AAMC FL 2 chem/phys Flashcards

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1
Q

What expression gives the amount of light energy (in J per photon) that is converted to other forms between the fluorescence excitation and emission events?

A

Remember E = hf and f = c/wavelength

but we need to find the excited wavelength (excited - emitted) to find this

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2
Q

Find the concentration given 2 nM and 100 micro molar

A
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3
Q

how to find sp^2 carbons

How many in this one?

A

have total 3 things bonded

3 atoms attached OR
1 atoms attached + 2 lone pairs OR
2 atoms attached + 1 lone pair

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4
Q

what is this?

A

histidine

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5
Q

how to find sp^3 carbons

A

have total 4 things bonded

4 atoms attached OR
3 atoms attached + 1 lone pair
2 atoms attached + 2 lone pairs

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6
Q

How to determine hybridization

A
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7
Q

what is the Kcat?

A

The kcat of an enzyme is its “turnover number”–the limiting number of reactions each active site can catalyze per second, per unit concentration of enzyme.

moles of product per second/moles of enzyme

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8
Q

if reaction rates were obtained in saturated conditions then it means the reaction reached

A

if reaction rates were obtained in saturated conditions then it means the reaction reached…. Vmax

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9
Q

Absorption of ultraviolet light by organic molecules always results in what process?

A.Bond breaking
B.Excitation of bound electrons
C.Vibration of atoms in polar bonds
D.Ejection of bound electrons

A

B. Excitation of bound electrons

When ultraviolet light is absorbed by organic molecules, bound electrons (n, σ, and π) enter an excited state (σ* or π*) by certain rules of allowed excitation.

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10
Q

Four organic compounds: 2-butanone, n-pentane, propanoic acid, and n-butanol, present as a mixture, are separated by column chromatography using silica gel with benzene as the eluent. What is the expected order of elution of these four organic compounds from first to last?

A.n-Pentane → 2-butanone → n-butanol → propanoic acid
B.n-Pentane → n-butanol → 2-butanone → propanoic acid
C.Propanoic acid → n-butanol → 2-butanone → n-pentane
D.Propanoic acid → 2-butanone → n-butanol → n-pentane

A

A.
The least polar compound, capable on only London dispersion forces, will elute first because it has the weakest attraction to the polar stationary phase (n-pentane). (bc the polar vs non polar wont attract)

The second compound to elute will be a slightly polar compound that can accept but not donate hydrogen bonds (2-butanone). The third compound to elute will be a more polar compound that can both accept and donate hydrogen bonds via 1 OH group (n-butanol). The fourth compound to elute will be a compound that can both accept and donate hydrogen bonds via 1 OH group and accept hydrogen bonds to C=O (propanoic acid).

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11
Q

The half-life of a radioactive material is:

A.half the time it takes for all of the radioactive nuclei to decay into radioactive nuclei.
B.half the time it takes for all of the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei.
C.the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into radioactive nuclei.
D.the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei.

A

D.

“Half-life” is defined as the time it takes for half of a sample of radioactive material to decay. This means that after one half-life, half of the sample atoms’ nuclei will have decayed into their daughter nuclei, and half will remain in their original form, as stated in (D), which is correct.

The products of radioactive decay (daughter nuclei) may or may not be radioactive, making (C) incorrect.

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12
Q
A

As the person is attempting to stand, the only support comes from the feet on the ground. The person is in equilibrium only when the center of mass is directly above their feet. Otherwise, if the person did not lean forward or slide the feet under the chair, the person would fall backward due to the large torque created by the combination of the weight of the body (applied at the person’s center of mass) and the distance along the horizontal between the center of mass and the support point.

There is a distance between forces –> Torque problem

rotational equilibrium has torque balanced

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13
Q

tryptophan is what kind of amino acid

A

aromatic

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14
Q

Only aromatic amino acids contribute to the CD signal in the near UV region.

Which amino acid will contribute to the CD signal in the far UV region, but NOT the near UV region, when part of a fully folded protein?

