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Step 3 and Residency Flashcards > Aaron: Uworld IM deck 1 > Flashcards

Aaron: Uworld IM deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The most definite test to distinguish a lung obstruction vs. scar tissue is what?

A

Bronchoscopy

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2
Q

Do adjunctive glucocorticoids help with treatment of Tuberculosis?

A

Yes, they do

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3
Q

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis will have what positive test?

A

Positive TPO

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4
Q

What are one of the big benefits of quitting smoking?

A

Decreased mortality after 5 years

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5
Q

If a young teen has dark spots on her lips, low Na, elevated K, what is something to think about?

A

Poor cortisol/Addison’s Disease

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6
Q

Methotrexate rescue drug is what?

A

Folinic Acid

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7
Q

Can TPA be started BEFORE 3-4.5 hours via the window/

A

Yes!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

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8
Q

Post op Knee surgery has a DVT. How long after his DVT should the patient take medication before stopping it?

A

6 months

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9
Q

What four drugs are recommended as PreP therapy for high risk individuals?

A

Tenofovir, Emtricitabine, and Raltegravir for 4 weeks

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10
Q

If you get rabies, what is the end result?

A

Pallative Care

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11
Q

If any elderly person has difficulty sleeping, Vitamin B12 and TSH are wnl, what are a few things to think about?

A

Depression and OSA (sleep apnea), stop bang score

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12
Q

If you have AKPKD, can U/S be used as a screening tool for children?

What is the best AKPKD management plan?

A

Yes

ACE inhibitor medication

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13
Q

When Vitamin B12 is being repleted, what electrolyte has to be watched?

A

K, can be sucked up quickly making RBCs

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14
Q

HIV medication start, viral load 35k, what should it be in 6 months?

A

50 or less

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15
Q

Nodular lymphadenitis after scraping cheek against a cave wall, what would it be?

A

Sporotrichosis

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16
Q

Skin Papules with central umbilication that have central area of hemorrhage or necrosis, HIV + rash over arms and limbs, what could this be?

A

Cryptococcus infection, if immunocompromised, need an LP for further management

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17
Q

In order to have a new C.Diff diagnosis, what are one of the qualifications?

A

3 bowel movements in 24 hours

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18
Q

If a patient has acute pharyngitis, what is the next best step?

A

Order a rapid strept antigen test

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19
Q

A patient gets C. Diff on Ciprofloxacin, what should be done?

A

Switch to TMP-SMX

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20
Q

Does C. Diff make persistent spores, that can survive a long period of time?

A

Yes

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21
Q

If a patient is Hep C positive, what should be done, next?

A

Look at Viral load

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22
Q

Pyoderma Gangrenosum is associated with what?

Ecthyma Gangrenosum is associated with what?

A

IBS disease

P. Aeruginosa bacteremia, usually better with IV abx

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23
Q

Are there any pregnancy concerns with starting steroids?

A

No

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24
Q

Bronchiectasis can cause hemoptysis how?

A

superficial blood vessel rupture

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25
Q

Mycotic aneurysm can occur from what? What is it?

A

Bacterial infection against vessel wall, IV drug abuse

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26
Q

Scant watery discharge that tested negative at previous appointment from patient’s penile fluid, but was just treated for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia, what is the next step?

A

Repeat Gram Stain and urethral swab

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27
Q

Fosphenytoin help stop what?

A

Seizures greater than 5-10 minutes

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28
Q

If a patient has white growth in his mouth and it is scrapped off with a tongue depressor, what is this most likely?

A

Oral Thrush, Candidias

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29
Q

Skin infections with well-defined borders is what?

Skin infections with ill-defined borders is what?

A

Erysipelas

Cellulitus

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30
Q

An arterial oxygen tension less than 70 mmHg and an alveolar-arterial gradient greater than 35 mmHg means what medication is needed?

A

Corticosteroids

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31
Q

PCP infection, negative Blood cx after 48 hours, what is the next best step for the patient?

A

BAL (bronchoalveolar lavage)

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32
Q

Vancomycin red man syndrome is caused by what? (Cellular mechanism)

A

Mast Cell Activation

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33
Q

Nucleic Acid Amplification testing is the gold standard for confirming what disease?

A

TB

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34
Q

A tick attached to human skin less than how long will not be concerning?

A

36 hours

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35
Q

Does salmonella need to be treated in individuals greater than 12 months old that are immunocompetent?

