correct: Anti-P1 is a biphasic, IgM antibody found in individuals who have paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) often. is FALSE. Autoanti-P (not anti-P1) is a biphasic IgM antibody found in individuals who have paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH). - This autoimmune disorder is seen transiently in children following viral infections and in tertiary syphillis. - Antibody activity is biphasic. It attaches to red cells in the cold and lyses them as they warm. - Its true hemolytic nature is demonstrated by the Donath-Landsteiner test (This is a typical SBB type question). Be sure to look for immunoglobulin classes when answering question. In this scenario everything about the anti-P is true except for the Ig class.
74
You obtain the following reactions on a patient with P system antisera: anti-P1: 0 anti-P: + anti- Pk: 0 anti- PP1Pk: + Based on these reactions, what is the most likely P phenotype of this patient?
p phenotype
75
The product of genes inherited at the ABO locus are: a. Transferases b. Glycosphingolipids c. Carbohydrates d. Glycolipids
a. Transferases The ABO genes code for the production of specific glycosyltransferases that add sugars to a basic precursor substance on the RBC. This is an important distinction!
76
Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this saliva neutralization testing? Indicator cells A B O Saliva plus anti-A + 0 0 Saliva plus anti-B 0 + 0 Saliva plus anti-H 0 0 0 a. Group A Non-Secretor b. Group B Non-Secretor c. Group B Secretor d. Group A Secretor
Group O secretor
77
Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this saliva neutralization testing? Indicator cells A B O Saliva plus anti-A + 0 0 Saliva plus anti-B 0 0 0 Saliva plus anti-H 0 0 0 a. Group A Non-Secretor b. Group B Non-Secretor c. Group B Secretor d. Group A Secretor
c. Group B Secretor
78
A woman who is a group AB, has two children with a father who is group O. One child is a group B, and the other child is a group AB. Assume that the paternity of the father has been proven. This unexpected pattern of inheritance can be explained by what rare genetic phenomenon? a. Child 1 is a chimera b. Child 2 is a non secretor c. Mom is a Cis AB d. Dad has an ABO inhibitor gene
Mom is a Cis AB The cisAB phenotype can genotypicallly be cisAB/A, cisAB/B, or cisAB/O. Since the question states that the father is group O (genotype O/O) and the paternity proven, and we have two children who are blood groups B and AB, then Mom is most likely genotypically cis AB/B. In a setting where Mom is true AB (genotype A/B) and Dad an O (Genotype O/O), we could not have group O children because all that Mom can pass is the A gene or B gene, and that paired with Dad's O gives us only group A or B children. Cis AB is a genetic mutation in which the A and B gene are on the SAME chromosome. It is a defect that typically happens in crossing over, where the two genes, rather than going to separate chromosomes, recombine on the same chromosome. Therefore, the person is capable of passing on this mutated chromosome to offspring. If one parent has a CIS AB condition on one gene, and the other gene is normal, the chance that an affected offspring is born is 50% since CIS AB is a dominant gene, just like the other ABO genes.
79
Which of the antibody specifiities below is a bening autoantibody, found in many normal healthy people? a. anti-I b. anti-h c. anti-P1 d. anti-I
anti-I It is quite common for patients to have an auto-anti-I which reacts only at 4 C. The antibody will not be detected often though since we routinely do not screen at 4 C for antibodies, and also use anti-IgG as the primary antiglobulin reagent (not anti-C3 or anti-IgG/C3).
80
An antibody panel is performed, and 9 of 11 cells are positive at immediate spin (IS) and room temperature (RT). The serum is mixed with hydatid cyst fluid and allowed to sit for 30 minutes. After that time, the panel is tested again (with the appropriate controls). The antibody panel is now totally non-reactive. The most likely explanation for these results is: a. anti-P1 b. anti-Lea c. anti-PP1k d. anti-I
a. anti-P1 You need to remember the particular substances that can inhibit each of the blood group antibodies . anti-P1 can be inhibited by P1 substance, hydatid cyst fluid, and pigeon egg substance. This is a topic commonly found on the SBB exam year after year.