A.Trp
B.Phe
C.Ala
D.Tyr

A

C

Only aromatic amino acids contribute to the CD signal in the near UV region. Alanine residues are NOT aromatic, but they contain peptide bonds, which absorb in the far UV region.

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15
Q

The near UV region where an aromatic ring. Far UV region where peptide bonds absorb electromagnetic radiation.

Based on the relative energy of the absorbed electromagnetic radiation, which absorber, a peptide bond or an aromatic side chain, exhibits an electronic excited state that is closer in energy to the ground state?

A. an aromatic side chain; the absorbed photon energy is higher.
B.An aromatic side chain; the absorbed photon energy is lower.
C.A peptide bond; the absorbed photon energy is higher.
D.A peptide bond; the absorbed photon energy is lower.

A

An aromatic side chain; the absorbed photon energy is lower.

**The excited state of the electrons in the aromatic ring will be closer to the ground state energy

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16
Q

A synthetic peptide with the amino acid sequence KTFCGPEYLA was generated as a mimic of the T-loop.

What is the net charge of sT-loop at pH 7.2?

A.–2
B.–1
C.0
D.+1

A

C

The sT-loop contains 1 positively charged side chain on K and 1 negatively charged side chain for E, making the net charge zero

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17
Q

In designing the experiment, the researchers used which type of 32P labeled ATP?

A.α32P-ATP
B.β32P-ATP
C.γ32P-ATP
D.δ32P-ATP

A

C.γ32P-ATP
proximal groups - alpha

terminal phosphate is transferred (gamma, y)

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18
Q

This experiment was repeated in the presence of a synthetic peptide that mimics the HM domain (sHM) of Ser/Thr kinases with the amino acid sequence FLGFTY. Phosphorylated sHM (spHM) was also used in place of sHM.

When used in place of spHM, which peptide would be most likely to achieve the same experimental results?

A.FLGFAY
B.FLGFQY
C.FLGFGY
D.FLGFEY

A

D.FLGFEY

second to last –> threonine

what reacts like a phosphorylated threonine (has a neg charge)

What amino acid has a neg charge?

E, glutamate
(answer D)

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19
Q

PDK1 phosphorylates specific Ser or Thr residues

Based on the information in the passage, PDK1 catalyzes the addition of phosphate to what functional group?

A. Hydroxyl
B.Amine
C.Carboxyl
D.Phenyl

A

PDK1 phosphorylates specific Ser or Thr residues, and the nucleophile accepting the phosphate in the side chains of both residues is –OH (hydroxyl).

A. Hydroxyl

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20
Q

Which statement about the cooperativity of RIα/C activation and RIα protein folding is supported by the data in figures 2 and 3?

A.Both activation and folding are cooperative.
B.Activation is cooperative, but folding is not.
C.Folding is cooperative, but activation is not.
D.Neither activation nor folding is cooperative

A

A.Both activation and folding are cooperative.

Because both curves have a sigmoidal shape, these are indicative of cooperative processes.

In the case of Figure 3, cooperativity means that partial folding (or unfolding) induces a higher likelihood of that process continuing. Because both graphs show cooperativity, (A) is correct.

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21
Q

From the data presented in Figure 3, which RIα variant is the most stable?

A.L203A
B.I204A
C.Y229A
D.R241A

A

A.

A higher melting temperature is indicative of a more stable protein, as more energy is needed to unfold the protein. L203A has an approximate Tm of 50°C; therefore, it is the most stable and even more stable than the WT protein.

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22
Q

Based on the data presented in figures 2 and 3, what is the most likely role of Y229 in protein stability and cAMP activation?

A.Y229 is important for protein stability but not critical for cAMP activation.
B.Y229 is important for cAMP activation but not critical for protein stability.
C.Y229 is important for protein stability and critical for cAMP activation.
D.Y229 is not important for protein stability and not critical for cAMP activation.

