AAMC FL3 psych/soc

Question 1

A researcher attempts to replicate studies 1 and 2 with a group of 5-year-olds by using simplified versions of the games. Which cognitive limitation is most likely to inhibit the participants’ performance on the dependent variables (success on the war/social coalition game)?

A.Lack of object permanence
B.Limited understanding of conservation
C.Centration
D.Egocentrism

Answer 1

egocentrism

Question 2

Considering the research on interpersonal attraction, which variable is LEAST likely to predict whether two participants will select each other for a coalition in Study 2?

A.The similarity between the participants in terms of activities they enjoy
B.The physical attractiveness of the participants
C.The number of times the participants have run into each other prior to participating in the study
D.The participants’ scores on a personality test that assesses neuroticism

Answer 2

D.The participants’ scores on a personality test that assesses neuroticism

similarity, physical attractiveness and exposure all are stronger predictors of social attraction

Question 3

Which of the following findings would suggest that the empathy questionnaire is NOT a valid measure?

empathy questionaree and perspective taking questionarre

A.A positive correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the perspective taking skills questionnaire
B.A negative correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the personal distress questionnaire
C.A positive correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the fantasy perspective taking skills questionnaire
D.No correlation between the scores on the empathy questionnaire and the amount of money won in the competition trials

Answer 3

B.A negative correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the personal distress questionnaire

this means that high empathy is associated with low personal distress (this is pain from empathy) which is OPPOSITE

D is wrong bc no correlation doesnt disprove the method

Question 4

reproductive memory

Answer 4

fact that information retrieved from LTM may not be fully accurate

sorting and reproducing during recall

Question 5

flashbulb memory

Answer 5

The subjectively vivid, compelling memories of details associated with reception of news about emotionally arousing events are referred to as flashbulb memories.

EMOTIONAL

Question 6

prospective memory

Answer 6

Prospective memory is memory for tasks which must be completed in the future. This is not relevant to the memory phenomenon examined in studies 1 and 2.

Question 7

eidetic memory

Answer 7

Eidetic memory is the ability to recall an image from memory with a high degree of accuracy

Question 8

“In Study 2, participants described how they had heard about a disaster one day after it had occurred. They answered specific questions about key details.”

The key details assessed in Study 2 were examples of which type of memory?

A.Episodic
B.Semantic
C.Procedural
D.Iconic

Answer 8

episodic is for personally experienced events

Question 9

“In addition to omission errors, such as failing to report something that was said, many of the errors were intrusions, such as a detail that was consistent with the situation but missing from the initial report.”

Which statement is the most reasonable explanation for the observation of intrusion errors in Study 2?

A.False information was encoded.
B.Memory is prospective.
C.Memory is reconstructive.
D.Repressed information was retrieved.

Answer 9

NOT FALSE info, since it “was consistent with the situation”

emotional memory is unlikely to be shaped by prospective memory

not repressed bc the info was not in the initial reports

ANSWER: C memory is reconstructive meaning episodic memory is combined with semantic memory about what is learned later –> reconstructive

Question 10

Which critique of laboratory research on memory for emotional events is concerned with generalizability?

A.Potential confounding variables are not always controlled in laboratory studies.
B.Retention tests employed in laboratory studies are usually concerned with factual information rather than emotions.
C.The intensity of emotional responses is more accurately measured after the event in laboratory studies.
D.Memories and emotional experiences in real life are very different from those generated in laboratory studies.

Answer 10

D.Memories and emotional experiences in real life are very different from those generated in laboratory studies.

Question 11

n Study 3, participants who viewed a sequence of slides involving a violent car accident remembered more central aspects of the event (for example, a car involved in the accident) and fewer peripheral details (for example, the street).

The finding from Study 3 regarding the differential effect of emotional arousal on memory for central and peripheral details is best explained by which mechanism? Increasing emotional arousal:

A.causes a restriction of the focus of attention.
B.improves memory, but only up to an optimal level of arousal.
C.impairs the encoding of peripheral details.
D.enhances the retrieval of encoded central details.

Answer 11

A.causes a restriction of the focus of attention.

B wrong as no arousal was measured
C wrong as the encoding of peripheral details is a CONSEQUENCE not a primary mechanism
D wrong because emotional arrousal is in encoding not retrieval

Question 12

Individuals with impaired color perception, such as an inability to distinguish between red and green, are most likely to show improper functioning of which part of the visual system?