81
Which of the following is a carbohydrate blood group antigen? a. Fyb b. Jsa c. K d. Leb e. M
d. Leb
82
A patients red cells react with anti-A and the serum reacts with group B red cells. What is the patients blood group? a. A b. B c. O d. Oh e. AB
a. A
83
Which of the following statements regarding genetics of the ABO blood group system is true? a. the ABO gene is located on chromosome 1, in close approximation the RHD gene. b. ABO expression is regulated by the H gene. c. The A and B alleles are considered to be autosomal recessive and vary greatly in amino acid sequence. d. The O allele encodes a fucosyltransferase enzyme critical for the structure of the O antigen. e. The gene encoding the AB antigen is amorphic in that is encodes a nonfunctional enzyme.
b. ABO expression is regulated by the H gene. ABO expression is regulated by the H gene, since the H gene is responsible for the synthesis of the H antigen substrate, which is the precursor for the A and B antigens.
84
The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is: a. D-galactosyltransferase b. UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) c. L-fucosyltransferase e. N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase
c. L-fucosyltransferase
85
The terminal sugar molecule that defines blood group A is: a. N-acetyl-D-neuraminic acid b. L-fucose c. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine d. D-galactose e. N-acetyl-D-glucosamine
c. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
86
Which of the following ABO donor-recipient paring is most likely to show a compatible crossmatch? Note: Antibody screening revealed the absence of unexpected antibodies in the patient. a. Donor: group A,B - Patient: group A1 b. Donor: group B - Patient: group O c. Donor: group A2B - Patient: group B d. Donor: group O - Patient: group B e. Donor: group A - Patient: group B
d. Donor: group O - Patient: group B
87
The terminal sugar molecule that defines blood group B is: a. N-acetyl-D-neuraminic acid b. L-fucose c. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine d. D-galactose e. N-acetyl-D-glucosamine
d. D-galactose
88
The mating of parents of which two ABO phenotypes can potentially produce offspring with ALL of the common four blood types? a. AB and O b. AB and A c. AB and AB d. A and B e. AB and B
d. A and B
89
Which cells agglutinate most strongly with Ulex europaeus lectin? a. A2 and O b. A1 and A2 c. O and AB d. B and AB e. A1 and B
a. A2 and O (the main blood groups agglutinate with the following relative strength with anti-H or Ulex lectin: O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B)
90
A bleeding patient is in need of group O blood. From which US ethnic group would one find the most group O donors? a. European-American b. African-American c. Asian-American d. Native American e. Melanesian-American
d. Native American African-American 49% Asian-American 41% European-American 44% Native-American 79%
91
A1 red cells are agglutinated by which of the following lectins? a. Arachis hypogaea b. Dolichos biflorus c. Glycine max d. Salvia horminum e. Ulex europaeus
b. Dolichos biflorus
92
Which of the following characterizes the anti-A found in group O individuals? a. Formed as a result of A antigen exposure in the context of red cell exposure (transfusion or pregnancy) b. IgM and IgG isotypes are present. c. Requires the addition of antihuman globulin to agglutinate group A red cells. d. Inactive at 37 C e. Cannot agglutinate A1B and A2B red cells.
b. IgM and IgG isotypes are present.
93
Which one of the following statements is not true? A. The ABO gene locus is present on chromosome 9. B. Anti-A and anti-B produced by group B and group A individuals, respectively, are predominantly IgM. C. A mixed-field reaction is typically observed between anti-A and A3 red cells. D. The A1 and A2 subgroups are distinguished serologically with the Dolichos biflorus lectin. E. Serum of Bombay phenotype (O h) individuals will agglutinate group O red cells but will not agglutinate group A or group B red cells.