A

Based on the cAMP activation information given in the note in Figure 2, changing Y229 to A229 has no effect on kinetics. However, based on the data in Figure 3, Y229A is less stable than the WT protein, indicating that Y229 is essential for protein stability.

Y229A variant has a similar activation curve to the WT protein, indicating that Y229 is not critical for cAMP activation, since substituting alanine in at that position has no effect.

A. Y229 is important for protein stability but not critical for cAMP activation.

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23
Q
A

The oxygen pressure is the sum of the oxygen static pressure P and the oxygen flow pressure ½ ρv2. In the area of the mask openings, Pair = P + ½ ρv2, thus Pair > P. Air enters the mask because the static pressure of the air is larger than the static pressure of the oxygen that flows in the mask. This is the Venturi effect, and the mask is called the Venturi mask.

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24
Q

What causes duplex DNA with a certain (A + T):(G + C) ratio to melt at a higher temperature than comparable length duplex DNA with a greater (A + T):(G + C) ratio?

A.Stronger van der Waals forces of pyrimidines
B.Stronger van der Waals forces of purines
C.Increased π- stacking strength
D.Reduced electrostatic repulsion of phosphates

A

Solution: The correct answer is C.

G–C base pairs form three hydrogen bonds between them, whereas A–T base pairs form only two. This results in strands with a higher G–C/lower A–T composition having higher melting points than strands with lower G–C/higher A–T composition. Interestingly, it is not the hydrogen bonds themselves that confer the increased stability of G–C pairs, but the reduction of rotational strain from having an additional hydrogen bond that allows for additional π-stacking strength, which in turn creates higher thermal stability. (C) is therefore correct.

A. There is the same 50% pyrimidine percentage in AT as GC base pairs, so there is no binding advantage for pyrimidines between these base pairs.
B. There is the same 50% purine percentage in AT as GC base pairs, so there is no binding advantage from purines between these base pairs.
C. Duplex DNA with a lower (A + T):(G + C) ratio melts at a higher temperature than comparable length duplex DNA with a greater (A + T):(G + C) ratio because GC base pairs create stronger pi-stacking interactions in the duplex than AT base pairs.
D. Both AT and GC base pairs have the same number of phosphate groups.

25
Q

Which property of a substance is best used to estimate its relative vapor pressure?

A.Melting point
B.Boiling point
C.Molecular weight
D.Dipole moment

A

B

Solution: The correct answer is B.

A. Melting point occurs when a solid transforms into a liquid, not when a liquid becomes a gas.

B. The kinetic-molecular theory of gases indicates that there is an inverse correlation between vapor pressure and boiling point. For two liquids with different boiling points, the one with the lower boiling point will have the higher vapor pressure at the same temperature.

C. Molecules with identical molecular weights can have vastly different vapor pressures due to differences in intermolecular forces.

D. Although molecules with lower dipole moment tend to have higher vapor pressures than those of comparable molecular weight with higher dipole moment, the molecular weight also matters. Even for zero dipole molecules, larger molecular weight can cause enough London dispersion forces to lower vapor pressure more than the dipole moment of a smaller molecule.

26
Q

What are the structural features possessed by storage lipids?

A.Two fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol plus a charged head group
B.Three fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol
C.Two fatty acids ester-linked to a single sphingosine plus a charged head group
D.Three fatty acids ester-linked to a single sphingosine

A

These are triglycerides!

Storage lipids are neutral fat, defined as a triacylglycerol or three fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol.

27
Q

In the overall electrochemical reaction:

A.nitrogen is oxidized at the anode, and hydrogen is reduced at the cathode.
B.nitrogen is reduced at the cathode, and hydrogen is oxidized at the anode.
C.nitrogen is reduced at the anode, and hydrogen is oxidized at the cathode.
D.nitrogen is oxidized at the cathode, and hydrogen is reduced at the anode.