A.Cones
B.Cornea
C.Rods
D.Sclera

Answer 12

A, cones
cones - sensory receptors for initial detection of color information

Cornea - outermost layer
rods - black and white , NOT COLOR
sclera - white part - maintains shape and protects from injury

Question 13

Answer 13

you need to approach this as is there a preference between high and low quality for each of group (are the bars very different from one another within a group)

They are diff for the high quality raised
NOT For the low quality

C. so we know that prior food history influenced the behavior for only on a high quality diet

Question 14

A 45-year-old man presents himself at a hospital emergency room. Symptoms include a pounding heart, chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, and feeling dizzy. Medical tests reveal that the man did not have a heart attack. Which psychiatric diagnosis provides the most likely explanation for the man’s symptoms?

A.Generalized anxiety disorder
B.Panic disorder
C.Illness anxiety disorder
D.Somatic symptom disorder

Answer 14

panic bc this is a panic attack

generalized anxiety - pervasive worry but not acute like a panic attack

illness anxiety - intense anxiety over developing a physical health condition not experiencing physical symptoms

somatic symptom disorder - psychological distress caused by the experience of physical symptoms

Question 15

generalized anxiety
illness anxiety
somatic symptom disorder

Answer 15

generalized anxiety - pervasive worry but not acute like a panic attack

illness anxiety - intense anxiety over developing a physical health condition not experiencing physical symptoms

somatic symptom disorder - psychological distress caused by the experience of physical symptoms

Question 16

Every time a volunteer in a sleep study begins to exhibit rapid eye movements (REM), the experimenter wakes the person up. On the following night, when his or her sleep is uninterrupted, the person will most likely:

A. have difficulty falling asleep.
B.have more REM sleep than usual.
C.have less REM sleep than usual.
D.have the same sleep pattern as before the study.

Answer 16

have more REM sleep than usual.

Evidence from sleep studies shows that AFTER being REM Deprived night before, there IS A REM REBOUND and they spend more time in REM than usual

Question 17

Answer 17

A. Bc at 6 months there is no difference (not sig) ACROSS therapies all of which have reported means below the threshold for insomnia

B is wrong as CBT was better than CT
C is wrong as neither BT or CT was as good as CBT
D is wrong bc CT was also good at the end

Question 18

Answer 18

D.

there is no difference in groups at 6 months after

all groups are much below the threshold

Question 19

The researchers’ decision to use individual (NOT group) therapy in each of the treatment sessions reduced the potential influence of:

A.classical conditioning.
B.observational learning.
C.operant conditioning.
D.elaboration likelihood.

Answer 19

B is correct - Observational learning occurs when an individual either acquires or changes a behavior based on viewing performance of that behavior. Group therapy would present the opportunity for observational learning via the other participants in the group.

____________
A. Classical conditioning occurs via the pairing of an unconditioned and conditioned stimulus. Its potential influence would not be changed by group versus individual therapy.

C. Operant conditioning occurs by receiving consequences (either reinforcement or punishment) for behavior. Its potential influence would not be changed by group versus individual therapy.

D. Elaboration likelihood refers to techniques for persuasion. Its potential influence would not be changed by group versus individual therapy.

Question 20

elaboration likelihood

Answer 20

According to the elaboration likelihood model, when a persuader presents information to an audience, some level of elaboration results. This elaboration refers to the amount of effort that any audience member of a message has to use to process and evaluate a message, remember it, and subsequently accept or reject it

elaboration likelihood refers to the process by which an individual is more likely to elaborate, or become engaged with, an issue that directly affects them

(depends features like m message etc)

central: uses facts
peripheral: uses pos associations

Question 21

observational learning

Answer 21

Observational learning occurs when an individual either acquires or changes a behavior based on viewing performance of that behavior.

Question 22

The cycle of worrying about not sleeping described in the passage is an example of:

A.a self-fulfilling prophecy.
B.stereotype threat.
C.the fundamental attribution error.
D.cognitive dissonance.

Answer 22

A.a self-fulfilling prophecy.

A self-fulfilling prophecy is a belief that leads to its own fulfillment, which is what is described by the cycle of worrying

Question 23

Stereotype threat

Answer 23

Stereotype threat is apprehension about confirming negative stereotypes related to a person’s own group

Asked to indicate their gender at the beginning of a math test, female college students do more poorly than females who are not asked to indicate their gender.

Question 24

The fundamental attribution erro

Answer 24

The fundamental attribution error involves making dispositional attributions for others’ behavior while ignoring potential situational influences.

Question 25

Cognitive dissonance

Answer 25

Cognitive dissonance is the psychological discomfort one experiences when holding two conflicting attitudes or when their attitude conflicts with their behavior

Question 26

social capital … related to SES?

