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Pipers NPLEX cards > Abbreviated Pharm > Flashcards

Abbreviated Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Decrease angiotensin II (potent vascoconstrictor) and have SE of angioedema (severe), acute RF, and persistent dry cough

A

Ace-Inhibitors

Lisinopril and Ramipril

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2
Q

Lisinopril depletes

A

zinc

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3
Q

Alpha-2-agonist that decreases vasoconstriction and CO

A

Clonidine

AntiHTN

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4
Q

Alpha-1-antagonist: decease NE; used to tx HTN and BPH

A

Doxazosin

Terazosin

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5
Q

Do not use these AntiHTN drugs with African Americans

A

ARBs

Losartan, Irbesartan, Valsartan

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6
Q

Major ADR of ARBs

A

HYPERkalemia

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7
Q

Selective (B1) Antagonists

A

Atenolol

Metoprolol

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8
Q

Nonselective (B1 and B2) Antagonists

A

Carvedilol
Propanolol
Timolol

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9
Q

_______ BB crosses the BBB and has more SE

A

Propanolol

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10
Q

Which BB is commonly used in CHF?

A

Carvedilol

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11
Q

Which antihypertensive drugs are NOT 1st line for CHF?

A

CCB

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12
Q

CCB

A

Amlodipine
Diltiazem
Verapamil

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13
Q

Amlodipine depletes

A

Potassium

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14
Q

Verapamil depletes

A

Vitamin E

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15
Q

Potassium wasting diuretic that inhibits Na+ and Cl- at the ascending loop

A

Furosemide

Loop diuretic

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16
Q

Furosemide SE

A

hypokalemia, ototoxicity, and nutrient depletion

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17
Q

Furosemide is CI in

A

allergy to sulfonamides

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18
Q

Potassium wasting diuretic that inhibits NaCl transporter in distal tubule

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

Thiazide diuretic

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19
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide SE

A

hypokalemia and hyperglycemia

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20
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide is CI in

A

allergy to sulfonamides

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21
Q

Potassium sparing diuretics

A

Spironolactone

Triamterene

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22
Q

Spironolactone and Triamterene are weak diuretics with SE of ______

A

HYPERkalemia

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23
Q

Aldosterone antagonist that works at the distal convoluted tubule

A

Spironolactone

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24
Q

What does hydralazine do?

A

Antihypertensive

unknown MOA, peripheral vasodilation

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25
Q

Major SE of NTG

A

HA

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26
Q

NTG C/I

A

Sildenafil (w/in 24 hrs)

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27
Q

Prophylactic vasodilator w/ a slower action than NTG

A

Isosorbide mononitrate

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28
Q

sympathomimetic with vasoconstriction via alpha-1 and bronchodilation via beta-2

A

Epinephrine

increases HR and contractility

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29
Q

This antiarrhythmic has a narrow therapeutic window

A

Potassium chloride

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30
Q

Potassium chloride SE

A

Hyperkalemia

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31
Q

Sodium channel blockers

A

Class I anti-arrhythmics: Lidocaine and Flecainide

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32
Q

BBW for Class I anti-arrhythmics: Lidocaine and Flecainide

A

increased mortality

*use as a last resort in hospital setting

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33
Q

Class II anti-arrhythmics

A

BB (-olol)

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34
Q

Potassium channel blockers

A

Class III anti-arrhythmics: Amiodarone

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35
Q

70% of pt on amiodarone have ADR, including:

A

pulmonary fibrosis, heart block, hypotension, hypo/hyperthyroidism, hepatotoxicity, coronary/skin deposits

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36
Q

Class IV anti-arrhythmics

A

CCB: Amlodipine, Diltiazem, Verapamil

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37
Q

anti-arrhythmics that inhibits N/K/ATPase

A

Digoxin (Class V)

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38
Q

Which anti-arrhythmics can be used for LHF (palliative) and A flutter, but must be monitored d/t narrow therapeutic window

A

Digoxin

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39
Q

Combining digoxin w/ diuretics increases the risk of

A

hypokalemia

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40
Q

fatigue, mm. weakness, agitation, anorexia, and yellow halos around vision are sx of _______ toxicity

A

Digoxin

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41
Q

Bile acid sequestrant used to tx T2DM, familial hypercholesterolemia and hyperlipidemia

A

Colesevelam

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42
Q

Colesevelam SE

A

wastes nutrients when bile is sequestered

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43
Q

Colesevelam C/I

A

bowel obstruction or TG > 500

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44
Q

Cholesterol absorption inhibitor

A

Ezetimibe

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45
Q

Ezetimibe C/I

A

active liver dz

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46
Q

fibrate drug used to tx triad of low HDL, high LDL, high TG (Type IV and V)

A

Gemfibrozil

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47
Q

Gemfibrozil interacts with

A

Warfarin and statins (inc SE of LV DZ)

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48
Q

Gemfibrozil SE

A

gallstones, elevated liver enzymes, enhances anticoagulants, myositis/rhabdomyolysis

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49
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

A

Atorvastatin and Simvastatin

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50
Q

Statins interact with

A

fibrates and niacin

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51
Q

Statin SE

A

elevated LFT, myositis, rhabdomyolysis - d/c if pt has muscle pain

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52
Q

______ should always be given with statins

A

75-100 mg CoQ10

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53
Q

Best drug in anaphylaxis

A

Epinephrine

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54
Q

antitussive that suppresses cough reflex at source (i.e. anesthetizes respiratory passage)

A

Benzonatate

it’s actually an ester local anesthetic

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55
Q

antitussive that works at cough center in medulla

A

Dextromethorphan

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56
Q

Which antitussive can cause serotonin syndrome?