A

In Half-Reaction 2, elemental hydrogen, in which hydrogen has an oxidation number of 0, loses electrons and is oxidized to form hydrogen cations (protons), which have an oxidation number of +1. In Half-Reaction 3, elemental nitrogen, in which nitrogen has an oxidation number of 0, gains electrons, and is reduced to form ammonia, in which nitrogen’s oxidation number is –3. Thus, the overall electrochemical reaction involves the reduction of nitrogen and the oxidation of hydrogen. Since reduction always occurs at the cathode and oxidation always occurs at the anode, (B) is the correct answer.

RedCat - reduction at cathode

oxidation at anode

28
Q

in industrial use, ammonia is continuously removed from the reaction mixture. This serves to drive Reaction because of:

A.Boyle’s law.
B.Charles’s law.
C.Heisenberg’s principle.
D.Le Châtelier’s principle.

A

D.

According to Le Chatelier’s principle, removing a product in an equilibrium reaction will cause the system to restore equilibrium. If ammonia is removed continuously, the system will increase ammonia production to restore equilibrium.

29
Q

The lone pair of electrons in ammonia allows the molecule to:

A.assume a planar structure.
B.act as an oxidizing agent.
C.act as a Lewis acid in water.
D.act as a Lewis base in water.

A

D

A Lewis base is a chemical species that donates a pair of electrons, which ammonia does to form a covalent bond with a hydrogen atom.

30
Q

What is the role of the solid-state catalyst in the Haber process?

A.It increases the amount of ammonia produced per unit time.
B.It increases the total amount of ammonia produced.
C.It decreases the amount of ammonia that decomposes per unit time.
D.It decreases the total amount of ammonia produced.

A

A.It increases the amount of ammonia produced per unit time.

According to paragraph 1, the Haber process is an industrial method of producing ammonia. Catalysts are not consumed by a reaction, and work by lowering activation energy without changing a reaction’s overall equilibrium. This means that catalysts increase reaction rate, which in this case implies increasing the amount of ammonia produced per unit time. Hence, (A) is correct.

31
Q

It is possible to design a reactor where the SCY conductor and the nitrogen/ammonia electrode operate at different temperatures. Which combination of temperatures is expected to give the best results?

A.SCY temperature higher than electrode temperature
B.SCY temperature lower than electrode temperature
C.SCY temperature the same as electrode temperature
D.The temperature of the components does not make a difference.

A

A

According to paragraph 4, the proton conductivities of SCY conductors “increase substantially with temperature.” In other words, more protons per second can be transported through the SCY electrolyte at higher temperatures, leading to greater reaction rates. On the other hand, paragraph 5 implies that at the nitrogen/ammonia electrode, “operating temperatures are limited” because decomposition of ammonia “increases dramatically” above 300°C. If the SCY conductor and the nitrogen/ammonia electrode can be maintained at different temperatures, therefore, the SCY conductor should be kept at a higher temperature (increasing proton conductivity and reaction rate), and the nitrogen/ammonia electrode at a lower temperature (reducing favorability of the reverse reaction and improving yield), thereby resulting in increased ammonia production. (A) is correct.

32
Q

According to paragraph 3, the formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ through the mechanism in Equation 1 has the equilibrium constant of Kf = 5.6 × 1011.

At 25°C, the formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ according to Equation 1 is most likely a:

A.spontaneous process with positive ΔG°.
B.spontaneous process with negative ΔG°.
C.nonspontaneous process with positive ΔG°.
D.nonspontaneous process with negative ΔG°.

A

Since Kf ≫ 1, ΔG° for the formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is negative and the reaction is spontaneous at 25°C. (B) is correct.

Kf>1
delta G neg
spontaneous

33
Q

In the stepwise formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ from [Cu(H2O)4]2+, which of the following ions would form in the second step?

A.[Cu(H2O)2(NH3)2]2+
B.[Cu(H2O)2(NH3)3]2+
C.[Cu(H2O)3(NH3)]2+
D.[Cu(H2O)3(NH3)2]2+

A

it goes from 4–> 3 –> 2 waters after the second step

34
Q

ionic bond vs covalent

A

An ionic bond results from electrons being transferred completely from one atom to another, resulting in positively and negatively charged ions held together by electrostatic attractions. In the [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ complex, a pair of electrons are shared between the nitrogen atom and the copper ion.