E. Serum of Bombay phenotype (O h) individuals will agglutinate group O red cells but will not agglutinate group A or group B red cells.
94
A blood donor has the genotype hh, AB. What is the apparent red cell phenotype? A. A B. B C. AB D. O E. Cannot be determined.
D. O
95
A mixed field agglutination reaction may be observed in which of the following situations? A. Between anti-B and some weak B subgroups. B. After recent transfusion of group O red cells to a non-group O individual. C. Between anti-Sda and Sda positive red cells in the antiglobulin phase of testing. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
96
Bombay phenotype (O h) individuals: A. Have red cells that do not agglutinate with either anti-A or anti-B but do agglutinate with Ulex europaeus lectin. B. Have naturally occurring anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H. C. Can be transfused safely with blood from donors of any blood group. D. Have naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B but they are not reactive at 37C. E. Inherit SeSe at the Se locus.
B. Have naturally occurring anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H.
97
40 year old male with colon cancer is scheduled for colonic resection. Antibody screen is positive, and antibody identification show reactivity with all cells. DAT is negative. Crossmatching 50 group O RBCs all incompatible. Because of presumed presence of an antibody to a high incidence antigen, family members are asked to make directed donations. family members are as follows: Patient's mother, APOS Patient's father: OPOS Patient: OPOS Patient's wife: BPOS Child 1: APOS Child 2: BPOS Child 3: ABPOS Child 4: OPOS Patient is crossmatch incompatible with his father and child 4. The problem is referred to you. You advise: A. Testing a new sample from each family member because either a technical or clerical error has caused the ABO discrepancy. B. Testing the patient's cells with Dolichos biflorus lectin. C. Arranging a confidential conference with the patient to inform him of the possibility that he may not be the biological father of the first and third children; relationship testing should be performed for confirmation. D. Testing the patient's cells with Ulex europaeus lectin. E. Testing the patient's cells with O h serum.
D. Testing the patient's cells with Ulex europaeus lectin. The patient has the Bombay phenotype (Oh) The apparent discrepancy will be resolved by testing his cells with anti-H or Ulex Europaeus lectin. These will not agglutinate his cells. A positive reaction will be observed when group O red cells are tested with anti-H or Ulex europaeus lectin.
98
Which of the following antibodies strongly agglutinates O cells and A2 cells, but either does not agglutinate or only weakly agglutinates A1 and A1B cells? A. Anti-Lea B. Anti-A1 C. Anti-A D. Anti-H E. Anti-B
D. Anti-H
99
Which of the following red cell types is most frequently used to demonstrate the specificity of Anti-I? A. Adult cells B. O h bombay cells C. Cord cells D. Le(a+b+) cells E. i adult cells.
C. Cord cells
100
25 year old female presents with a compound fracture of the right femur suffered in a ball fall from a ladder.. Her orthopedic surgeon orders 4 RBCs. Patient previously types as group APOS. Forward type: Anti - A +, Anti-B +, Anti-A,B +, Anti- A1 lectin + Reverse type: A1 cells 1+, B cells 4+ Red cells tested: O I adult - 3+ A1 I adult - 1+ A2 I adult - 2+ O h bombay - 0 O cord - w+ O i adult - 0 A1 i adult - 0 Panel : all cells 1=+ at IS, neg at AHG, ficin, all cells 3+ AC 1+ at IS, 3+ with ficin. Which of the following statements is true concerning the antibody? A. The specificity is anti-Pr. B. This antibody is usually clinically significant. C. The patient should be transfused with A1 POS I negative blood. D. the specificity is anti-I E. The specificity is Anti-IH
E. The specificity is Anti-IH
101
Which of the following statements is not true regarding an acquired B antigen? A. It is a rare phenomenon. B. It can be detected with monoclonal anti-B C. It can be detected with glucosamine. D. It has been associated with gram-negative bacteria. E. It is often seen in patients with colorectal carcinoma.