A

Dextromethorphan

it is C/I to use MAO-I w/in 14 days of dextromethorphan

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57
Q

Opioid antitussive(s)

A

Codeine

Hydrocodone

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58
Q

Mucolytic, expectorant

A

Guaifenesin

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59
Q

1st generation anti-histamines that cross BBB and cause sedation

A

Diphenhydramine
Hydroxyzine
Promethazine

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60
Q

2nd generation anti-histamines that do not cross BBB (thus do not cz sedation)

A

Cetirizine
Fexofenadine
Loratadine

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61
Q

Dose of diphenhydramine during anaphylaxis

A

50 mg IM

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62
Q

The anti-histamine _____ is used as an anxiolytic

A

Hydroxyzine

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63
Q

The anti-histamine _______ is used as an antipsychotic

A

Promethazine

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64
Q

Antihistamines that are used for allergies/asthma are ____ antagonists

A

H1

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65
Q

Loratadine SE

A

QT prolongation

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66
Q

sympathomimetic nasal spray (mostly alpha-adrenergic)

A

Phenylephrine

decongestant

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67
Q

sympathomimetic decongestant (alpha and beta)

A

Pseudoephedrine

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68
Q

Pseudoephedrine C/I

A

MAO-I: phenelzine (HTN crisis)

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69
Q

Decongestants

A

Phenylephrine (nasal spray), Pseudoephedrine, Epinephrine

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70
Q

mast cell stabilizer that inhibits histamine release

A

Cromolyn sodium

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71
Q

Albuterol onset is ___ and lasts ____

A

onset: 15 min
lasts: 3-4 hrs

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72
Q

Albuterol C/I

A

MAO-I (phenelzine), TCA, sympathomimetic

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73
Q

Long-acting B2 agonist that lasts 12-24 hr

A

Salmeterol

usu. used in combo w/ glucocorticoids

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74
Q

Salmeterol C/I ______ and ADR _____

A

C/I: acute asthma

ADR: prolonged QT

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75
Q

Salmeterol BBW

A

may increase asthma-related death

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76
Q

Inhaled steroids

A

Fluticasone, Mometasone, Beclomethasone, Budesonide

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77
Q

leukotriene antagonist used for prophylaxis and maintenance of persistent asthma, aspirin-induced asthma, and exercise-induced asthma

A

Montelukast

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78
Q

Montelukast SE

A

Churg-strauss syndrome, hypereosinophilia

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79
Q

antimuscarinic bronchodilator that inhibits ACh in smooth muscle of respiratory tract and is used for maintenance therapy in COPD

A

Tiotropium bromide

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80
Q

antimuscarinic bronchodilator that is shorter acting

A

Ipratropium bromide

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81
Q

Procoagulant that stimulates factors II, VII, IX, X

A

Vitamin K1

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82
Q

drug that inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation and is often used in pt that are aspirin intolerant

A

Clopidogrel

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83
Q

drugs that inhibits COX and inhibits platelet aggregation

A

Aspirin

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84
Q

Aspirin increases which drug?

A

Phenytoin (seizure drug)

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85
Q

Aspirin C/I

A

kids < 12 y/o (Reye’s syndrome) and G6PD deficiency

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86
Q

inhibits synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors but has no effect on established thrombus

A

Warfarin

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87
Q

has a narrow therapeutic window and requires monitoring of PT/INR

A

Warfarin

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88
Q

Drugs that can increase effects of Warfarin

A

Acetaminophen, Androgens, BB, Corticosteroids, Omeprazole, Phenytoin

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89
Q

xanthine derivative that reduces blood viscosity and is used in intermittent claudication and peripheral vascular dz

A

Pentoxifylline

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90
Q

Factor X inactivator that binds anti-thrombin III to prevent conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin (intrinsic pathway)

A

Heparin

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91
Q

Low molecular weight heparin (factor X inactivator)

A

Enoxaparin

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92
Q

Factor Xa inactivator that inhibits platelet activation and fibrin clot formation

A

Rivaroxaban

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93
Q

direct thrombin inhibitor that inhibits free and fibrin-bound thrombin

A

Dabigatran

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94
Q

Iron chelator used to tx chronic iron overload, hemochromatosis, routine transfusions

A

Deferoxamine

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95
Q

chelator of mercury, gold, arsenic

A

DMPS

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96
Q

chelator of mercury, lead, antimony, and arsenic

A

DMSA

oral version of DMPS so it has less severe ADR

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97
Q

chelator of lead, mercury, iron; also acts as anti-coagulant in blood tubes

A

Edetate calcium disodium (EDTA)

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98
Q

chelator of copper and other heavy metals; used to tx Wilson’s dz

A

Penicillamine

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99
Q

drug used in anemia of chronic dz because it stimulates erythropoiesis

A

Epoetin alfa

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100
Q

Antibacterial classes that inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

Penicillins, Glycopeptides, Cephalosporins

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101
Q

Antibacterial classes that inhibit protein synthesis

A

Tetracyclines, Macrolides, Lincosamides, Aminoglycosides

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102
Q

Antibacterial classes that inhibit DNA synthesis

A

Fluoroquinolones

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103
Q

Antibacterial classes that inhibit RNA synthesis

A

Synthetase inhibitors (Mupirocin), Monoxycarbolic acid agents (Rifaximin, Nitrofurantoin)

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104
Q

Antibacterial classes that act as PABA analogue/dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors

A

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethorpim

C/I in KIDDOS

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105
Q

B-lactam drug used to tx dental abscesses, recurrent rheumatic fever, recurrent strep cellulitis in lymphedema but has SE of anaphylaxis and black hairy tongue

A

Penicillin G/VK

i.e. natural penicillin

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106
Q

synthetic B-lactam drugs that are 1st choice for uncomplicated ENT infx

A

Ampicillin, Amoxicillin, Amoxicillin + clavulanate

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107
Q

What is clavulanate?

A

B-lactamase inhibitor (added to B-lactam drug Ampicillin)

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108
Q

Are the synthetic penicillin drugs (ampicillin, amoxicillin, and amox + clavulanate) safe in Pg?

A

Yes

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109
Q

glycopeptide drugs that is IV only and used to tx MRSA

A

Vancomycin

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110
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Cefdinir
Cefuroxime
Ceftriaxone
Cephalexin

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111
Q

10-15% of pt that are hypersensitive to penicillins will also reach to ________

A

Cephalosporins

cefdinir, cefuroxime, ceftriaxone, cephalexin

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112
Q

Cephalosporins (cefdinir, cefuroxime, ceftriaxone, cephalexin) tx

A

cellulitis

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113
Q

broad-spectrum antibiotics that can have ADR of photosensitivity and tooth discoloration/bone effects in kids < 8

A

Tetracyclines (minocycline, doxycycline)

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114
Q

_________ antibiotics should be taken on an empty stomach, where as ______ antibiotics should be taken with food

A

Empty = tetracyclines

Food = macrolides

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115
Q

Are macrolides safe in pregnancy?