In a covalent bond, both atoms contribute electrons to be shared between the nuclei of the two atoms. In a coordinate covalent bond, both electrons are contributed by one donor atom while the other atom acts as an acceptor to receive the electron pair.

35
Q

coordinate ionic and coordinate covalent bonds

A

A coordinate ionic bond is not a valid type of bond in chemistry.

The formation of a coordinate covalent bond between the ammonia molecule and the copper cation result from the ammonia molecule donating both electrons to the metal ion.

36
Q

Which of the following best describes the bonds between Cu2+ and the nitrogen atoms of the ammonia molecules in [Cu(NH3)4]2+?

A.Ionic
B.Covalent
C.Coordinate ionic
D.Coordinate covalent

A

Complex ions typically consist of a central metal ion surrounded by a number of other molecules or ions, termed “ligands,” which share lone pairs with the central ion, forming covalent bonds. Because both of the shared electrons in each of these bonds come from only one of the two atoms involved, they are called “coordinate covalent” bonds. In [Cu(NH3)4]2+, the nitrogen atoms of the ammonia molecules act as donors, because they each have a lone pair of electrons they can share with the Cu2+ ion, forming coordinate covalent bonds. Hence, (D) is correct.

describing the bonds simply as “covalent” would suggest that one of the electrons in each bond is donated by each species, which isn’t true.

37
Q
A

If hydrochloric acid is added to the reaction, ammonia will be protonated and converted to ammonium, thus decreasing the ammonia concentration. This will cause the equilibrium to shift to the left to accommodate the disruption and make less [Cu(NH3)4] 2+, not more.

The equilibrium of Equation 1 would shift to the left, because a reduction in concentration of one of the reactants would reduce the rate of the forward reaction while leaving the rate of the reverse reaction unaffected. This, in turn, would cause the equilibrium concentration of the product, [Cu(H2O)2(NH3)2]2+, to decrease.

According to Le Chȃtelier’s principle, this disruption to the equilibrium causes the reaction to shift in response to produce more ammonia. The shift will cause the equilibrium to shift to the left, decreasing the amount of [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ formed.

38
Q

In [Cu(NH3)4]2+, the subscript 4 indicates which of the following?

A.The oxidation number of Cu only
B.The coordination number of Cu2+ only
C.Both the oxidation number of Cu and the coordination number of Cu2+
D.Neither the oxidation number of Cu nor the coordination number of Cu2+

A

B is correct

oxidation # - oxidation number of Cu, not the number of ligands bound to the copper.

coordination # - The subscript 4 indicates the number of neutral ammonia ligands directly bonded to the central Cu2+ cation.

The subscript 4 does not represent both oxidation and coordination numbers of the copper ion.

The oxidation number is determined by the overall charge of the complex, which is +2 in this case,

.

39
Q

Why does NH3 displace H2O in the formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+?

NH3 contains more lone pairs of electrons than H2O.
NH3 is a stronger Lewis base than H2O.
NH3 donates a lone pair of electrons more readily than does H2O.
A.I and II only
B.I and III only
C.II and III only
D.I, II, and III

A

C

. It is well-known that ammonia is a stronger base than water. The electronegativity of nitrogen is lower than that of oxygen, making its lone pair of electrons more available for donation. The fact that the reaction spontaneously proceeds in the forward direction also indicates that NH3 is a stronger Lewis base than H2O and is more readily able to donate a pair of electrons to the Cu2+ ion. So, in the formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+, NH3 displaces H2O because NH3 is a stronger Lewis base than H2O and donates a lone pair of electrons more readily.

Statements II and III, therefore, are correct. Statement I, on the other hand, is untrue, as the oxygen in water has two lone pairs, whereas the nitrogen in ammonia only has one. Hence, (C) is the correct answer.

40
Q

Which of the following atoms will be expected to have the smallest second ionization energy?