Answer 26

social capital, which refers to the benefits provided to an individual by social network

not necessarily related to SES

Question 27

measures to evaluate SES

Answer 27

occupational status/prestige, incomes sources, educational attainment, wealth, income, educational attainment,

Question 28

Regardless of the relative effect of race, research has established that people in lower socioeconomic positions face disproportionate exposure to certain stressors.

Based on the information presented in the passage, which correlation coefficient provides the best estimate of the association between SES and level of exposure to stress?

A.–0.20
B.–0.05
C.+0.15
D.+0.50

Answer 28

A.–0.20

if we know that its neg
“disproportionate” means higher stress than usual

so low SES and high stress (this is opposite => NEGATIVE CORRELATION)

it’s -0.2 bc its FURTHER FROM 0
ITS NOT -0.05 bC NEAR 0 MEANS WEAKKK

Question 29

If certain stressors lead to an emotional response of anger and hostility, which consequence is more likely for individuals from lower socioeconomic positions?

A.Increased incidence of heart disease
B.Stronger reliance upon coping mechanisms
C.Reduced external locus of control
D.Fewer depressive symptoms

Answer 29

A.Increased incidence of heart disease

Research indicates that individuals who respond to stressors with anger and hostility are at elevated risk for heart disease.

_______
B is wrong, anger is not a coping mechanism
C is wrong, eAn external locus of control refers to a belief that events outside of one’s own control are the primary determinant of outcomes. A strong, rather than reduced, external locus of control is more likely to be associated with anger and hostility.
D is wring as anger is more likely associated with MORE Depressive symptoms

Question 30

eternal locus of control

internal locus of control

Answer 30

eternal locus of control - external locus of control refers to a belief that events outside of one’s own control are the primary determinant of outcomes

internal locus of control - Internal locus of control means that control comes from within. You have personal control over your own behavior. When you have an internal locus of control, you believe you have personal agency over your own life and actions.

Question 31

In response to stress, what part of the brain initiates signals to the endocrine system?

A.Hippocampus
B.Medulla oblongata
C.Hypothalamus
D.Pons

Answer 31

hypothalamus

reg pit and adrenal glands

Question 32

Which category of behavioral and emotional problems includes measures that are most directly related to assessing the presence of a depressive disorder in a child?

A.Interpersonal problems
B.Externalizing problems
C.Learning problems
D.Internalizing problems

Answer 32

The passage describes the measures of internalizing problems as including “the presence of anxiety, loneliness, low self-esteem, and sadness in a child.” Reduced self-esteem, social isolation, and feelings of sadness are all symptoms of depressive disorders.

difficulty forming friendship is not a depressive symptom

Question 33

Another researcher suggests that the study should also include measures of a teacher’s academic standards as a component of the classroom learning environment. Which statement provides a possible reason for the researcher’s suggestion that is based on the concept of self-fulfilling prophecy?

A.If a teacher has low expectations, students are more likely to behave in a way that reinforces the teacher’s low standards.
B.If a teacher has high expectations, students are more likely to consider the teacher’s high standards to be unfair.
C.If a teacher has low expectations, students who overcome the teacher’s low standards are more likely to succeed.
D.If a teacher has high expectations, students are more likely to experience frustration from the teacher’s high standards.

Answer 33

A self-fulfilling prophecy is a belief that leads to its own fulfillment, which is what is described by this option.

teacher believes students do bad and then they do (fulfills this)

Question 34

Which statement best identifies the fundamental attribution error in a teacher’s assessment of students in a classroom? A teacher assumes that any emotional and behavioral problems are due to:

A.social learning, while the teacher overlooks patterns of reinforcement.
B.cognitive dissonance, while the teacher overlooks emotional maturity.
C.psychological disorders, while the teacher overlooks behavioral training.
D.dysfunctional personalities, while the teacher overlooks situational variables.

Answer 34

D. dysfunctional personalities, while the teacher overlooks situational variables.

Question 35

A researcher criticizes the methods used in the study, stating that teachers’ ratings may not be a valid way of assessing the students’ emotional problems. Which hypothetical finding is most likely to reduce this concern?

A.A positive correlation between the number of emotional problems observed in students and the number of classmates reading below grade level
B.A negative correlation between the number of emotional problems observed in students and the number of disruptions experienced by the teacher per day
C.A positive correlation between the teachers’ ratings of the number of emotional problems observed in students and the parents’ rating of the same variable
D.A negative correlation between the teachers’ ratings of the number of emotional problems observed in students at two different times

Answer 35

C.A positive correlation between the teachers’ ratings of the number of emotional problems observed in students and the parents’ rating of the same variable

good bc this is more evidence that the teachers understand the idea of how they evaluate

Question 36

The standard version of a dichotic listening task involves:

A.presenting two different auditory messages, one to each ear.
B.presenting two different auditory stimuli to the same ear.
C.requiring participants to identify two subthreshold sounds.
D.requiring participants to dichotomize sounds into distinct categories.

