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Yr 3 - Core Conditions > Abdominal Pt 2 > Flashcards

Abdominal Pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Give some symptoms seen in hepatitis

A
  • Muscle and joint pain
  • High temperature
  • N&V
  • Fatigue
  • General sense of unwell
  • Loss of appetite
  • Stomach pain
  • Dark urine
  • Pale poo
  • Itchy skin
  • Jaundice
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2
Q

Signs seen in hepatitis?

A
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Splenomegaly
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Ascites
  • Encephalopathy
  • Jaundice
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3
Q

What is the most common type of viral hepatitis in the UK?

A

Hep C

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4
Q

Which acute hepatitis infections can lead to chronic hepatitis?

A

Hep B & Hep C

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5
Q

Transmission of Hep A?

A

From consuming contaminated food and drink with faecal matter of an infected person (faeco-oral route)

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6
Q

What types of hepatitis are there vaccinations available for?

A

Hep A & B

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7
Q

Where in the world is Hep A infection commonly seen?

A

Most common in countries with poor sanitation. Common in Indian subcontinent, Africa, Central and South America, the Far East and eastern Europe.

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8
Q

Prognosis of Hep A infection?

A

Often self-limiting and passes within a few months. Does NOT caused chronic liver disease or have a chronic carrier state.

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9
Q

Transmission of Hep B?

A

Blood; sexual contact, sharing needles, vertical transmission (mother to baby)

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10
Q

Risk factors for Hep B?

A
  • Travel to countries where rate is high
  • IVDU
  • MSM
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11
Q

What complications can chronic hepatitis lead to?

A

Cirrhosis → hepatocellular carcinoma

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12
Q

Transmission of Hep C?

A

Blood-to-blood contact with infected person e.g. sharing needles

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13
Q

Who is at the highest risk for Hep C in UK?

A

IVDU (90% cases)

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14
Q

What % of acute Hep C infections will become chronic?

A

1 in 4 (25%)

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15
Q

What is fulminant hepatitis?

A

a clinical syndrome of severe liver function impairment, which causes hepatic coma and the decrease in synthesising capacity of liver, and develops within eight weeks of the onset of hepatitis.

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16
Q

Who specifically does Hep D affect?

A

Only affects people who are already infected with hepatitis B as it needs the Hep B virus to survive in the body

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17
Q

Where in the world is Hep D more common?

A

Uncommon in UK but more widespread in Middle East, Africa and South America

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18
Q

Transmission of Hep D?

A

Blood-to-blood contact or sexual contact

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of acute hepatitis in the UK?

A

Hep E

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20
Q

Transmission of Hep E?

A

Consumption of raw or undercooked pork meat, wild boar meat, venison and shellfish

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21
Q

Prognosis of Hep E?

A

Generally a mild and short-term infection that does not require treatment (but can be serious in immunosuppressed)

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22
Q

Give some causes of hepatitis

A
  • Hep A/B/C/D/E
  • Alcoholic hepatitis
  • Autoimmune hepatitis
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23
Q

Symptoms of alcoholic hepatitis?

A
  • Often asymptomatic (many people don’t know they have)
  • Sudden jaundice and liver failure in some people
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24
Q

Management of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Immunosuppressants

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25
Q

What is the most common indication for emergency surgery in paediatric patients?

A

Appendicitis

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26
Q

Complications of appendicitis?

A
  • Perforation → peritonitis
  • Abscess formation
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27
Q

Risk factors for appenditicis?

A
  • Most commonly presents in 2nd decade of life
  • Slight predominancy in males vs females
  • Children breastfed for <6 months
  • Children exposed to tobacco smoke
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28
Q

describe pain in appendicitis

A

Generalised umbilical pain that localises to right iliac fossa

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29
Q

Give some differentials for appendicitis

A
  • Mesenteric adenitis: usually preceded by a sore throat
  • Meckel’s diverticulitis: symptoms include rectal bleeding
  • Gastroenteritis: general abdominal pain but will not migrate to right iliac fossa
  • UTI: urinary symptoms, urinalysis will show nitrites and WBCs
  • Intestinal obstruction
  • Biliary colic and acute cholecystitis
  • IBD & IBS
  • Constipation
  • Pancreatitis
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30
Q

Symptoms of appendicitis?