A

No

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36
Q

Raynauds syndrome medication should be used?

A

Nifedifine not Verapamil

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37
Q

If the patient has a T score close to -2.5, but the number is -1.7, what is next best step?

A

FRAX score should calculate 10 year risk

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38
Q

Renal involvement with drug induced lupus should have what levels monitored?

A

Complement and anti-double stranded DNA antibody levels

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39
Q

If there is a cryoglobulinemia diagnosis, what is the next best step to do?

A

evaluate if Hep C exists and treat

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40
Q

If a patient is on EPO, what is a potential side effect?

A

LVH

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41
Q

Hematuria in a young male, sick three days ago, and normal complement levels, what am I?

A

IgA Nephropathy

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42
Q

Hematuria in a young male with sickness a few weeks ago, decreased complement levels, what is this?

A

PSGN

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43
Q

Once Renal Cell Carcinoma is identified on CT scan, what should be done?

A

Surgery

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44
Q

Lithium level over 4 means what should be done?

45
Q

What is a good BP combo with lithium?

A

Amlodipine
NSAIDs, Lithium, ACE inhibitors, and ARBS can hurt Lithium level

46
Q

New onset psychosis can be seen in the setting of what?

47
Q

What is a psych med that can hurt a pregnant mom’s baby?

A

Valproic Acid

48
Q

A 22 year old female would like to donate a kidney to her brother. What are the long term concerns?

A

Increase in Gestational Problems after Kidney removal

49
Q

What type of cell will be seen in AIN?

A

Tubulointerstitial mononuclear cell infiltration

50
Q

Hepatorenal syndrome can be treated with what two drugs?

A

Midodrine and Octreotide

51
Q

What do ACEs inhibitors do in the kidney?

A

Reduced Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure

52
Q

Primary CNS lymphoma and HIV patient. Non compliant with medication. What is an encouraging sign with treatment?

A

Increase in CD4 count

53
Q

Fluorescein stain with subsequent clearing in a waterfall pattern indicates what?

A

full-thickness corneal laceration or seidel sign, get urgent Seidel sign

54
Q

A cherry red spot on eye evaluation is code for what problem?

A

Central Retinal Artery occlusion

55
Q

Keratitis is code for what type of infection?

A

Cornea infection

56
Q

If I have a cornea infection, branched dendritic ulcerations, decrease corneal sensation, watery discharge, and recurrent episodes, what type of infection is this?

57
Q

In a male with priapism, the penis pain does not improve with draining blood. What is the next step?

A

Phenylephrine injection

58
Q

If an individual has swimmer’s ear, the debris and granulation tissue are removed, what is the next best step?

A

Prescribe topical antibiotics

59
Q

If a patient has inoperable laryngeal cancer, what is the next best step?

A

Chemo and radiation

60
Q

If a patient has a cutaneous wart, what is the best course of treatment?
How long does it take to work?

A

Salicylate Acid, treatment takes 2-3 weeks

61
Q

Seborrheic Dermatitis is a chronic, relapsing condition. What is the best treatment course of action?

A

Treat once a week, prophylatically

62
Q

Mohns microsurgery is done on what body parts? What is the cause of it?

A

Eye, face, hands, feet, or neck
High Risk invasive cancer surgery

63
Q

First line treatment for Keloids is what?

A

Intralesional Glucocorticoids, no excision

64
Q

Atopic Dermatitis, first line treatment is what?

A

Hydrate the skin

65
Q

If atopic dermatitis requires treatment, what is the best treatment?

A

Topical Glucocorticoids

66
Q

What is the treatment of alopecia areata?

A

Intralesional corticosteroids

67
Q

What is the treatment of choice for actinic keratosis?

A

Topical Liquid Nitrogen

68
Q

Methanol toxicity and ethylene glycol can be treated with what?

A

Fomepizole

69
Q

Carbon monoxide in a patient (from a burning building) should have what level evaluated?

A

Carboxyhemoglobin level

70
Q

What herbal supplement can cause liver toxicity?

71
Q

What herbal supplement can cause bleeding problems?

A

Gingko biloba

72
Q

Anti-centromere antibodies are seen in what disease?

A

Scleroderma

73
Q

Anti-mitochondiral antibodies are seen in what disease?

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

74
Q

Anti-DNA antibodies are seen primarily in what disease?