Answer 36

A. This is the definition of a dichotic listening task, which involves presenting different auditory stimuli to each ear.

dichotic -> di -> 2 ears

Question 37

The frequency with which students completed problems decreased after their teacher stopped rewarding completed problems with candy. This observation is an example of which phenomenon?

A.Extinction
B.Shaping
C.Stimulus discrimination
D.Stimulus generalization

Answer 37

A.Extinction

Extinction occurs when the frequency of an operantly conditioned behavior decreases without continued reinforcement.

Question 38

extinction

Answer 38

Extinction occurs when the frequency of an operantly conditioned behavior decreases without continued reinforcement.

Question 39

shaping

Answer 39

when a complex behavior is learned via successive acquisition of simpler behaviors. This is not relevant to the described scenario.

Question 40

Stimulus generalization

Answer 40

Stimulus generalization occurs when a stimulus-controlled behavior occurs in response to stimuli that closely resemble the original controlling stimulus. This is not relevant to the described scenario.

Question 41

Stimulus discrimination

Answer 41

can you differentiate between stimuli
there is a diff behavior as a result

Stimulus discrimination occurs when a stimulus-controlled behavior occurs specifically to the original controlling stimulus and is not elicited by stimuli that resemble the original stimulus. This is not relevant to the described scenario.

Question 42

Public health campaigns often target behaviors that are formed in adolescence. For example, alcohol, tobacco, and drug use interventions are often designed to prevent or delay risky behaviors because patterns established in adolescence are associated with disorders in adulthood. This example is best described as using which approach to health?

A.The biopsychosocial model of health risks
B.A macrosociological perspective on health risks
C.The social construction of health behavior
D.A life course perspective on health behavior

Answer 42

D. How early life events and developments affect later health outcomes is central to a life course perspective. The description of behavioral interventions in the question calls attention to how substance use patterns develop in the different stages of life.

Question 43

A life course perspective on health behavior

Answer 43

How early life events and developments affect later health outcomes is central to a life course perspective.

Question 44

A psychosocial model

A macrosociological perspective

Social construction

Answer 44

A psychosocial model is based on the consideration of logical, psychological, and social factors in health outcomes. These different factors are not specified in the question.

A macrosociological perspective requires an analysis at the societal level, whereas the discussion in the question prompt draws attention to the health outcomes depending on individual life events.

social construction refers to how social realities are connected to contemporary social conditions and are subject to change along with social conditions. This is not relevant to the

Question 45

Social construction of health behavior

Answer 45

social construction of health behavior is concerned with the ways in which the social world shapes the assessment, treatment and collective understanding of various disease and health conditions.

Question 46

social constructionalism

Answer 46

Question 47

Which hypothetical finding would pose the greatest challenge to the theory that race/ethnicity is socially constructed?

A.During data collection for a large national survey, participants’ self-chosen racial/ethnic category often differed from the racial/ethnic designation made by in-person interviewers.
B.People who identified with one racial/ethnic group were found to have a significantly different genome than people who identified with another racial/ethnic group.
C.During data collection for an experiment on facial recognition, participants failed to consistently identify the racial/ethnic category of people from other parts of the world.
D.The medically evaluated health status of a representative sample of individuals from two different racial/ethnic groups was found to differ significantly between the groups.

Answer 47

During data collection for an experiment on facial recognition, participants failed to consistently identify the racial/ethnic category of people from other parts of the world.

Question 48

Answer 48

C cannot be concluded
we dont know statistical significance

Question 49

“In humans, brain imaging studies have shown that differences in neural activity among adults are associated with reported childhood adversities.”

Which imaging technique is best suited for localizing brain areas, as described in the studies of neural activity (paragraph 3)?

A.PET
B.EEG
C.MRI
D.CT

Answer 49

PET is best as it measured localized neural activity with uptake of radioactive labeled glucose

EEG is best for fas moving or attention

MRI is good for neuroanatomy but not activity

(fMRI Is best not MRI)

CT is good for neuroanatomy

Question 50

Which statement best applies conditioning principles to explain the progression from alcohol experimentation in adolescence to alcohol dependence in adulthood?

A.Early alcohol use begins with stimulus discrimination, while later use is maintained by stimulus generalization.
B.Early alcohol use is initiated by modeling, while later use is modified by shaping.
C.Early alcohol use begins with positive reinforcement, while later use is maintained by negative reinforcement.
D.Early alcohol use is an unconditioned response, while later use is a conditioned response.