A
  • Acute abdominal pain (approx. 20-30% of children presenting with acute abdominal pain will be diagnosed with appendicitis)
  • Typically worse on movement
  • N&V
  • Low-grade fever
  • Right iliac fossa pain
  • Umbilical pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Anorexia
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31
Q

Signs seen in appenditicis?

A
  • Right iliac fossa tenderness
  • RLQ peritonism
  • Abdominal distension, guarding, rebound tenderness, absent bowel sounds all suggestive of peritonitis
  • Rovsing sign
  • Psoas sign
  • Obturator sign
  • Hop test
  • Murphy’s triad
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32
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

palpation of the left iliac fossa causes right iliac fossa pain

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33
Q

What is Psoas sign?

A

extension of the right thigh, in the left lateral position, causes right iliac fossa pain

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34
Q

What is obturator sign?

A

internal rotation of the flexed right thigh causes pain

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35
Q

Bedside investigations in appendicitis?

A
  • Urinalysis → rule out UTI
  • Capillary blood glucose → N&V and anorexia may have caused hypoglycaemia
  • Baseline vital signs → low grade fever
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36
Q

Lab investigations in appendicitis?

A
  • FBC → raised WCC
  • U&Es → anorexia, N&V can cause deranged renal function in severe cases
  • CRP → inflammation
  • Group and save
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37
Q

Why is it important to get a group & save in appenditis?

A

appendicitis management is typically operative and this test is important as a transfusion may be required if there is significant blood loss

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38
Q

Management of appendicitis?

A
  • Appendicectomy: laparoscopic approach is preferred
  • However some resolve spontaneously
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39
Q

Is a SBO or LBO more common?

A

SBO (80%)

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40
Q

Pathophysiology behind a bowel obstruction?

A

Gross dilatation of the bowel proximal to the blockage occurs, causing increased peristalsis and secretion of large volumes of electrolyte-rich fluid into the bowel.

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41
Q

What is the most common cause of SBO in the developed world?

A

Intestinal adhesions (bands of fibrous tissue) from previous surgery

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42
Q

Give some causes of bowel obstruction

A
  • Adhesions
  • Hernias
  • Colon cancer
  • IBD
  • Diverticulitis
  • Twisting of colon (volvulus)
  • Impacted faeces
  • In children → intussusception is most common
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43
Q

What type of hernias typically cause bowel obstruction? Who is this seen in?

A

mainly femoral in elderly females

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44
Q

Potential complications of SBO/LBO?

A
  • Bowel ischaemia leading to tissue death:
    • Intestinal obstruction can cut off blood supply to part of intestine
    • Tissue death can result in a tear (perforation) which can lead to infection/haemorrhage
  • Bowel perforation leading to faecal peritonitis (high mortality):
  • Dehydration and renal impairment
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45
Q

Give some differentials for bowel obstruction

A
  • Pseudo-obstruction
  • Paralytic ileus
  • Toxic megacolon
  • Constipation
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46
Q

Symptoms of bowel obstruction?

A
  • Crampy/colicky abdominal pain that comes and goes (2ary to bowel peristalsis)
  • Loss of appetite
  • Absolute constipation
  • Vomiting – occurs early in proximal obstructions and late in distal obstructions
  • Inability to have a bowel movement or pass gas
  • Abdominal distension
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47
Q

Describe signs seen in an abdo exam in bowel obstruction

A
  • Signs of underlying cause:
    • Scars from previous surgery
    • Obvious hernia
    • Cachexia from malignancy
  • Bowel sounds – tinkling or absent altogether
  • Tender abdomen – guarding and rebound tenderness on palpation
  • Swollen abdomen
  • Ascites – 3rd spacing can occur in bowel obstruction
  • Percussion – tympanic sounds produced (air filled abdomen)
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48
Q

Describe percussion in bowel obstruction

A

tympanic sounds produced (air filled abdomen)

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49
Q

Describe bowel sounds in bowel obstruction

A

tinkling or absent altogether

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50
Q

Why would a VBG be useful in bowel obstruction?