75
Q

Mild SLE flare gets what medications?

Severe SLE flare gets what medications?

A

Prednisone and hydroxychloroquine

Prednisone and Cyclophosphamide

76
Q

Bisphosphanates can cause what disease, what should be checked first?

A

25-hydroxyvitamin D level, they can cause hypocalcemia

77
Q

What should be supplemented with methotrexate?

78
Q

What should be given for renal failure gout treatment?

A

Intra-articular glucocorticoids (triamcinolone)

79
Q

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, what is the next best step for treatment?

A

Oral Prednisone

80
Q

What is the #1 worse cause for Pulmonary Embolism?

A

Hypotension

81
Q

What is the best treatment for hemodynamically unstable patients (pulmonary embolism)?

A

Thrombolytics

82
Q

COPD can cause weight loss by what disease anomaly?

A

Pulmonary Cachexia Syndrome, loss of muscle mass 2/2 energy imbalance and systemic inflammation

83
Q

What Chest Xray features show a benign lung lesion?

A

Laminated, Central, and Diffuse Homogeneous calcifications, similar to popcorn lesions

84
Q

In organ failure and brain death, what are the best steps to maintaining organ viability?

A

Maintaining fluid status via Fluids and Desmopressin

85
Q

When initially evaluating and monitoring Ankylosing Spondylitis, what is the best course of action?

A

Lumbar Xray

86
Q

Does Ankylosing Spondylitis decrease life expectancy?

87
Q

When do yearly CT scans start for smokers?

A

50 to 80 years old

88
Q

What qualifications get you a CT scan?

A

More than 20+ Pack years of smoking
Currently smoking or quick 15 years ago

89
Q

If there is a PE looming, the patient is hemodynamically unstable, what is the next best test?

A

Echo, do not do a CTA for PE in an Unstable Patient

90
Q

If a patient has negative or low probability V/Q scan, and a PE is likely, what should be done?

A

Do a Well’s Criteria Score, if high, treat for a PE

91
Q

Autoimmune causes of hip and shoulder pain should show what?

A

Elevated ESR

92
Q

Best anti-hypertensive medication if patient has gout?

93
Q

Patellar Tendonitis is seen with what types of athletes?

A

Jumping athletes, knee pain episodes

94
Q

Patellofemoral Syndrome gets worse with what?

A

Jumping, Squatting, Prolonged Sitting

Tx: is training upper thigh muscles and avoiding activities

95
Q

Sarcoidosis that receives oral glucocorticoid treatment over time can what?

A

Resolve and go away

96
Q

Seborrheic Dermatitis has mildly elevated and erythematous plaques, what disease can this be associated with?

97
Q

Ventilator acquired PNA, what is a test that should be done?

98
Q

After a patient has been extubated, they have sudden stridor/difficulty talking, what is there a low threshold for?

A

Laryngeal Edema

99
Q

Acute bronchitis without crackles/consolidation or a fever should receive what?

A

Symptomatic care only

100
Q

A patient has a knee with pain out of proportion to exam, extreme sensitivity, and sweating more on the affected knee, what disease could this be?

A

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

101
Q

Proximal bilateral muscle weakness with elevated inflammatory enzymes and markers, difficulty climbing the stairs and getting out of a chair, what could this be? No skin rash

A

Polymyositis

Polymyalgia Rheumatica causes stiffness and pain rather than just weakness

102
Q

Inflammatory arthritis, young male, eye pain, burning on urination, diarrhea at local restaurant, what is the most likely cause?

A

Elevated WBCs, negative cx, reactive arthritis

103
Q

Dupuytren Contracture is associated with what other disease?

A

Diabetes Mellitus

104
Q

If a patient has hip osteoarthritis, what will be seen on physical examination?

A

Hip pain movement in all directions

105
Q

If a person has a grip that cannot be released, no other big symptoms, what should be suspected?

A

Myotonic Dystrophy

106
Q

If a patient has back pain without concern for neurologic deficit, fever, infection, or malignancy is imaging needed?

107
Q

Patient becomes emotional and passes out, negative orthostats, what is the next best step?

A

Education and Follow up

108
Q

What is the number one risk factor for CAD?

A

Diabetes Mellitus is #1

109
Q

After stent placement, how long should a patient wait to restart sexual activity?

A

3-4 weeks if low risk and improving

Step 3 and Residency Flashcards (19 decks)

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