A

Yes (Cat. B)

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116
Q

Macrolides

A

“-romycin”

Azithromycin
Clarithromycin
Erythromycin

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117
Q

alternative antibiotic for people w/ penicillin allergy

A

Clindamycin

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118
Q

antibiotic that is used topically for acne

A

Clindamycin

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119
Q

Clindamycin ADR

A

C. diff super infx (pseudomembranous colitis)

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120
Q

topical aminoglycoside antibiotic used for ocular infx

A

Gentamicin

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121
Q

1st line drug for UTIs

A

Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin

Fluoroquinolones

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122
Q

Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin BBW

A

tendon rupture

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123
Q

Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin C/I

A

< 18 y/o (can arrest growth plate)

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124
Q

topical antibiotic for MRSA and impetigo

A

Mupirocin

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125
Q

Monoxycarbolic acid agent used to tx SIBO, traveler’s diarrhea, IBS, hepatic encephalopathy

A

Rifaximin

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126
Q

“everything inhibitor” used to tx acute uncomplicated UTIs

A

Nitrofurantoin

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127
Q

Nitrofurantoin C/I

A

G6PD deficiency, lactation, and 3rd trimester of Pg (can cz hemolysis of newborn)

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128
Q

Give _____ with Sulfamethoxazole-trimethorpim

A

Folate

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129
Q

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethorpim SE

A

photosensitivity and megaloblastic anemia

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130
Q

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethorpim interactions

A

OCPs

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131
Q

Triple Antibiotic Ointment

A

Bacitracin + Neomycin + Polymyxin B

B: inhibits cell wall synth
N: aminoglycoside
PB: cell wall permeability

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132
Q

Triple Antibiotic Ointment SE

A

allergic contact derm and SNHL (neomycin)

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133
Q

Neomycin SE

A

permanent SNHL

aminoglycoside drug

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134
Q

Anti-tuberculosis drugs

A

Isoniazid and Rifampin

Note: use both drugs together for active infx

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135
Q

can be used to tx latent and active TB but is also hepatotoxic

A

Isoniazid

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136
Q

Rifampin SE

A

red tears/saliva/urine, hepatotoxic

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137
Q

anti-fungals that penetrate into all body fluids

A

Fluconazole and Ketoconazole

Triazoles

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138
Q

Fluconazole and Ketoconazole interactions

A

Warfarin, phenytoin, others

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139
Q

Anti-fungal used for onychomycosis

A

Terbinafine

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140
Q

Terbinafine SE

A

hepatotoxic, SJS, neutropenia

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141
Q

anti-fungal that disrupts cell wall formation and only works topically (even in GI it works as topical agent)

A

Nystatin

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142
Q

Malaria prophylaxis

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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143
Q

anti-helminthic drugs that destroy microtubules and block glucose uptake

A

Albendazole and Mebendazole

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144
Q

topical application for lice, ticks, mites; 1st line tx scabies

A

Permethrins

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145
Q

anti-parasitic for roundworms, lice, scabies

A

Ivermectin

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146
Q

anti-protozoel for anaerobic infx, C. diff, H. pylori ulcers, BV, trichomonas, and giardia

A

Metronidazole

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147
Q

Metronidazole C/I

A

EtOH (disulfiram rxn)

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148
Q

guanosine analogue that inhibits viral DNA polymerase and tx actively replicating HSV

A

Acyclovir and Valacyclovir

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149
Q

reverse transcriptase inhibitor; drug accumulates in all dividing cells

A

Zidovudine

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150
Q

Parkinson’s drugs that can also tx Influenza A

A

Amantadine

no longer recommended for influenza A

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151
Q

tx influenza A and B; prevents release of virus

A

Oseltamivir

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152
Q

tx chronic HBV and HCV

A

interferon-a-2

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153
Q

alkylating agent used to tx metastatic testicular and ovarian tumors and adv bladder CA

A

Cisplatin

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154
Q

Cisplatin BBW

A

renal toxicity, myelosuppression, ototoxicity

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155
Q

alkylating agent used to tx leukemia, lymphoma, and many other CA

A

Cyclophosphamide

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156
Q

anthracycline drug used to tx Kaposi’s sarcoma, ovarian CA, multiple myeloma

A

Doxorubicin

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157
Q

Doxorubicin SE

A

life-threatening heart damage

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158
Q

Doxorubicin C/I

A

cardiac dz

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159
Q

drug used to tx Her-2+ breast CA

A

Trastuzumab

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160
Q

Trastuzumab BBW

A

fatal heart/lung problems and fetal harm

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161
Q

folic acid antagonist used to tx many CA and to induce abortion

A

Methotrexate

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162
Q

anti-microtuble drug used to tx Hodgkin’s, testicular CA, and Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Vinblastine (IV only)

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163
Q

Vinblastine is derived from

A

Vinca rosea (periwinkle)

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164
Q

aromatase inhibitor used reduce serum estradiol in breast CA pt post-surgery and for METS

A

Anastrozole

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165
Q

GnRH analogue; testosterone antagonist used to tx metastatic prostate CA

A

Bicalutamide

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166
Q

Bicalutamide C/I

A

women, pregnancy (X)

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167
Q

GnRH analogue; suppression of ovarian/testicular steroidogenesis for prostate CA, endometriosis, uterine fibroids

A

Leuprolide

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168
Q

mitotic inhibitor that binds tubulin and affects rapidly dividing cells

A

Paclitaxel

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169
Q

drug used to tx advanced ovarian CA, non-small cell lung CA, ovarian/breast CA METS unresponsive to 1st line drugs

A

Paclitaxel

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170
Q

pyrimidine analogue use to tx many CA

A

5-Fluorouracil

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171
Q

5-Fluorouracil is used topically to tx

A

BCC

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172
Q

SERM used prophylactically for postmenopausal osteoporosis

A

Raloxifine

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173
Q

SERM that competes with E2 for E-receptor proteins and is used to tx E+ CA

A

Tamoxifen

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174
Q

Tamoxifen BBW

A

uterine malignancies, stroke, PE

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175
Q

cytokine inhibitor (TNF-alpha); circulating receptor fusion protein used to tx RA, jRA, PsA, AS, plaque psoriasis

A

Etanercept

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176
Q

Etanercept BBW

A

incr risk of serious infx and CA

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177
Q

TNF-a inhibitor used to tx inflammatory dz (RA, PsA, IBD)

A

Adalimumab

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178
Q

Adalimumab BBW

A

incr risk of serious infx and CA

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179
Q

Infliximab BBW

A

incr risk of serious infx and CA

*can also cz HF, pancytopenia, and demyelinating dz

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180
Q

Cytokine/TNF inhibitors

A

Etanercept, Adalimumab, Infliximab

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181
Q

DMARD used to tx SLE and RA

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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182
Q