A

Useful to evaluate signs of ischaemia (high lactate) or for immediate assessment of metabolic derangement (2ary to dehydration or excessive vomiting)

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51
Q

Most accurate imaging in bowel obstruction?

A

CT scan

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52
Q

Describe an AXR in SBO

A
  • Dilated bowel >3cm (3/6/9 rule!)
  • Central abdominal location
  • Valvulae conniventes visible (lines completely crossing the bowel)
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53
Q

Describe an AXR in LBO

A
  • Dilated bowel (>6cm or >9cm if at caecum)
  • Peripheral location
  • Haustral lines visible (not completely crossing bowel)
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54
Q

Why would an erect CXR be useful in bowel obstruction?

A

assess for free air under the diaphragm to suggest a bowel perforation

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55
Q

Describe each AXR

A

AXR (1) – SBO with valvulae conniventes crossing a dilated, centrally located bowel

AXR (2) – LBO with peripherally located dilated bowel segments.

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56
Q

Management of bowel obstruction?

A

Management depends on the aetiology and whether it has been complicated by bowel ischaemia, perforation and/or peritonism.

  • Suck and drip:
    • make patient nil by mouth and insert NG tube to decompress bowel (‘suck’)
    • fluid resuscitation and correct electrolyte imbalances (‘drip’)
  • Urinary catheter & fluid balance
  • Analgesia & anti-emetics
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57
Q

What would indicate the need for surgery in bowel obstruction?

A

if evidence of ischaemia or closed loop bowel obstruction

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58
Q

Most common cause of SBO vs LBO

A

SBO → adhesions, hernias

LBO → malignancy, sigmoid volvulus

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59
Q

Describe the pain in both SBO and LBO

A

Diffuse, central, ‘colicky’ pain

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60
Q

Describe vomiting & constipation SBO and LBO

A

SBO → late constipation, early vomiting (bilious)

LBO → early constipation, late vomiting (faeculent)

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61
Q

Describe abdo distension in SBO and LBO

A

SBO → less prominent

LBO → marked

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62
Q

Describe progression of SBO vs LBO

A

SBO → rapid

LBO → Slower

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63
Q

What is a hernia?

A

The protrusion of a viscus into an abnormal space (i.e. a structure that passes through a space or defect into an abnormal location)

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64
Q

What is a reducible hernia?

A

When the contents of the hernia can be manipulated back into their original position through the defect from which they emerge

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65
Q

What is an incarcerated hernia (irreducible)?

A

The hernia is compressed by the defect causing it to be irreducible (i.e. unable to be pushed back into its original position)

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66
Q

What is an obstructed hernia?

A

Refers mainly to hernias containing bowel** where the contents of the hernia are compressed to the extent that the **bowel lumen is no longer patent and causes bowel obstruction

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67
Q

What is a strangulated hernia?

A

The compression around the hernia prevents blood flow** into the hernial contents causing **ischaemia of the tissues and associated pain

68
Q

What are the 2 types of hernias?

A
  1. Inguinal (most common)
  2. Femoral
69
Q

What is an inguinal hernia?

A

A protrusion of abdominal contents that ultimately emerges from the superficial inguinal ring

70
Q

Pathophysiology of a direct inguinal hernia?

A
  • Caused by weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal
  • Abdominal contents (usually just fatty tissue, sometimes with bowel) are forced through this defect and enter the inguinal canal
  • Contents emerge in the canal medial to the deep ring
71
Q

Where do direct inguinal hernias emerge in relation to the deep ring?