C. It can be detected with glucosamine.
102
55 year old female presents with an abdominal mass detected by computer tomography (CT) scan. Type and screen is ordered before scheduling the patient for an invasive diagnostic procedure. Her ABO typing results: Forward type: Anti - A 4+, Anti-B 1+, Anti-A,B 4+, Reverse type: A1 cells 0, B cells 4+ Her most likely diagnosis is: A. Hepatocellular carcinoma B. Carcinoma of the ovary. C. Carcinoma of the pancreas. D. Carcinoma of the rectum. E. Meigs syndrome.
D. Carcinoma of the rectum. The patient is group A with acquired B antigen. This phenomenon is seen most frequently with colorectal carcinoma.
103
45 year old male presents with abdominal mass by CT scan. The patient has previously typed as group B POS. Type and screen is ordered before scheduling the patient for an invasive procedure. ABO results: Forward type: Anti - A 0, Anti-B 0, Anti-A,B 0, Reverse type: A1 cells 4+, B cells 0 His most likely diagnosis is: A. Hepatocellular carcinoma B. Testicular carcinoma C. Carcinoma of the pancreas. D. Melanoma E. Adrenal adenocarcinoma
C. Carcinoma of the pancreas. Some tumors - most notably adenocarcinomas of the pancreas, stomach, ovary, and biliary system - can produce large amounts of soluble A and B substances. These can neutroalize anti-A and anti-B typing reagents unless the cells are adequatel washed before typing. In this case, washing the cells thoroughly should correct the descrepant forward type.
104
65 year old male with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). The forward and reverse results are shown below: Forward type: Anti - A 4+, Anti-B 0, Anti-A,B 4+, Reverse type: A1 cells 0, B cells 0 Reverse type tested after 15 min incubation at 4C: Reverse type: A1 cells 0, B cells 2+ ; O cells, AC = 0 The ABO discrepancy was most likely caused by : A. Clerical error B. Technical error C. Weak or missing isohemagglutinins D. Weak or missing antigen E. Rouleaux
C. Weak or missing isohemagglutinins
105
40 year old male with gradual onset of confusion and lethargy is admitted for severe back pain. Radiographs demonstrate a vertebral compression fracture and multiple osteolytic lesions. Forward type: Anti - A 4+, Anti-B 2+, Anti-A,B 4+, Reverse type: A1 cells 2+, B cells 4+ A technique that could help resolve this ABO discrepancy is: A. Enzyme treatment of the screening cells. B. Adsorption and elution C. Saline replacement D. Prewarming the patient's sample. E. Testing for polyagglutination.
C. Saline replacement
106
Newly admitted patient: Forward type: Anti - A 4+, Anti-B 0, Anti-A,B 4+, Reverse type: A1 cells 2+, B cells 4+ Which of the following tests would not help solving this discrepancy? A. Antibody screening with group O red cells. B. DAT C. Red cell phenotyping with anti-A1 lectin. D. Red cell testing for polyaggutinability. E. Autoabsorption of the patient's serum and retesting.
D. Red cell testing for polyaggutinability.
107
The most commonly identified antibody directed against the antigens of the P1PK blood group system and/or globoside collection is: A. Anti-P1 B. Anti-P2 C. Anti-P D. Anti-P1PK E. Anti-Tja
A. Anti-P1
108
Antigens of the P blood group system serve as receptors for a variety of microorganisms or their toxic products. Which of the following disease associations is true with respect to the P antigen? A. The P antigen is a receptor for the shiga toxin. B. The P antigen is a receptor for Streptococcus suis. C. The P antigen may modulate host resistance to HIV. D. The P antigen is a receptor for Candida albicans. E. The P antigen is a receptor for parvovirus B19.