DMARD used to tx CA, RA, severe psoriasis, ectopic pg (abortifacient)

A

Methotrexate

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183
Q

DMARD used RA (also a copper chelating agent)

A

Penicillamine

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184
Q

DMARD used to tx IBD and RA that is C/I in people with sulfonamide/salicylate allergy

A

Sulfasalazine

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185
Q

JAK inhibitor used to tx RA when it’s refractive to methotrexate

A

Tofacitinib

*new on NPLEX

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186
Q

Tofacitinib BBW

A

incr risk of serious infx and CA

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187
Q

used for prophylaxis during organ transplant and for dry eyes

A

Cyclosporine

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188
Q

transplant drug that has BBW of incr risk of serious infx and CA

A

Tacrolimus

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189
Q

drug used to tx leprosy and multiple myeloma

A

Thalidomide

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190
Q

Thalidomide C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

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191
Q

4x stronger than cortisol and longer acting than hydrocortisone

A

Prednisone

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192
Q

non-selective COX inhibitor used to tx fever, pain, inflamm, and platelet agg

A

Aspirin

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193
Q

Salicylism

A

dose-dependen reversible vertigo, vomiting, tinnitus, hearing loss

(aspirin toxicity - max dose = 4g)

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194
Q

Diclofenac gel

A

non-selective COX inhibitor for inflammation; NSAID

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195
Q

non-selective COX inhibitor that decreases cartilage synthesis

A

Ibuprofen

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196
Q

Ibuprofen interacts with

A

Aspirin

do not combine

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197
Q

Indomethacin

A

non-selective COX inhibitor for inflammation

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198
Q

non-selective COX inhibitor use for moderate-severe pain only; IV or IM

A

Ketorolac

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199
Q

Ketorolac C/I

A

use > 5 days and in peds

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200
Q

Naproxen

A

non-selective COX inhibitor for inflammation

201
Q

Naproxen sodium

A

greater absorption and faster onset than Naproxen (NSAID)

202
Q

non-selective COX inhibitor used for post-cataract surgery

A

Nepafenac

203
Q

Selective Cox-2 inhibitor

A

Celecoxib

204
Q

Celecoxib has less ______ than aspirin, but increased risk of _______

A

less: GI distress
incr: risk of serious thrombosis

205
Q

Celecoxib C/I

A

perioperative pain from CABG

206
Q

Muscle relaxants for acute use (1-2 wks)

A

Carisoprodol
Cyclobenzaprine
Diazepam (benzo)
Methocarbamol

207
Q

muscle relaxants C/I

A

CNS depressants

208
Q

Methocarbamol SE

A

black/blue/green urine

209
Q

you need to taper this drug that is used to tx mm. spasticity, spinal cord injury, and rheumatic d/o

A

Baclofen

210
Q

alpha-2 agonist used for mm. spasticity

A

Tizanidine

211
Q

inhibits ACh release and causes flaccid paralysis

A

Botulinum toxin

212
Q

bisphosphonate drug that inhibits osteoclasts

A

Alendronte

213
Q

_______ must be taken on an empty stomach with 6-9 oz water and remain upright for 30 min

A

Alendronte

214
Q

Alendronte SE

A

esophageal erosion, osteonecrosis of jaw

215
Q

Alendronte C/I

A

hypocalcemia

216
Q

hormone used to inhibit osteoclasts and tx osteoporosis (not prevention)

A

Calcitonin

217
Q

monoclonal antibody use to tx osteoporosis

A

Denosumab

SQ q 6 mo

218
Q

SERM used for postmenopausal osteoporosis prophylaxis

A

Raloxifene

219
Q

Raloxifene C/I

A

past VTE, pregnancy (X)

220
Q

centrally acting analgesic that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis for pain and fever; not anti-inflammatory

A

Acetaminophen

221
Q

Acetaminophen interactions

A

EtOH

3 drinks/day + 3 g can shut down the liver

222
Q

Acetaminophen max dose

A

1 drug to OD on

4 g in 24 hours

223
Q

xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in prevention of further gouty attacks (decreases uric acid production)

A

Allopurinol

224
Q

drug used in acute gouty attacks; microtubule inhibitor that prevents neutrophils causing gout sx

A

Colchicine

225
Q

______ is used to tx acute gout, whereas ______ is used to prevent further gout attacks

A

Acute = colchicine

Prevention = allopurinol

226
Q

rubefacient used as a counter-irritant for pain, vasodilation, and blocks substance P

A

capsaicin

227
Q

kappa and mu receptor activities

A 
Codeine
Fentanyl 
Hydrocodone
Morphine 
Oxycodone 
Tramadol

*all are class II except hydrocodone, which is class III

228
Q

strongest non-synthetic opiate

A

morphine

229
Q

Tramadol SE

A

seizure risk

230
Q

synthetic opioid agonist for addiction and detox

A

Methadone

231
Q

partial opioid agonist/antagonist for addiction

A

Buprenorphine

232
Q

competitive opioid antagonist for addiction that is C/I in pt taking opiates

A

Naltrexone

233
Q

competitive opioid antagonist for acute OD

A

Naloxone

234
Q

immunosuppressant and ocular emulsant; used to tx keratoconjunctivitis sicca (Sjogrens, scleroderma)

A

Cyclosporine

235
Q

aminoglycoside, bacteriocidal eye drops

A

Gentamicin

236
Q

bacteriostatic drug used for conjunctivitis, superficial ocular infx

A

Sulfacetamide

237
Q

macrolide used for superficial ocular infx that has a SE of eye irritation

A

Erythromycin

238
Q

BB for ocular HTN and open-angle glaucoma

A

Timolol

239
Q

prostaglandin analog that reduces IOP by increasing outflow of aqueous humor

A

Latanoprost

240
Q

Latanoprost SE

A

iris darkening

241
Q

cholinergic agonist causing miosis (constriction) and decreased pressure in open-angle glaucoma or ocular HTN; also used in acute-open angle glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

242
Q

anticholinergic drug used to dilate eyes for exam (mydriatic agent)

A

Atropine

243
Q

NSAID for cataract surgery to decrease pain and inflammation

A

Nepafenac

244
Q

Nepafenac SE

A

increased bleeding time, delayed healing, corneal ulcers

245
Q

ophthalmic antihistamine used in tx allergies

A

Olopatadine

246
Q

sympathomimetic decongestants that cause rebound congestion (aka rhinitis medicamentosa)