A

Medial to deep ring

72
Q

Which type of inguinal hernia pierces the posterior wall?

A

Direct

73
Q

Pathophysiology of an indirect inguinal hernia?

A
  • Does not pierce the posterior wall
  • Abdominal contents pass through the deep inguinal ring, passing through the inguinal canal and exiting via the superficial inguinal ring
74
Q

Which type of inguinal hernia passes through the deep inguinal ring?

A

Indirect

75
Q

Is it more common for direct or indirect hernias to emerge within the scrotum after exiting via the superficial ring? Why?

A

Indirect → this as the path through both anatomical inguinal rings (rather than a muscle defect) has less resistance

76
Q

How can direct & indirect inguinal hernias be differentiated on an abdo exam?

A
  • Place your finger over the deep inguinal ring
  • Can control an indirect inguinal hernia that has been reduced
  • If you press the deep ring and the hernia still protrudes, then the hernia is emerging via a defect in the posterior wall medial to this point → direct
77
Q

Where is the deep inguinal ring located?

A

just above mid-point of inguinal ligament

78
Q

Where does the inguinal ligament run between?

A

Inguinal ligament runs between the ASIS and the pubic tubercle.

79
Q

What runs in the inguinal ligament?

A

Within this ligament runs the inguinal canal

Tube enters from the abdominal cavity at the deep inguinal ring and leaves at the superficial inguinal ring

80
Q

What does the inguinal canal contain (men vs women)?

A

Provides passage for abdominal contents to exit the abdomen:

  • spermatic cord in males
  • round ligament in females
  • ilioinguinal nerve in both sexes
81
Q

Where is the deep ring located?

A

located just above the mid-point of the inguinal ligament

82
Q

Where is the superficial ring located?

A

lies just above and lateral to the pubic tubercle

83
Q

Give some causes of an inguinal hernia

A
  • 1) Increased intra-abdominal pressure
    • Chronic cough
    • Constipation
    • Heavy lifting
  • 2) Weakness of the abdominal muscles
    • Advanced age
    • Obesity
84
Q

Definitive management of inguinal hernias?

A

Surgery

85
Q

Symptoms of inguinal hernia?

A
  • Patients often present with a swelling in the groin/abdomen that is often painless but can become symptomatic
  • Pain – particularly when coughing or stooping
  • Change in bowel habit
  • Constipation
  • Burning sensation in the groin
  • Scrotal swelling (in males)
86
Q

When are inguinal hernias treated?

A
  • Only treat if symptomatic e.g. pain, altering bowel habit
  • If hernial contents become strangulated or obstructed → surgical emergency
87
Q

What structures pass under the inguinal ligament?

A

The femoral nerve, artery and vein (lateral to medial)

88
Q

What is the femoral canal?

A

The femoral canal is a space lying medial to the femoral vein

89
Q

What is the function of the femoral canal?

A
  • Function of the femoral canal is to allow expansion of the femoral vein in order to increase venous return
  • Also contains a small amount of fatty tissue and a lymph node (lymph node of Cloquet)
90
Q

Pathophysiology of a femoral hernia?

A

The femoral canal can be a defect through which abdominal contents protrude

91
Q

Who are femoral hernias typically seen in? Why?

A

Typically seen in elderly women (due to wider bone structure of the female pelvis)

92
Q

Risk factors for a femoral hernia?

A

Any activity or condition that increases pressure in the intra-abdominal cavity:

  • Obesity
  • Heavy lifting
  • Coughing
  • Straining with urination or defecation
  • COPD
  • Ascites
93
Q

Complications of femoral hernias?

A

Femoral hernias are at high risk of strangulation and obstruction:

  • Strangulated femoral hernia → a section of bowel becomes trapped and its blood supply is cut off which can lead to necrosis and gangrene
  • Obstructed femoral hernia → part of the intestine becomes intertwined with the hernia, causing a bowel obstruction
94
Q

Symptoms of a strangulated femoral hernia?