E. The P antigen is a receptor for parvovirus B19.
109
Which of the following statements concerning the P1 antigen and Anti-P1 is true? A. Anti-P1 is predominantly an IgG antibody. B. The P1 antigen is expressed well on cord red cells, equal to that of adult red cells. C. Antibodies to P1 demonstrate equal reactivity with all red cells expressing P1. D. The P1 antigen is a member of the P blood group system. E. Antibodies to P1 are clinically significant.
D. The P1 antigen is a member of the P blood group system.
110
With regard to neutralization, which of the antibody/neutralizing substance pairs is correct? A. Anti-I and human urine. B. Antibodies to Lewis antigens and breast milk. C. Anti-Chido and plasma. D. Anti-Sda and hydatid cyst fluid. E. Anti-P1 and guinea pig urine.
C. Anti-Chido and plasma.
111
An antibody associated with a positive Donath-Landsteiner test result is most likely to have specificity for which blood group antigen? A. E B. M C. I D. P E. Lua
D. P
112
Which of the following statements is true? A. Paroxysmal noctural hemogloubinuria (PNH) is associated with a biphasic hemolysin. B. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobulinuria (PCH) is associated with anti-P. C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is associated with anti-P1PPk (anti-Tja) D. The McLeod phenotype is assicated with the RH null genotype. E. Anti-I is commonly associated with infectious mononucleiosis.
B. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobulinuria (PCH) is associated with anti-P.
113
60 year old male presents with a dry cough, headache, and fever for the past 7 to 10 days. Starting 3 days ago, he noted worsening malaise and shortness of breath as well as a darkening of his urine. His wife noted that his eyes were yellow. A complete blood count reveals a HCT of 15%, and a white cell count of 60K lambda. PLT CT is normal. Peripheral smear examination demonstrates clumping of the red cells. DAT is positive, negative IgG, positive C3l. Chest radiograph shows patchy lower lobe infiltrates. Titers for Mycoplasma pneumoniae IgM antibodies are positive. Titers for IgG antibodies are negative. ABO typing is discrepant. What is the most likely specificity of the antibody causing his anemia? A. Anti-Fya B. Anti-HI C. Anti-I D. Anti-Pr E. Anti-i
C. Anti-I
114
Which of the following antibodies is characteristically associated with in-vitro hemolysis? A. Anti-C B. Anti-D C. Anti-Fya D. Anti-K E. Anti-Lea
E. Anti-Lea
115
Which of the following phenotypes can form both Lea and Leb antibodies? A. Le(a+b-) B. Le(a-b+) C. Le(a-b-) D. Le(a+b+) E. Cannot be determined
C. Le(a-b-)
116
Which of the following antibodies is associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)? A. Anti-A,B B. Anti-I C. Anti-Lea D. Anti-Leb E. Anti-P1
A. Anti-A,B
117
Which of the following statements is not true? A. Anti-Leb is associated with hemolytic transfusion reactions. B. Anti-Lea is IgM/IgG and anti-Leb is IgM. C. Anti-Lea may react up to 37C D. All of the above. E. None of the above.
A. Anti-Leb is associated with hemolytic transfusion reactions.
118
Panel reveals Anti-Leb. Which of the following statements is true concerning this antibody? A. The woman must be negative for the antigen to which the antibody is directed. B. The antigen is destroyed by enzymes. C. The pregnancy is at risk for severe hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn. D. The antigen is passively adsorbed to the red cell membrane. E. The antibody commonly causes in-vivo hemolysis.