Answer 50

C is correct bc positive reinforcement (adding) increases likelihood of something in the future. Negative (removal) reinforcement increases likelihood of something

alcohol consumption reducing the experience of negative emotions may serve as a negative reinforcer of adult alcohol dependence.
__________________
A is wrong bc stimulus discrimination (differentiating) and generalization (behavior in similar stimulus)

B is wrong bs modeling is the aquisit of behavior based on observing others in the behavior and shaping is when a complex behavior is learned via successive acquisition of simpler behaviors

D is wrongs the passage doesnt describe classical conditioning

Question 51

modeling and shaping

Answer 51

Modeling is the acquisition of behavior based on observing others engaging in the behavior, while shaping is when a complex behavior is learned via successive acquisition of simpler behaviors. This is not relevant to what is described by the passage.

Question 52

Based on the discussion of experimentation with alcohol, which description of social influence provides the most likely pattern of interaction for establishing alcohol use in adolescence?

A.Social facilitation by an in-group
B.Obedience to a secondary group
C.Deviance against an out-group
D.Conformity with a primary group

Answer 52

D.Conformity with a primary group

Question 53

Some theoretical models predict that exposure to prejudice and discrimination will contribute to elevated levels of alcohol consumption among some racial and ethnic minority groups. However, patterns of use generally fail to support this prediction. For example, African Americans and Hispanic Americans have lower rates of alcohol consumption and AUDs than white Americans.

____________
The lack of support for the predictive models of prejudice and discrimination (final paragraph) is best explained by which statement?

A.Additional risk factors, such as social capital, might confound the relationship between prejudice and sensitivity to stress.
B.Discrimination may be more significant than prejudice as a psychosocial stressor that contributes to alcohol use disorders.
C.Unmeasured protective factors, such as social support, might reduce the impact of discrimination on alcohol consumption.
D.Discrimination may be less significant than prejudice as a psychosocial stressor experienced by some minority groups.

Answer 53

C. Unmeasured protective factors, such as social support, might reduce the impact of discrimination on alcohol consumption.

Question 54

In an extension of the research, ten individuals were recruited for an information session on the energy-saving program. Six of the ten individuals were colleagues and unanimously agreed to the program. The remaining four individuals also agreed to the program. Which concept is best represented by this scenario?

A.Bystander effect
B.Social loafing
C.Groupthink
D.Assimilation

Answer 54

C. Groupthink occurs when members of a cohesive group emphasize agreement at the expense of critical thinking when arriving at a decision. This is most relevant to the described scenario.

Question 55

group think and group polarization

Answer 55

Groupthink is when individuals in a group refrain from performing actions/saying things that would threaten the stability of the group.

Group polarization is tendency of groups to make more extreme decisions

Question 56

primary and secondary group

Answer 56

Primary group is the close friendships or family members who know you best. The people you’re comfortable about acting as “yourself” around. Secondary group is the people in you major/class who you see often, but don’t know very well. This could also be people from work, lab, volunteering, etc. who you know but don’t “hang out” with.

Question 57

In a follow-up research study, a focus group of individuals who are not supportive of environmental protections is assembled to discuss the energy-saving program. As they discuss the program, the individuals become even more convinced that it is not a good program. This outcome is evidence of what concept?

A.Group polarization
B.Social facilitation
C.Peer pressure
D.Deindividuation

Answer 57

A.Group polarization

Question 58

Researchers interviewed an individual who participated in the energy-saving program. The participant mentioned that, as a child, her parents engaged in energy-saving practices such as turning off lights in rooms when not in use and insulating windows. As an adult, she does the same. This is most likely due to:

A.classical conditioning.
B.operant conditioning.
C.associative learning.
D.observational learning.

Answer 58

D - bservational learning is learning that occurs through watching and modeling others’ behavior. The participant’s energy-saving practices were learned through observing her parents engage in the same behavior.

______
classical - stimulus acquires capacity to evoke a response

operant - behaviors change in reinforcement or punishment

associative (INCLUDES operant and classical conditioning)

Question 59

Observational learning

Answer 59

D - Observational learning is learning that occurs through watching and modeling others’ behavior. The participant’s energy-saving practices were learned through observing her parents engage in the same behavior.

Question 60

operant and classical conditioning are both under what

Answer 60

associative learning

Question 62

Answer 62

A. Table 2 illustrates that, compared to older people, a smaller percentage of younger people attend religious services.

Question 63

Which statement is NOT consistent with a conflict theoretical analysis of the findings in the passage?