A.Na
B.C
C.O
D.Ca

A

D. Ca

ionization energy increases up the table in the columns and across in the rows

Second ionization energy is the energy required to remove a second electron from an atom after the first one has already been removed. In general, it takes less energy to remove valence electrons than other electrons, because valence electrons are by definition in the atom’s outermost shell, and they are shielded from the nucleus by inner electrons. Thus, the second ionization energies of alkaline earth metals such as calcium are relatively low, and the loss of two electrons results in a stable, noble-gas-like electron configuration

Calcium, Ca, has an electron configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2. Losing two electrons from calcium will require the lowest amount of energy because the ion’s resulting electron configuration is a stable noble gas configuration (1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6) with a full octet.

41
Q

Which of the following species has the largest mass percent of oxygen?

A.H2O
B.CaCO3
C.CO2
D.HCO3–

A

percent mass formula = mass of element per mole / molar mass of compound

42
Q

What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.2 M in HCO3– and 2 M in H2CO3? (Note: The first pKa of carbonic acid is 6.37.)

A.4.37
B.5.37
C.6.37
D.7.37

A

weak acid and conjugate base is a buffer

first pka - removing first proton from acid with many protons

To find the pH of a solution, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation: pH = pKa + log([base] /[acid] ).

The pH = 6.37 + log(0.2/2) = 5.37

log(0.2/2) = log(0.1)
now what 10^x is equal to 0.1?
-1 is bc 10^-1 = 0.1

so its not 6.37 -1 = 5.37

43
Q

What is the concentration of Ca2+(aq) in a saturated solution of CaCO3? (Note: The solubility product constant Ksp for CaCO3 is 4.9 × 10–9.)

A

The dissolution of CaCO3 is CaCO3(s) ⇌ Ca2+(aq) + CO32–(aq) and the solubility product constant expression is Ksp = [Ca2+] [CO32–] .

solution combines ions
kip = [Ca2+] [CO32–]
let x equal each since they combine 1:1

Equal amounts of Ca2+ and CO32– are produced when CaCO3 dissolves in solution, so the expression reduces to x^2 = 4.9 × 10–9, which is equal to 49 × 10–10. Taking the square root, x = 7.0 × 10–5 M.

try converting 4.9 *10-9 to 49 * 10^-10 since this is easier to work with

44
Q

when acid and conjugate base concentrations are equal, pH =.

A

when acid and conjugate base concentrations are equal, pH =pka

45
Q

n inflatable cuff was used to temporarily stop blood flow in an upper arm artery. While releasing the pressure to deflate the cuff, a stethoscope was used to listen to blood flow in the forearm. The blood pressure reading was 130/85. Given this information, which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true?

A.85 mmHg was the diastolic pressure.
B.Blood flow was heard when the pressure of the cuff was greater than 130 mmHg.
C.130 mmHg was the systolic pressure.
D.Blood flow was heard when the pressure of the cuff was 90 mmHg.

A

.The cuff was inflated until the pressure it created was greater than the maximum blood pressure in the upper arm artery, thereby “temporarily stop[ping] the blood flow.” At this point, no blood flow could be heard in the forearm. It could not be heard again until the cuff was deflated to the point where systolic blood pressure overcame the pressure from the cuff, which, according to the question, was at 130 mmHg. Since no blood flow could be heard when the cuff’s pressure was greater than the systolic pressure of 130 mmHg, the statement in (B) “is LEAST likely to be true,” and it is the correct choice.

5 mmHg was in fact the diastolic pressure (the lower of the two blood pressure values), 130 mmHg was in fact the systolic pressure

46
Q

Which statement correctly describes the structure of the DNA double helix?

A.Nitrogenous bases pair with other bases in the same purine or pyrimidine groups.
B.The two DNA strands of the double helix are oriented in the same direction.
C.The amount of guanine will equal the amount of cytosine in a DNA sequence.
D.Sugar-phosphate backbones form the interior of the double helix.