D. The antigen is passively adsorbed to the red cell membrane.
119
55 year old male is scheduled to undergo a three vessel coronary artery bypass graft procedure. His typing is APOS. Antibody screen is positive; panel is interpreted as anti-Leb found at IS: Technologist XMs 4 Leb positive APOS RBCS and 4 Leb pos, group OPOS RBC. Results are the following: APOS Leb pos - compatible APOS Leb neg - compatible OPOS Leb pos - incompatible OPOS leb neg - compatible. Which antibody is most likely causing these reactions? A. Anti-Leb bL B. Anti-H C. And-Lea D. Anti-Le bH E. Anti-Le3
D. Anti-Le bH
120
Which of the following antigens of phenotypes occur more frequently in people of African ethnicity than in those of European ethnicity? A. A B. I negative adult C. Le(a-b-) D. p E. P2
C. Le(a-b-)
121
The Leb antigen serves as a receptor for which microorganism? A. Candida albicans B. Escherichia coli C. Streptococcus suis D. Helicobacter pylori E. Yersinia enterocolitica
D. Helicobacter pylori
122
Where will the ABO discrepancy occur in cis-AB individuals? A. Forward grouping with anti-A B. Reverse grouping with B cells C. Forward grouping with anti-AB D. Reverse grouping with A1 cells
B. Reverse grouping with B cells
123
When performing secretor studies, what is omitted in the control tube but present in the patient tube? A. Antiserum B. 5% B cells C. Saliva D. 5% O cells
C. Saliva
124
Mixed-field agglutination encountered in ABO forward grouping may be caused by: A. A3. B. cold reactive autoagglutinins. C. abnormal concentrations of serum proteins. D. para-Bombay.
A. A3.
125
Which choice below best represents the genes and substances present in saliva for an individual who is group A, Le (a+b-)? a. A, H, Lea, Leb, Se: and Saliva contains A,H, Lea, Leb substances. b. A, H, Le, Se: and Saliva contains A,H, Lea substances. c. A, H, Le, sese: Saliva contains no substances. d. A, H, Le, sese: Saliva contains Lea substances.
d. A, H, Le, sese: Saliva contains Lea substances.
126
A patient has anti-c. If 80% of donors are c positive and 68% are C positive, how many RBC units will teh transfusion service need to test in order to find 2 units that are compatible with the patient? a. 3 b. 4 c. 7 d. 10
d. 10 When doing this type of calculation, you need 2 pieces of information; the number of RBC products needed and the frequency of the corresponding antigen in the population. RBCs needed: 2 Positive frequency of the antigen: 80%; therefore negative frequency of the antigen: 20%. The formula for the calculation is: # of RBC units to test = # of RBC units needed / % of RBC units compatible. of RBC units to test = 2/0.20 = 10 units Note that the C frequency of 68% in the question above is completely irrelevant in the calculation about c-compatibility. Also please note that frequencies like this may or may not be given on standardized exams - be aware of the frequencies for the common antigens.
127
Reagents used to differentiate IgG from IgM antibodies include: a. 2ME, DTT, and Papain b. AET and Ficin c. Chloroquin Diphosphate and Citric Acid d. AET and DTT
a. 2ME, DTT, and Papain 2 ME and DTT are used to differentiate between IgG and IgM antibodies. These reagents break down the disulfide bonds found in IgM antibodies, and denature them. Per the TM Appendices Treating IGM antibodies with sulfhydryl reagents abolishes both agglutinating and complement binding activities. Observations of antibody activity before and after sulfyhydryl treatment are useful in determining immunoglobulin class. Sulfhydryl treatment can also be used to abolish IgM antibody activity to permit detection of coexisting IgG antibodies. A discussion of this principle is found in Chapter 13 of the AABB TM. 2 mercaptoethanol can also be used for this purpose. Sulfhydryl reagents used at low concentration may weaken antigens of the Kell system. For investigation of antibodies in the Kell system, it may be necassary to use other methods. AET is not readily used to distinguish IgM and IgG. The main utilization of AET in most of the literature is to destroy the Kell blood group system. Special Reagents to help in antibody ID 2 ME (E-Mercaptoethanol) and DTT (Dithiothreitol) - cleaves disulfide bonds of IgM antibody molecules. Helps distinguish between IgM and IgG. AET (2 aminoethylisothiouronium bromide) - creates red cells that lack Kell antigens ZZAP (DTT + Papain) - used to remove immunoglobulins and complements form the surface of red blood cells, commonly when evaluating a potential autoantibody. ZZAP also deactivates a multitude of red cell antigens on the red cell surface.