A.Religion is an instrument of social control.
B.Religion helps to legitimate inequality in society.
C.Religion encourages passive acceptance of material conditions.
D.Religion helps to increase social solidarity.

Answer 63

D.

This option represents a functionalist understanding of religion, with the reference to social solidarity.

Question 64

conflict theory

Answer 64

Conflict theory is the notion that society is in a state of perpetual conflict because people are in competition for limited resources

Question 65

Religion helps to increase social solidarity.

supports what idea:

conflict or functionalist

Answer 65

This option represents a functionalist understanding of religion, with the reference to social solidarity.

Question 66

functionalism and conflict theory

Answer 66

Functionalism emphasizes the importance of social institutions for social stability and implies that far-reaching social change will be socially harmful. Conflict theory emphasizes social inequality and suggests that far-reaching social change is needed to achieve a just society.

Question 67

In response to the findings of this study, a religious leader sets up a website to attract young people to his or her congregation. Which sociological application of the findings best describes the leader’s response?

A.By creating a webpage for the congregation, the religious leader has demonstrated the increased secularization of religion.
B.There are cohort differences that impact individual behavior, and by responding to those differences, the religious leader may be able to attract young people.
C.The religious leader has identified the importance of period effects, such as the use of technology, in everyday life.
D.Technology and religious institutions are both important to the functioning of society, and the religious leader is reinforcing this idea.

Answer 67

B. B.There are cohort differences that impact individual behavior, and by responding to those differences, the religious leader may be able to attract young people.

Question 68

A transient shortage of oxygen (global ischemia) releases excess glutamate into the extracellular fluid of the brain. This causes neuronal death by hyperexcitation to a greater extent in the hippocampus than in the cortex. Which reason best explains why the hippocampus is selectively vulnerable during global ischemia?

A.The magnitude of action potentials is greater in hippocampal than cortical neurons.
B.The expression of NMDA receptors is more abundant in hippocampal than cortical neurons.
C.Hippocampal neurons generate a more negative postsynaptic potential than cortical neurons.
D.Hippocampal synapses have faster neurotransmitter diffusion rates compared to cortical synapses.

Answer 68

B. NMDA receptors are glutamate-responsive ion channels that promote action potential formation upon activation. Consequently, increased expression of NMDA receptors in the hippocampus will increase the likelihood of action potential formation, increasing excitability

___
A is wrong as action potential mg would not vary much

C is wrong as a more neg postysynapic potential would make it harder for neurons to reach threshold (associated w reduced, not enhanced excitability)

D is diffusion of neurotransmitters across synapse (couples pre and postsynaptic neurons) and is not a major determinant of neuronal excitability – instead the concentration of NT and postsynaptic receptors receptors most strongly determine excitability

Question 69

When an individual moves from one social class to another over the course of his or her lifetime, this process is defined as:

A.intergenerational mobility.
B.intragenerational mobility.
C.structural mobility.
D.horizontal mobility.

Answer 69

B.intragenerational mobility.

Question 70

Urine from inbred strain (Strain A) male mice was swabbed every day for one week on the nostrils of female mice of inbred strain (Strain B). Compared to unswabbed, female Strain B mice, uterine weight, but not total body weight, increased in the swabbed mice. Strain A male urine had no effect on uterine weight or body weight of inbred, female Strain C mice. Which statement best explains these results?

A.Conserved evolution of pheromones preserves the ability of male mice to elicit pheromone-mediated behaviors in female mice.
B.The molecular profile of puberty-accelerating, chemosensory neurons differs between mouse strains.
C.Pheromone-mediated stimulation causes accelerated female reproductive development in Strain C mice compared to Strain B mice.
D.Genetic variation between Strain A male mice resulted in inconsistent pheromone concentration in the urine applied to the female groups of mice.

Answer 70

B. The molecular profile of puberty-accelerating, chemosensory neurons differs between mouse strains.

Exposure to Strain A male urine led to increased uterine weight of Strain B, but not Strain C, female mice. Exposure to urine is likely to activate chemosensory neurons, while increased uterine weight occurs during puberty. Therefore, it is likely that Strain B and Strain C mice exhibit molecular differences in puberty-accelerating chemosensory neurons.

Question 71

Pairs of research participants interacted for 10 min. They rated themselves and their partners on personality traits and then rated the accuracy of their partners’ ratings of them. The partners’ ratings were rated as more accurate if they were close to participants’ own self-ratings. This finding illustrates:

A.the self-fulfilling prophecy.
B.self-verification.
C.the self-serving bias.
D.self-efficacy.