A
  • Extreme tenderness and redness in the area of the bulge
  • Sudden pain that worsens in a short period of time
  • Fever
  • Tachycardia
95
Q

Management of a strangulated hernia?

A

Surgical emergency

96
Q

Symptoms of an obstructed femoral hernia?

A

severe pain, nausea, vomiting, and the inability to have a bowel movement or pass gas.

97
Q

Red flags for constipation?

A

Urgent investigation due to risk of malignancy or serious bowel disorder:

  • New constipation in patients >50 y/o
  • Anaemia
  • Abdominal pain
  • Weight loss
  • Overt or occult blood in stool
98
Q

Lifestyle management for constipation?

A
  • Diet;
    • Increase in dietary fibre gradually (to minimise flatulence and bloating)
  • Adequate fluid intake – especially with high fibre diet or fibre supplements
    • N.B. this may be difficult for frail/elderly
  • Increase exercise
99
Q

Stepwise pharmacological management of short-term constipation (where dietary measures are ineffective)?

A
  1. Bulk forming laxative (ensure fluid intake)
  2. Add/switch to osmotic laxative
  3. Add stimulant laxative
100
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can laxative abuse lead to?

A

Hypokalaemia

101
Q

Which Abx are high risk for C. diff infection?

A

The ‘C’ drugs:

  • Ciprofloxacin (quinolone)
  • Cephalosporins (cefuroxime, cefotaxime)
  • co-amoxiclav
  • clindamycin
102
Q

Risk factos for C. diff infection?

A
  • Abx
  • Old age (>65 y/o)
  • Hospitalised patients
  • Long duration of antibiotic use (>7 days)
  • Multiple antibiotic courses
  • Severe underlying disease
  • Presence of nasogastric tube
  • Non-surgical GI procedures
  • PPIs
103
Q

How does Abx use predispose to C. diff infection?

A
  • Broad-spectrum antibiotic use suppresses the normal gut flora, allowing C. difficile to develop
  • C. difficile produces an exotoxin which causes intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis
104
Q

What spectrum of Abx predisposes to C. diff?

A

Broad-spectrum

105
Q

Severe complication of C. diff?

A

Toxic megacolon and/or sepsis

106
Q

Diagnosis of C. diff?

A

Detecting C. difficile toxin (CDT) in stool

107
Q

Signs & symptoms of C. diff infection?

A
  • Watery diarrhoea
  • Abdominal pain and cramping
  • Tachycardia
  • Dehydration
  • Fever
  • Nausea
  • Hypotension (severe)
  • Increased WCC is characteristic
108
Q

1st line pharmacological therapy for first episode of C. diff?

A

Oral vancomycin for 10 days

109
Q

What is coeliac disease?

A

T cell mediated inflammatory autoimmune disease affecting the small bowel in which sensitivity to gliadin results in villous atrophy and malabsorption.

110
Q

How does coeliac disease lead to malabsorption?

A

If you have celiac disease, eating gluten triggers an immune response in your small intestine. Over time, this reaction damages your small intestine’s lining and prevents it from absorbing some nutrients (malabsorption).

111
Q

Does coeliac disease affect men or women more?

A

Females 2x

112
Q

What allele is coeliac associated with?

A

HLA-DQ2 allele

113
Q

GI symptoms of coeliac disease?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Distension
  • N&V
  • Diarrhoea
  • Steatorrhoea (foul-smelling, greasy, difficult to flush)
114
Q

Systemic symptoms of coeliac disease?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Weight loss/failure to thrive
  • Pallor (2ary to anaemia)
  • Short stature and wasted buttocks (2ary to malnutrition)
  • Features of vitamin deficiency 2ary to malabsorption: e.g. bruising due to vitamin K deficiency
115
Q

Why can coeliac disease lead to bruising?