128
A 10 year old Child is admitted to the hospital for an investigation of unexplained hemolysis. The mother reported that the child recently had a mumps infection. The child had been playing in the snow, and after he came in from the cold the mother reported he had red urine. The next best test to perform to determine the antibody specificity is: a. Antibody ID panel b. Ham's test c Donath Landsteiner Test d. Elution
c Donath Landsteiner Test This is a classical pattern of Paraxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuira (PCH). An Auto-anti-P antibody develops after a viral infection, and this antibody is biphasic. The antibody binds complement to the RBCs in a cooler temperature, and then causes hemolysis when the temperature rises. These examples are typically seen in children and young adults. A donath landsteiner test is performed to prove the biphasic antibody is present.
129
Red blood cells from a patient with HEMPAS typically exhibit which characteristic? a. increased amount of i antigen b. decreased amount of i antigen c. increased amount of H antigen d. increased amount of sialic acid
a. increased amount of i antigen HEMPAS (Heriditary Erythoroblastic Multinuclearity witha Positive Acidified Serum test) is a congenital anemia in which the rbc membranes are abnormal. These cells typically have increased amounts of i antigen, decreased amounts of H antigen, and decreased sialic acid.
130
Which of the following antigens are not developed on cord cells? a. I and Sda b. M and N c. D and c d. K1 and Lea
a. I and Sda The other antigens are well develooped on cord cells. Recall from previous questions newborns express "i" which develop into "I" with age. Additionally, Sda is a carbohydrate antigen (as is i/I) synthesized by an enzyme. Sda has a characteristic mixed field appearance with free red cells when viewed microscopically. Sda is inhibited by urine fro Sda+ individuals and by guinea pig urine. Anti Sda is not generally considered clinically significant. Sda is noted for its "refractile" appearance under the microscope mixed with tightly bound red cells.
131
The beta 1-3 linkage between galactose and N-acetylglucosame is found in: a. secretions b. red cells c. secretions and red cells d. white blood cells
a. secretions
132
Which of the following represents the type II chain? a. beta 1-3 linkage between galactose and frucose b. beta 1-4 linkage between galactose and N-acetyl glucosamine c. beta 1-2 linkage between gluocse and N-acetyle glucosamine d. beta 1-6 linkage between fucose and glactose
b. beta 1-4 linkage between galactose and N-acetyl glucosamine
133
All of the following are possible genotypes for the A1 phenotype, except: a. A1/A1 b. A1/A2 c. A2/B d. A1/O
c. A2/B
134
Which of the following reflects the A3 subgroup? a. Mixed field reaction with anti-A and antiA1,B b. Mixed field reaction with anti-B c. Positive reaction with Dolichose Biflorus d. A and H not present in saliva of secretors
a. Mixed field reaction with anti-A and antiA1,B
135
Which of the following reflects the Ael subgroup> a. Positive reaction with anti-H b. Strong reaction with Anti-A c. Strong reaction with Anti-A,B d. 'A' in saliva of secretors
a. Positive reaction with anti-H
136
What clinical condition may yield positive reactions with Anti-A, negative with Anti-B, negative with A1 and B cells a. Hypogammaglobulinemia b. Subgroup of A c. Leukemia d. Cis-AB
a. Hypogammaglobulinemia
137
What differentiates a Bombay anti-H from an anti-h cold agglutinin? a. Patient ethnicity b. Reactivity at body temperature c. Number of antigenic sites d. Transfusion history
b. Reactivity at body temperature
138
This antigen is associated with linear carbohydrate chains a. I antigen b. H antigen c. i antigen d. P antigen