Answer 71

B is right

_______–
A is wrong bc A self-fulfilling prophecy is a belief that leads to its own fulfillment, which is not relevant to the study finding.

C is wrong bc Self-serving bias involves making situational attributions for personally experienced negative outcomes and dispositional ones for positive outcomes, which is not relevant to the study finding.

D is wrong bc Self-efficacy is one’s belief about one’s ability to perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcomes, which is not relevant to the study finding.

Question 72

self fulfilling prophecy

Answer 72

A self-fulfilling prophecy is a belief that leads to its own fulfillment

Question 73

Self-verification

Answer 73

Self-verification refers to the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one’s self-concept

Question 74

Self-serving bias

Answer 74

Self-serving bias involves making situational attributions for personally experienced negative outcomes and dispositional ones for positive outcomes

Question 75

Self-efficacy

Answer 75

Self-efficacy is one’s belief about one’s ability to perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcome

Question 76

The researchers also assessed aspects of the household environment, analyzing parental personality traits, such as conscientiousness and neuroticism…”

The personality traits used in Study 2 are consistent with which perspective on personality?

A.The Five Factor Model
B.The psychodynamic approach
C.The Myers–Briggs inventory
D.The biopsychosocial model

Answer 76

A. Five factor model
(OCEAN: Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Openness to Experience.)

The passage states, “The researchers also assessed aspects of the household environment, analyzing parental personality traits, such as conscientiousness and neuroticism…” Both are traits identified by the Five Factor (otherwise known as Big 5) Model of personality

Question 77

psychodynamic approach to personality

Answer 77

The psychodynamic approach to personality does not focus on personality traits but rather on the sub- and unconscious influences on personality and behavior.

Question 78

five factor model

Answer 78

OCEAN:
Openness to Experience
Conscientiousness,

Extraversion,

Agreeableness,

Neuroticism ( neuroticism is sometimes described as low emotional stability or negative emotionality)

Question 79

Specifically, aggression and related oppositional behaviors, such as fighting or stealing, had the strongest association with the risk of hunger. The researchers hypothesized that these behaviors may be due to disruptions in homeostasis.

The regulation of which neurotransmitter is implicated in the specific finding reported with Study 1?

A.Acetylcholine
B.GABA
C.Endorphins
D.Serotonin

Answer 79

Serotonin is involved in the regulation of both mood (specifically, aggression) and appetite (it is also used to regulate intestinal movements).

although GABA is involved in mood, its more associated with anxiety and not aggression

endorphins – well being
acth - involved ind digestion but not closely involved in aggression

Question 80

what are consciousness and neuroticism associated with

Answer 80

Conscientiousness is associated with diligence, organization, and self-regulation. Neuroticism is associated with high rates of negative emotionality

This option provides the most likely hypothesis for the relationship between food insecurity and parental personality traits in Study 2. The researchers were most likely to hypothesize that low levels of conscientiousness and high levels of neuroticism would be associated with increased food insecurity.

Question 81

“The researchers hypothesized that these behaviors may be due to disruptions in homeostasis.”

In Study 1, which psychological theory best supports the hypothesized motivation that is suggested by the researchers?

A.Incentive theory
B.Drive theory
C.Expectancy–value theory
D.Self-determination theory

Answer 81

drive theory

A drive is a motivational state caused by psychological or physiological needs. Disruptions to homeostasis (a state of physiological equilibrium) cause drives.

Question 82

incentive theory vs drive theory

Answer 82

Incentive theories focus on the role that extrinsic motivators play in shaping behavior, which is not relevant to homeostasis.

A drive is a motivational state caused by psychological or physiological needs. Disruptions to homeostasis (a state of physiological equilibrium) cause drives.

Question 83

expectancy value theory and self determination

Answer 83

Expectancy-value theory focuses on how motivation varies depending on how a person evaluates their likelihood of success at an activity. It is not relevant to homeostasis.

Self-determination theory focuses on the innate need for psychological growth. It is not relevant to homeostasis.

Question 84

The passage refers to researcher-recommended interventions for parents who experience stress from trying to satisfy both their children’s needs and their own needs.

At the end of Study 2, the researchers’ recommendation suggests that parents in food-insecure households are subject to which role dynamic?

A.Role engulfment
B.Role confusion
C.Role conflict
D.Role strain

Answer 84

role strain

The passage refers to researcher-recommended interventions for parents who experience stress from trying to satisfy both their children’s needs and their own needs. By identifying tension stemming from the parental role, the recommendation suggests role strain, which refers to stress from different expectations associated with a single role. For parents with depression, the parental role can cause competing obligations of satisfying their children’s needs when they are coping with psychological distress and find themselves unable to meet their own needs.