A

Bruising due to vitamin K deficiency

116
Q

What is the most common dermatological manifestation of coeliac disease?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis (pruritic papulovesicular lesions over buttocks and extensor surfaces of arms, legs and trunk)

117
Q

Give some complications of coeliac disease

A
  • Unexplained iron deficiency
  • B12 or folate deficiency
  • Hyposplenism
  • Osteoporosis (due to impaired vit D)
118
Q

What can hyposplenism in coeliac disease lead to?

A

Increase infections

119
Q

What conditions can be associated with coeliac disease?

A
  • T1DM
  • Autoimmune thyroid disease – Grave’s disease or Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  • Enteropathy associated T-cell lymphoma
120
Q

Gold standard diagnostic investigation in coeliac disease?

A

OGD and duodenal/jejunal biopsy (patients should be referred after positive serological testing)

121
Q

Histological features of coeliac disease?

A
  • Sub-total villous atrophy
  • Crypt hyperplasia
  • Intra-epithelial lymphocytes
122
Q

Coeliac disease can cause microcytic, normocytic or macrocytic anaemia. Give a cause for each

A
  • May show microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency
  • May show normocytic anaemia due to chronic inflammation
  • May show macrocytic anaemia due to B12/folate deficiency
123
Q

What may LFTs show in coeliac disease?

A

albumin may be low 2ary to malabsorption

124
Q

What is the preferred serological test for coeliac disease?

A

Anti-TTG IgA antibody

125
Q

What inheritance pattern is Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

Autosomal recessive condition

126
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

decreased activity of the enzyme that conjugates bilirubin with glucuronic acid (glucoronyl transferase)

127
Q

Which gene is affected in Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

UGT1A1 gene

128
Q

Presentation of Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

During times of stress, fasting, infection, or exercise jaundice can occur.

129
Q

Blood tests results in Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

Consider in isolated rise in bilirubin but normal FBC.

130
Q

What is toxic megacolon?

A

Occurs when swelling and inflammation spread into the deeper layers of your colon. As a result, the colon stops working and widens. In severe cases, may rupture. This is life-threatening.

131
Q

3 risk factors for toxic megacolon?

A
  • IBD: Crohn’s or UC that is not well controlled
  • Infections of the colon e.g. C. difficile
  • Ischaemic bowel disease
132
Q

In patients with acute IBD flares, what drug can increase the risk of toxic megacolon?

A

Loperamide

133
Q

Inflammation in Crohn’s can occur anywhere along GI tract but is nearly always found where?

A

In the ileocecal region

134
Q

Signs & symptoms of toxic megacolon?

A
  • Painful, distended abdomen
  • Fever (sepsis)
  • Diarrhoea (usually bloody)
  • Reduced or absent bowel sounds
  • Signs of septic shock:
    • Tachycardia
    • Mental state changes
    • Hypotension
135
Q

Treatment of toxic megacolon?

A
  • Steroids
  • Antibiotics
136
Q

Complications of toxic megacolon?

A
  • Perforation of colon
  • Sepsis
  • Shock
  • Death
137
Q

What is a faecal occult blood test?

A

Detection of blood in the faeces which is not visually apparent.

138
Q

Most common cause of a lower GI bleed?

A

Diverticulosis

139
Q

Presentation of diverticular disease bleeds vs diverticulitis associated bleeds?

A
  • Diverticular disease bleeds → classically painless
  • Diverticulitis associated bleeds → often painful 2ary to the localised inflammation
140
Q

Give some differentials for a lower GI bleed

A
  • Diverticular disease/Diverticulosis and Diverticulitis
  • Haemorrhoids
  • Malignancy
  • Ischaemic or infective colitis
  • IBD
  • Radiation proctitis
141
Q

What is ischaemic colitis caused by?

A

Ischaemic colitis is caused by a lack of blood flow through mesenteric vessels supplying the intestines

142
Q

What is the key risk factor in acute ischaemic colitis?