c. i antigen
139
The following reactions are found on a 35 year old male. Anti-A 4+, Anti-B negative, Anti-A,B 4+, A1 cells 3+, B cells 4+, O cells 3+. How could these results be explained? a. A2 subgroup b. Anti-M in plasma c. Acquired B phenomena d. Cis-AB
b. Anti-M in plasma
140
Anti-IH would react best with which red blood cells? a. B b. O c. A1, B d. A2, B
b. O
141
The acquired B phenomenon is only found in what ABO group? a. A b. B c. AB d. O
a. A
142
Which of the following is true regarding the A2 subgroup? a. 1-8% of persons will produce anti-A1 b. anti-A1 does not react with A2 red cells c. Anti-A2 is formed d. Two of the above
d. Two of the abov
143
Persons who are group B are more common among which population? a. Hispanic/Caucasian b. Asian/Caucasian c. Caucasian/Black d. Black/Asian
d. Black/Asian
144
All of the following are representative of Lewis antibodies except: a. They can be neutralized by Lewis substance b. Tehy occur frequently in pregnant women c. They are destroyed by enzymes d. They are enhanced by enzymes
c. They are destroyed by enzymes
145
Why can anti-H sometimes be found in A2B persons? a. H gene is not inherited in these persons b. L fucose does not attach to type 1 chain c. The specific immunodominant sugar blocks the presence of H antigen d. H substance is not secreted
c. The specific immunodominant sugar blocks the presence of H antigen
146
Red cells that phenotype as Le (a-b-) will convert to Le (a+b-) when incubated with plasma from adult containing: a. Le(b+) substance b. Le(d+) substance c. Le(c+) substance d. Le(a+) substance
d. Le(a+) substance
147
What substances would be present in the saliva of a person with the Le, HH, SeSe, AA genotype? a. A,H b. A,H,Lea,Leb c. H,B,Lea,Leb d. A,B,H
c. H,B,Lea,Leb
148
How is Le(b) substance formed? a. L fucose is added to subterminal N acetyl glucosamine of type 2H substance b.Lea and Leb are codominant alleles located on chromosome 19 c. Leb is secreted into plasma in the absence of fucosyltransferase d. L fucose is added to subterminal N aceylglucosamine of type 1H substance
d. L fucose is added to subterminal N aceylglucosamine of type 1H substance
149
AntI-I is associated with what infection agent? a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Mycoplasma pneumonia c. Strep pneumonia d. E. coli
b. Mycoplasma pneumonia
150
What P antigens are present in the p phenotype? a. P1 b. Pk c. P2 d. None
d. None
151
What antigens are present in the P1 phenotype? a. Pk b. P1, P, Pk c. P2 D. P1
b. P1, P, Pk
152
What phenotype can produce anti-PX2? a. P1 b. P1K c. p d. P2
b. P1K
153
What antibody is associated with paraxysmal cold hemoglobinuria? a. Anti-P1 b. Anti-P c. Anti-P1PPK d. Anti-JK3
b. Anti-P
154
A 56 year old male who is type O received a stem cell transplant from an allogeneic A donor. At day 128 post transplant the recipients isoagglutinins are no longer demostrable. What type of plasma should the patient receive? a. O b. B c. A d. AB
c. A
155
A red blood cell identified as rGr would yield postive results with: a. anti-f, anti-E, anti-G b. anti-f, anti-G, anti-rhi c. anti-f, anti-G d. anti-f, anti-G, anti-Goa
156
Monochorionic dizgotic twins were born from an A/0 father and O/O mother. Gel technology was employed for ABO typing. Twin A displayed one band at the bottom and one band at top of Anti-A column; one band at bottom of anti-B column, one b band at bottom of A1 cell column, and one band at bottom of B cell column. Twin B demostrated the same results. While this is an example of blood chimerism, the results mimic which of the following with respect to forward grouping? a. A2 subgroup b. A3 subgroup c. Ael subgroup d. Ax subgroup
b. A3 subgroup