Question 85

role engulfment
role confusion
role conflict
role strain

Answer 85

role engulfment - role engulfment indicates that a social role dominates the other roles an individual carries in their life.

role confusion - Role confusion refers to the indecision of an individual about which social role to assume.

role conflict - Role conflict refers to the stress an individual experiences due to the conflicting demands of different social roles

role strain - which refers to stress from different expectations associated with a single role

Question 86

The suggestion for future research in the passage proposes looking at unequal access to health care.

In order to address the suggestion for future research, which variable are the researchers most likely to include in future studies?

A.Gender
B.Non-natural causes of death
C.Age
D.Socioeconomic status

Answer 86

Socioeconomic status

The suggestion for future research in the passage proposes looking at unequal access to health care. Because access issues are widely related to socioeconomic status, it would be the most likely variable to include in future studies.

Question 87

more crashes in holiday time not weather

Which response represents a symbolic interactionist’s interpretation of the research findings in the passage?

A.The spike in holiday deaths is part of the natural cycle of increased deaths during the winter season.
B.The practices and rituals of the holiday celebrations are in some way correlated with the spike in holiday deaths.
C.Travel during the holiday season increases external environmental factors than can lead to an overall spike in cardiac deaths.
D.The spike in holiday cardiac deaths is related to macro-structural factors that are exacerbated during the holidays.

Answer 87

D. The spike in holiday cardiac deaths is related to macro-structural factors that are exacerbated during the holidays.

Studying the practices and rituals of the holiday celebrations would require a micro-level observation of those practices. Symbolic interactionism, which is interested in micro-level interactions among social actors, is more directly related to studying social practices and rituals.

Question 88

If the researchers wanted to study the impact of emotions on cardiac mortality during the holidays, which concept are they LEAST likely to address?

A.Learned helplessness
B.Locus of control
C.Fundamental attribution error
D.Self-efficacy

Answer 88

C.Fundamental attribution error

____
not these below bc might be true

Learned helplessness is a behavioral and psychological state that occurs due to exposure to uncontrollable aversive stimuli. As learned helplessness does have an impact on emotion, and holidays may be an example of an uncontrollable aversive stimulus for some, this is a concept the researchers may want to address.

Locus of control refers to whether individuals perceive outcomes as being within their control or primarily caused by external, uncontrollable factors. As locus of control does have an impact on emotion and coping with stress, this is a concept the researchers may want to address.

Self-efficacy is one’s belief about one’s ability to perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcomes. As self-efficacy does have an impact on emotion and coping with stress, this is a concept the researchers may want to address.

Question 89

When studying education as a social institution, the hidden curriculum constitutes:

A.a manifest function of schools.
B.an equalizing function of schools.
C.a latent function of schools.
D.a discriminatory function of schools.

Answer 89

C. latent

A latent function is an unintended positive outcome of a social practice. Hidden curriculum refers to the unintended positive consequences of learning experiences in educational institutions, such as learning how to behave in a formal setting and cooperation among peers. Therefore, the hidden curriculum is best described as a latent function of education.

____
Abwrong as manifest is the Manifest functions are the intended outcomes of social practices

B wrong as An equalizing function would refer to anti-discriminatory practices in social institutions.

D wrong as Discrimination is the unfair treatment of an individual due to their social background.

Question 90

In order to balance on one foot, many people need to have their eyes open. This is an example of:

A.motion parallax.
B.sensory interaction.
C.vestibular sense.
D.perceptual maladaptation.

Answer 90

B. Sensory interaction is the idea that one sensory modality (e.g., vision) may influence another (e.g., balance).

____
motion parallax - Motion parallax is a form of depth perception cue and is not relevant to balancing on one foot.

Vestibular sense is required for balance but does not explain why balancing is aided by keeping eyes open.

Perceptual maladaptation, which occurs when perceptual systems are not functioning optimally, cannot explain why sense of balance would be enhanced when someone has their eyes open.

Question 91

The phenomenon that occurs when people mistakenly read the letter “C” as the letter “O” illustrates which Gestalt principle of perceptual grouping?

A.Similarity
B.Closure
C.Proximity
D.Symmetry

Answer 91

C. Closure occurs when people perceive objects that are incomplete as complete. This is the described phenomenon.

________-
Similarity refers to the increased likelihood of objects with a similar appearance being perceived as a single unit.

Proximity refers to the increased likelihood of objects located close together being perceived as a single unit.

Symmetry refers to the increase likelihood of objects which are symmetrical to each other being perceived as a single unit. T