A

Oxymetazoline

Phenylephrine

247
Q

Oxymetazoline and Phenylephrine C/I

A

use > 3 days, glaucoma, MAO-I

248
Q

topical antibacterial and steroid for swimmer’s ear, superficial bacterial infx of external auditory canal

A

Neomycin/Polymyxin B/Hydrocortisone

249
Q

cholinesterase inhibitors used to tx dementia

A

Donepezil

Rivastigmine

250
Q

drug that blocks NMDA-R and decreases excitotoxicity for moderate to severe Alzheimers

A

Memantine

251
Q

GABA analogue used as adjunct in epilepsy tx

A

Gabapentin

Pregabalin

252
Q

sodium channel blocker used to tx partial seizures, bipolar mania, and trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

253
Q

Carbamazepine SE

A

ataxia

254
Q

sodium channel blocker seizure drug that has SE of gingival hyperplasia and suicidal ideation

A

Phenytoin

255
Q

Phenytoin SE

A
  • P: peripheral neuropathy
  • H: hyperplasia of gingiva, hirsutism, hypersensitivity
  • E: enlarged LN
  • N: nystagmus
  • y
  • T: teratogenicity
  • O: osteomalacia
  • I: inhibition of insulin
  • N: nausea
256
Q

benzodiazepine use in seizure tx

A

Diazepam

257
Q

Diazepam C/I

A

CNS depressants

258
Q

seizure drugs with SE of sudden unexplained death and suicidal ideation

A

Lamotrigene
Topiramate
Valproate

259
Q

PD drugs that is a dopamine precursor

A

Levodopa/carbidopa

260
Q

inhibits peripheral degradation of levodopa but has no effect if used alone

A

carbidopa

261
Q

Levodopa/carbidopa SE

A

tolerance over time

262
Q

Levodopa/carbidopa interaction

A

B5 (increases peripheral DA catabolism)

263
Q

dopamine agonist used to tx PD, acromegaly, and hyperprolactinemia

A

Bromocriptine

264
Q

Bromocriptine SE

A

pulmonary fibrosis

265
Q

dopamine agonist for tx PD that is s/t used to delay starting Levodopa

A

Pramipexole

266
Q

anticholinergics for dyskinesia (in PD)

A

Benztropine
Scopolamine
Diphenhydramine

267
Q

drug used to levodopa-induced dyskinesia

A

Amantadine

268
Q

sphingosine-1-phosphate-R modulator used to tx MS; it decreases inflammation

A

Fingolimod

269
Q

immune modulator used to tx MS, that activates suppressor T-cells to decrease inflammation

A

Glatiramer acetate

270
Q

interferon used to reduce MS exacerbations

A

Interferon-beta-1

271
Q

drugs used to spasticity related to MS

A

Tizanidine (mm. relaxant)
Baclofen (unknown MOA)
Botulinum toxin

272
Q

drug used for postherpetic neuralgia, epilepsy, and bipolar mania

A

Gabapentin

273
Q

drug used for neuropathic pain, fibromyalgia, and postherpetic neuralgia

A

Pregabalin

274
Q

5HT-1 agonist, potent vasoconstriction of cranial aa., take at onset of migraine or cluster HA

A

Sumatriptan

275
Q

Sumatriptan CI

A

ischemic heart dz, history of MI or stroke

276
Q

tx for chronic migraines that blocks ACh release

A

Botulinum toxin

277
Q

Topiramate and Valproate can both be used to tx

A

migraines and seizures

278
Q

Amides are metabolized

A

by the liver

279
Q

Esters are metabolized

A

in peripheral plasma to PABA

280
Q

Lidocaine is an

A

amide (liver)

281
Q

Bupivacaine is an

A

amide (liver)

282
Q

Procaine is an

A

ester (peripheral plasma)

283
Q

Lidocaine onset and duration

A

onset: 1-10 min
duration: 30-60 min

284
Q

Bupivacaine

A

onset: 8-12 min
duration: 3-4 hr

285
Q

Which type of nerve block agent is more likely to cause allergic rxn?

A

Esters

i.e. procaine

286
Q

the nerve block agent _______ acts topically, and ______ does not act topically

A

Lidocaine

Procaine

287
Q

Procaines has a _____ onset, and ______ duration as Lidocaine

A 
slower onset 
same duration (30-60 min)
288
Q

NMDA receptor antagonist used in pain/procedures

A

Ketamine

289
Q

Ketamine C/I

A

psychosis

290
Q

1st generation antihistamines that are somnorific

A

Diphenhydramine
Hydroxyzine
Promethazine

291
Q

non-benzo GABA potentiator - strong sedative, minor anxiolytic, rapid onset but short duration of hypnotic action

A

Zolpidem

292
Q

Zolpidem SE

A

rebound insomnia (must taper)

293
Q

anti-convulsant drugs used to tx mania in bipolar d/o

A

Lamotrigine
Valproate
Carbamazepine

294
Q

Carbamazepine blocks ____ channels

A

sodium

295
Q

drugs that block 5HT and DA

A 
Atypical anti-psychotics:
Risperidone
Aripiprazole
Quetiapine 
Clozapine
296
Q

The atypical anti-psychotic ______ is used to tx irritability in autism

A

Risperidone

297
Q

Aripiprazole SE

A

dysglycemia (caution with DM)

298
Q

drug used to tx mania that has a narrow therapeutic window and must be monitored

A

Lithium

299
Q

Lithium SE

A

hypothyroidism, hyponatremia

300
Q

_____ are first line anxiolytic for MDD, OCD, GAD, and eating d/o

A

SSRIs:
Escitalopram
Fluoxetine
Paroxitine

301
Q

SSRIs (Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Paroxitine) C/I

A

MAO-I (serotonin syndrome)

302
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Alprazolam

Diazepam

303
Q

Benzodiazepine (Alprazolam, Diazepam) SE

A

anterograde amnesia, must taper

304
Q

Benzodiazepine (Alprazolam, Diazepam) C/I

A

CNS depressants

305
Q

long-acting benzo used to tx epilepsy, EtOH w/drawal, and mania

A

Diazepam

306
Q

antipsychotic that blocks D2, some H1, some cholinergic, some alpha-adrenergic and has LOTS of SE