A

AF → thrombus forms in LA and mobilises down aorta to SMA

Other risk factors → same as CVS disease

143
Q

What is exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

a condition characterised by deficiency of the exocrine pancreatic enzymes, resulting in the inability to digest food properly

144
Q

What conditions can exocrine pancreatic insufficiency be caused by?

A

CF, chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic cancer, coeliac disease etc.

145
Q

Loss of which enzyme is one of the key features in the development of steatorrhea?

A

Lipase

146
Q

Give 3 Abx that can cause jaundice

A
  1. Co-amoxiclav
  2. Flucloxacillin
  3. Nitrofurantoin
147
Q

What may the presence of bilirubin in the urine indicate?

A

The presence of bilirubin in the urine may be an early indicator of liver disease.

148
Q

Give 3 major causes of pre-hepatic jaundice

A
  • Conjugation disorders e.g. Gilbert’s syndrome
  • Haemolysis e.g. malaria, haemolytic anaemia
  • Drugs e.g. contrast, rifampicin
149
Q

Give causes of hepatic jaundice

A
  • Viruses e.g. hepatitis, CMV, EBV
  • Drugs e.g. paracetamol overdose, halothane, valproate, statins, TB Abx
  • Alcohol
  • Cirrhosis
  • Liver mass (abscess or malignancy)
  • Haemochromatosis
  • Autoimmune hepatitis
  • Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
  • Wilson’s disease
150
Q

Give causes of post-hepatic jaundice

A
  • Primary biliary cirrhosis
  • Primary sclerosing cholangitis
  • Common bile duct gallstones
  • Drugs:
    • Flucloxacillin
    • Co-amoxiclav
    • Nitrofurantoin
    • Steroids
    • Sulphonylureas
  • Malignancy e.g. head of pancreas adenocarcinoma
151
Q

What 2 severity scales are used to upper GI bleeds?

A
  1. Rockall score
  2. Glasgow Blatchford score
152
Q

What does the Glasgow Blatchford score estimate?

A

This estimates the risk of a patient with an upper GI requiring intervention, such as transfusion or endoscopy (0 = low risk)

153
Q

What does the Rockall score estimate?

A

This estimates the risk of rebleeding or death in patients with upper GI bleed

154
Q

What severity score is used in lower GI bleeds?

A

Oakland score

155
Q

What does the Oakland score estimate?

A

This is used to predict whether it is safe to discharge a patient with a lower GI bleed.

156
Q

Give some risk factors for a hernia that increases intra-abdominal pressure

A
  • Obesity
  • Pregnancy
  • Chronic coughing/COPD
  • Constipation
  • Enlarged prostate
  • Ascites
  • Heavy lifting
157
Q

Give some risk factors for a hernia that causes weakening of muscle/tissue fibres

A
  • Poor nutrition
  • Smoking
  • Collagen disorders e.g. Ehlers-Danlos, Marfan’s
  • Overexertion
  • Trauma
158
Q

Which 2 congenital disorders can cause weakening of muscle/tissue fibres?

A
  1. Marfans
  2. Ehlers-Danlos
159
Q

Start and end of inguinal canal?

A

Start → deep inguinal ring

End → superficial inguinal ring

160
Q

Contents of the inguinal canal in men?

A

spermatic cord & ilioinguinal nerve

161
Q

Contents of the inguinal canal in women?

A

round ligament of uterus & ilioinguinal nerve

162
Q

What is the mid-inguinal point?

A

Halfway between the pubic symphysis and the ASIS

163
Q

What is the mid point of the inguinal ligament?

A

Halfway between the ASIS and pubic tubercle

164
Q

What is found at the mid-inguinal point?

A

Femoral pulse

165
Q

What is found at the mid point of the inguinal ligament?

A

Deep ring

166
Q

How can you utilise the femoral pulse to locate the deep ring?

A

The mid point of the inguinal ligament (deep ring) is located lateral to the mid inguinal point (femoral pulse).

Locating the femoral pulse can allow you to locate the deep ring.

Yr 3 - Core Conditions (33 decks)

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