A

Haloperidol

307
Q

Haloperidol C/I

A

severe CNS depression, dementia-related psychosis

308
Q

anti-psychotic used to tx psychosis and vomiting

A

Phenothiazines:
Prochlorperazine
Promethazine

309
Q

Phenothiazines (Prochlorperazine, Promethazine) SE

A

tardive dyskinesia

310
Q

Phenothiazines (Prochlorperazine, Promethazine) C/I

A

CNS or bone marrow depression

311
Q

atypical antipsychotic used in treatment-resistant schizophrenia and suicide risk reduction

A

Clozapine

312
Q

Clozapine BBW

A

severe neutropenia

313
Q

Quetiapine

A

atypical antipsychotic used to tx mania

314
Q

amphetamine agents used to tx narcolepsy

A

Dextroamphetamine

Methylphenidate

315
Q

non-amphetamine CNS stimulation used to tx narcolepsy

A

Modafinil

316
Q

Modafinil SE

A

SJS

317
Q

Anorexiants (used to suppress appetite)

A

Phentermine

Dextroamphetamine

318
Q

Is Phentermine safe in pregnancy?

A

No (Cat. X)

319
Q

ADD/ADHD meds

A

Dextroamphetamine
Methylphenidate
Clonidine

320
Q

Clonidine MOA

A

alpha-2 agonist

321
Q

methylxanthine, phosphodiesterase inhibitor

A

caffeine

322
Q

CNS stimulant and local anesthetic that works by reducing Na+ permeability

A

cocaine

323
Q

Nicotinic ACh-R partial agonist

A

Varenicline

324
Q

Varenicline BBW

A

suicidal ideation

325
Q

Nicotine interactions

A

BB

326
Q

Bupropion is used to tx

A

smoking cessation

327
Q

Bupropion C/I

A

seizure d/o, eating d/o

328
Q

hallucinogen that affects 5HT release, increases catecholamines, inhibits parasympathetics

A

Cannabis

329
Q

hallucinogen that is an NMDA receptor antagonist

A

Ketamine

330
Q

anticholinergic used to tx bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and PD

A

Atropine

331
Q

Atropine C/I

A

acute glaucoma

332
Q

MOA inhibitor that increases NE, DA, 5HT - used in depression

A

Phenelzine

333
Q

Phenelzine C/I

A

all antidepressants and any meds that affect catecholamines

334
Q

tricyclic that increases NE and 5HT - used in depression

A

Amitriptyline

335
Q

Amitriptyline C/I

A

MAO-I or SSRI

336
Q

tetracycline drug used for MDD

A

Mirtazapine

337
Q

the smoking cessation drug ______ can also be used to tx depression

A

Buproprion

although takes several wk for antidepressant effects

338
Q

which anti-depressant has the fewest sexual SE

A

Buproprion

339
Q

5HT antagonist and reuptake inhibitor (SARI) used off label to tx insomnia

A

Trazodone

340
Q

SSRI used to tx MDD, OCD, GAD, eating d/o, panic attack

A

SSRI:

Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Paroxetine

341
Q

1st line tx for depression and panic d/o

A

Fluoxetine (SSRI)

342
Q

drug used to social anxiety, MDD, OCD, panic d/o, GAD

A

Paroxetine

343
Q

SNRI used to tx depression, GAD and diabetic neuropathy

A

Duloxetine

344
Q

SNRI used to tx MDD

A

Venlafaxine

345
Q

ADHD med, NE reuptake inhibitor

A

Atomoxetine

346
Q

antibacterial used topically for acne that has SE of photosensitivity

A

Benzoyl peroxide

347
Q

synthetic retinoid that reduces sebaceous gland size and sebum production

A

Isoretinoin

348
Q

Isoretinoin SE and C/I

A

SE: chelitis, increased LFTs

C/I: pregnancy (X)

349
Q

synthetic retinoid cream used for acne - reduces sebaceous gland size and sebum production

A

Tretinoin

350
Q

blocks ACh release and can tx hyperhydrosis

A

Botulinum toxin

351
Q

Topical steroids for eczema

A 
Clobetasol propionate
Fluocinonide 
Mometasone
Fluticasone
Triamcinolone
Hydrocortisone
352
Q

RNA synthesis blocker that tx staph infx

A

Mupirocin

353
Q

synthetic calcitriol (Vit D) to aid in proliferation and differentiation of various cell types; used to tx psoriasis

A

Calcipotriol

354
Q

Calcipotriol SE

A

hypercalcemia

355
Q

tx tinea versicolor, seborrheic derm, and dandruff

A

selenium disulfide

356
Q

used to tx actinic keratosis and external genital warts

A

Imiquimod

357
Q

Imiquimod C/I

A

immunocompromised and kids with molluscum (ineffective)

358
Q

tx diarrhea and ulcers; coats stomach; cytoprotective against H. pylori

A

Bismuth subsalicylate

359
Q

Bismuth subsalicylate SE

A

black tongue, tarry stool

360
Q

mast cell stabilizer that inhibits histamine release and can tx diarrhea

A

Cromolyn sodium

361
Q

anti-diarrheal effect on circular smooth muscle of bowel; may prolong transit time

A

Diphenoxylate/atropine

362
Q

Diphenoxylate/atropine C/I

A

pseudomembranous colitis, enterotoxin-producing bacteria

363
Q

opioid analogue that inhibits peristalsis and prolongs transit time; tx diarrhea

A

Loperamide

364
Q

Loperamide C/I

A

bloody diarrhea, high fever, infectious diarrhea, pseudomembranous colitis

365
Q

somatostatin analog (inhibits GH, glucagon, insulin, LH, and VIP); tx vasoactive intestinal peptide tumors, acromegaly, and watery diarrhea

A

Octreotide

366
Q

detergent agent that pulls more water into fecal matter

A

Docusate

367
Q

Docusate interactions

A

mineral oil

368
Q

Docusate C/I

A

obstruction

369
Q

increase water into lumen and increase peristalsis; between softener and laxative

A

Oral osmotic agents: Lactulose
Milk of magnesium
PEG 3350

370
Q

stimulant laxative that evacuates bowels 8 hr after taking

A

Bisacodyl

371
Q

phosphoric acid salt that exerts osmotic effect and acts as a laxative/bowel evacuant

A

Sodium phosphate enema

372
Q

binds prostaglandin R or parietal cells increasing HCO3-, decreasing pepsin, protecting tight jn, and thickening mucous layer; used for prevention of NSAID-induced ulcers

A

Misoprostal

373
Q

Misoprostal C/I

A

pregnancy (X; abortifacient)

374
Q

enhances mucosal barrier, adheres to “roughed up” gastric mucosa, little systemic absorption/no toxicity; powerful demulcent

A

Sucralfate

375
Q

H2 blockers that inhibit gastric acid secretion by binding reversibly to H2-R in parietal cells, for short-term use

A

Cimetidine

Ranitidine

376
Q

suppress gastric acid secretion by irreversible blocking H/K/ATPase at parietal cells

A

PPI:
Esomeprazole
Lansoprazole
Omeprazole

377
Q

Are H2 blockers safe in Pg?

A

Yes

378
Q

Are PPI safe in Pg?

A

Yes

-“prazole”

379
Q

PPI (“-prazole”) SE

A

rebound hypersecretion (must taper)

380
Q

spasmolytic drugs (dicyclomine, hyoscyamine, and scopolamine) C/I

A

glaucoma

381
Q

spasmolytic, anticholinergic, tx diarrhea, IBS, spasms, PUD

A

Hyoscyamine

Dicyclomine

382
Q

anticholinergic, parasympatholytic drug used for motion sickness prevention

A

Scopolamine

383
Q

DMARD used to tx IBD and RA

A

Sulfasalazine

384
Q

Sulfasalazine C/I

A

sulfa allergy

385
Q

active metabolite of sulfasalazine (tx IBD)

A

Mesalazine

386
Q

1st generation antihistamines used to prevent vestibular stimulation of vomiting center, prophylaxis for motion sickness

A

Diphenhydramine

Meclizine

387
Q

blocks 5HT3-R, inhibits activation of vomiting reflex pathway; used for N/V with chemotherapy or surgery

A

Ondansetron

388
Q

antipsychotics with anti-DA and anti-emetic effects

A

Prochlorperazine

Promethazine

389
Q

Prochlorperazine and Promethazine SE and C/I

A

SE: extrapyramidal

C/I: kids <2 (fatal respiratory depression)

390
Q

solubilizing agent for primary biliary cirrhosis; tx gallstonres

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

391
Q

Ursodeoxycholic acid C/I

A

biliary obstruction

392
Q

progestin for anorexia/cachexia of AIDS

A

Megestrol acetate

393
Q

Megestrol acetate C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

394
Q

cholinergic, increased SLUDGE for dry mouth of Sjogren’s or chemotherapy

A

Pilocarpine

395
Q

Pilocarpine C/I

A

glaucoma

396
Q

dopamine R antagonist that tx N/V associated with chemo or radiation, GERD (2nd line), diabetic gastroparesis

A

Metoclopramide

397
Q

Metoclopramide SE and C/I

A

SE: extrapyramidal

C/I: used > 12 wk

398
Q

5-alpha reductase inhibitor, decreases serum DHT for BPH and male pattern baldness

A

Finasteride

399
Q

Finasteride C/I

A

Pregnancy (X)

400
Q

BPH drugs that block alpha-1 R around bladder neck

A

Doxazosin
Terazosin
Tamsulosin

(alpha-1-antagonists)

401
Q

androgen that tx ED

A

Testosterone

402
Q

Testosterone C/I

A

Pregnancy (X)

403
Q

cGMP-PDE V Inhibitor, smooth muscle relaxation and inflow of blood to tx ED

A

Sildenafil

404
Q

Sildenafil SE

A

HA (MC), sudden cardiac death

405
Q

Sildenafil C/I

A

Nitrate use

406
Q

prostaglandin analogue (PGE-1) that leads to vasodilation and platelet inhibition and tx ED; IM into corpus cavernosum or used as urethral suppository

A

Alprostadil

407
Q

Alprostadil SE

A

curving of penis, priapism, testicular swelling/pain

408
Q

Alprostadil C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

409
Q

antimuscarinic drugs used to tx urinary incontinence

A

Oxybutynin
Solifenacin
Tolteridine

410
Q

Antimuscarinic (Oxybutynin, Solifenacin, Tolteridine) C/I

A

glaucoma, gastric/urinary retention

411
Q

block ACh release and tx urinary incontinence

A

Botulinum toxin

412
Q

muscarinic agonist (structurally related to ACh) that acts as a parasympathomimetic and is used for acute post-op and postpartum urinary retention

A

Bethanechol

413
Q

1st line tx for interstitial cystitis; also used to tx pain of UTI but does not tx infx

A

Phenazopyridine

414
Q

Phenazopyridine SE

A

body fluids turn deep orange (will interfere with urinalysis results)

415
Q

antibiotic that has high concentration in urine, for cystitis, uncomplicated UTIs, 1st line tx for E. coli UTI

A

Nitrofurantoin

416
Q

Nitrofurantoin C/I

A

3rd trimester of pregnancy (can cz hemolysis of newborn)

417
Q

HBV tx that inhibits reverse transcriptase and incorporates into viral DNA

A

Entecavir

418
Q

Entecavir BBW

A

hepatitis B exacerbation if tx is d/c, HIV resistance (don’t use in pt w/ coinfx)

419
Q

NSAID used to tx OA and RA

A

Meloxicam

420
Q

precursor of progestogens, mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids, androgens, and estrogens

A

Pregnenolone

421
Q

used in Addison’s to replace mineralcorticoids

A

Fludrocortisone

422
Q

Oral glucocorticoids

A 
Hydrocortisone
Prednisone
Prednisolone
Methyprednisolone
Dexamethasone
423
Q

Prednisone is ___ X stronger than hydrocortisone

A

4

424
Q

Dexamethasone is ___ X stronger than hydrocortisone

A

30

425
Q

Inhaled glucocorticoids

A

Fluticasone
Momentasone
Budesonide
Beclomethasone

426
Q

Glucocorticoid topical creams/gels

A 
Fluocinonide
Triamcinolone
Hydrocortisone
Clobetasol propionate
Dexamethasone
427
Q

Glucocorticoid nasal sprays

A

Beclomethasone
Budesonide
Fluticasone
Mometasone

428
Q

estrogen that is used for HT, prophylaxis of osteoporosis, naturally highest in postmenopausal F, and

A

Estrone

429
Q

Estrone SE and C/I

A

SE: carcinogenic

C/I: pregnancy (X)

430
Q

estrogen that is used for atrophic vaginitis, BrCA, osteoporosis, DUB/AUB

A

Estradiol

431
Q

Estradiol SE and C/I

A

SE: clot formation

C/I: E+ tumor, pregnancy(X)

432
Q

estrogen that is used for HT, atrophic vaginitis, and is highest during pregnancy

A

Estriol

433
Q

Estriol C/I

A

pregnancy, thrombosis

434
Q

estrogen used to tx atrophic vaginitis, F hypogonadism, osteoporosis, AUB

A

Conjugated Estrogen

from pregnant mare

435
Q

Conjugated Estrogen C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

436
Q

strong E, only E used in OCP

A

Ethinyl Estradiol (EE)

437
Q

prevents endometrial hyperplasia in females with uterus with postmenopausal estrogen therapy

A

Progesterone

438
Q

hormones used to tx amenorrhea, DUB, PMS, fibroids, insomnia (dose at night), and is used in OCP

A

Progesterone

439
Q

IUD

A

Levonorgestrel

440
Q

Levonorgestrel C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

441
Q

contraception, endometriosis, IM q 3 months

A

Medroxyprogesterone acetate

442
Q

Medroxyprogesterone acetate C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

443
Q

progestin used in OCP - alone or in combo with ethinyl estradiol (EE); also used in menopause

A

Norethindrone

444
Q

only OC that are safe in nursing moms

A

Progestin OC (Norethindrone)

they also have highest rate of unintended Pg

445
Q

Norethindrone C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

446
Q

Combo OCP

A

Drospirenone/Ethinyl Estradiol
Norelgestromin/Ethinyl Estradiol
Norgestimate/Ethinyl Estradiol

447
Q

ovulatory stimulant used in ovulatory dysfn in F trying to become pregnant, PCOS, post-OCP amenorrhea, some 2’ amenorrhea

A

Clomiphene

448
Q

Clomiphene SE

A

ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, hepatic dysfn

449
Q

Clomiphene C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

450
Q

increases production of E and T, decreases cortisol

A

DHEA

451
Q

DHEA C/I

A

breast/uterine CA, endometriosis, fibroids

452
Q

hormone for tx male hypogonadism

A

Testosterone

only give if AM plasma T is < 3 ng/mL

453
Q

Testosterone SE (males)

A

gynecomastia, transfer to partner, liver CA, BPH, prostate CA

454
Q

Testosterone SE (female)

A

clitoral hypertrophy, hirsuitism, acne, amenorrhea

455
Q

Testosterone C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

456
Q

competitive antagonist at androgen R, decreases T and tx hirsuitism d/t PCOS

A

Spironolactone

457
Q

Insulin interactions

A

BB

can mask sx of hypoglycemia and prolong recovery

458
Q

very rapid onset insulin (1 hr), very short-acting (3-4 hr), bolus dosing with meals

A

Lispro

459
Q

rapid onset insulin (2-3 hr), short-acting (5-7 hr)

A

Regular

460
Q

slow onset insulin (12 hr), long-acting (24 hr)

A

Glargine

461
Q

rescue of hypoglycemia; given IV, IM, SQ

A

Glucagon

462
Q

Glucagon C/I

A

pheochromocytoma

463
Q

synthetic ADH, tx diabetes insipidus, limits H2O eliminated in urine

A

Desmopressin

464
Q

Desmopressin SE

A

seizures, hyponatremia

465
Q

labor/let down/love

A

Oxytocin

466
Q

IV or nasal spray, postpartum hemorrhage, labor induction, incomplete abortion

A

Oxytocin

467
Q

Oxytocin C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

468
Q

prolactin blocker, dopamine agonist; tx hyperprolactinemia or prolactin-secreting adenoma

A

Bromocriptine

469
Q

GH agonist used to tx dwarfism, growth failure (peds), HIV cachexia

A

Somatropin

470
Q

stimulates chondrocytes, protein synthesis, EPO

A

Somatropin

471
Q

given with Octreotide for acromegaly

A

Bromocriptine

472
Q

somatostatin analogue that tx acromegaly, VIP tumor, carcinoid tumor

A

Octreotide

473
Q

Octreotide SE

A

hyper/hypoglycemia, cardiac conduction d/o

474
Q

iodine replenisher, radiation protection, inhibits release of thyroid hormone (ST); can be used in tx of both hyper and hypothyroidism

A

Lugol’s sol’n

475
Q

inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis, blocks TPO, safer than PTU

A

Methimazole

476
Q

inhibits TPO, inhibits conversion of T4 to T3, preferred agent in thyroid storm

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

477
Q

Propylthiouracil (PTU) SE

A

agranulocytosis, life-threatening hepatotoxicity

478
Q

T4

A

Levothyroxine

479
Q

Levothyroxine C/I

A

uncorrected adrenal deficiency

480
Q

T3

A

Liothyronine

481
Q

T4/T3 blend from desiccated pig thyroid

A

Thyroid USP

482
Q

from C-cells, opposes PTH, decreases serum Ca++; tx Paget’s disease of bone, hypercalcemia, postmenopausal osteoporosis

A

Calcitonin

483
Q

induces ovulation and tx infertility in F; increases sperm count in M and helps testes descend

A

hCG

484
Q

hCG SE

A

ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

485
Q

hCG C/I

A

pregnancy (X)

486
Q

powerful antioxidant that tx disturbed biorhythms and sleep d/o

A

Melatonin

487
Q

increases # and affinity of insulin R in periphery, decreases hepatic glucose output

A

Metformin

Biguanide

488
Q

Metformin SE

A

lactic acidosis, diarrhea, B12 deficiency

489
Q

Metformin C/I

A

metabolic acidosis, T1DM

490
Q

sulfonyluria that stimulates insulin release

A

Glyburide

491
Q

Glyburide SE

A

hypoglycemia

492
Q

Glyburide C/I

A

DKA, sulfa allergy

493
Q

insulin sensitizer in periphery

A

Pioglitazone

494
Q

Pioglitazone BBW

A

cause/worsen heart failure

495
Q

Pioglitazone C/I

A

CHF and liver disease

496
Q

GLP1 agonist; incretin mimetic to increase insulin secreted in elevated blood glucose, slows gastric emptying

A

Liraglutide

497
Q

SGLT2 antagonist that lowers renal glucose threshold, leading to increase urinary glucose excretion

A

Canaglifozin

498
Q

Canaglifozin SE

A

increased urination, vag/penis stuff

499
Q

DPP-4 inhibitor that increases/prolongs incretin increasing insulin release and decreasing serum glucose

A

Sitagliptin

Pipers NPLEX cards (9 decks)

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