A

C. The amount of guanine will equal the amount of cytosine in a DNA sequence.

Because one guanine must match with one cytosine in DNA base pairing, there will be equal amounts of each.

47
Q
A

pos ion C is attracted to the opposite NEG ion (right and bottom)

its repulsed by the other POS ion (left)

since ion C is equidistant from ions A and B, and all three ions carry the same magnitude charge, the upward component of the repulsive force and the downward component of the attractive force exactly counteract each other,

48
Q

A glass rod is rubbed with a silk scarf producing a charge of +3.2 × 10–9 C on the rod. (Recall that the magnitude of the proton and electron charges is 1.6 × 10–19 C.) The glass rod has:

A.5.1 × 1011 protons added to it.
B.5.1 × 1011 electrons removed from it.
C.2.0 × 1010 protons added to it.
D.2.0 × 1010 electrons removed from it.

A

Protons cannot be added or removed by rubbing two objects together

–> electrons change

49
Q

Which single bond present in nitroglycerin is most likely the shortest?

A.C–H
B.C–O
C.C–C
D.O–N

A

The bond lengths of single bonds can be predicted by the atomic radii of the bonded atoms.

The smaller the atomic radii, the closer the nuclei can be, hence, the shorter the bond length.

Of the three atoms bonded to carbon in the answer choices, hydrogen is by far the smallest due to only having a single electron subshell, eliminating answers (B)

from the table C-H is the largest bond energy and the shortest bond length

50
Q
A

delt H uses table information

  1. remember 2 moles product means we need to now check if eq is balanced
  2. now sum of enthalpy products - reactants
    and use the number of atoms of each as the coefficient
  3. solve
51
Q

At STP, the volume of N2(g) produced by the complete decomposition of 1 mole of nitroglycerin would be closest to which of the following?

A

use the balance equation

According to reaction 1, the decomposition of four moles of nitroglycerin generates six moles of N2. Therefore, dividing the coefficients by four gives the decomposition of one mole of nitroglycerin, resulting in 6/4 = 1.5 moles of N2. At STP (0 °C, 1 atm), the volume of an ideal gas will be 22.4 L/mol. This gives the calculation:

52
Q

Which single bond present in nitroglycerin is the LEAST polar?

A.C–H
B.C–O
C.C–C
D.O–N

A

C

The C–C bond is considered the least polar as there is no difference in electronegativity between the identical atoms.

53
Q

What is the average power consumed by a 64-year-old woman during the ascent of the 15-cm-high steps, if her mass is 54 kg?

A.10 W
B.20 W
C.40 W
D.90 W

A

Use the figures!!

The power consumed is P = ΔPE /time = mgh/Δt.

From Table 1, there are 30 steps and Δt = 27 s.

Then P = (54 kg × 10 m/s2 × 30 steps × 0.15 m/step) / (27 s) = 90 W.

54
Q

How much work did an 83-year-old female do while stretching the rubber band to the limit of her strength?

A
55
Q

What is the ratio of the minimum sound intensities heard by a 64-year-old male and a 74-year-old female?

male - 20 dB
female - 40 dB

A

The relative intensities of the two sound waves are 20 dB and 40 dB, respectively. Their difference is 20 dB, meaning that the decimal log of the ratio of their intensities is 2, which means that the ratio of their intensities is 102 = 100.

56
Q

What kind of image is formed by the lenses of the glasses worn by a 68-year-old male who sees an object 2 m away?

A.Real and enlarged
B.Real and reduced
C.Virtual and enlarged
D.Virtual and reduced

A

neg focal length (table)
means this is diverging
SUV
small, upright, virtual

objects appear smaller

(all upright - virtual)
(all inverted - real)

57
Q

Which of the following energy conversions best describes what takes place in a battery-powered resistive circuit when the current is flowing?

A.Electric to thermal to chemical
B.Chemical to thermal to electric
C.Electric to chemical to thermal
D.Chemical to electric to therma

A

D.Chemical to electric to thermal

The chemical energy of the battery elements is used as electrical energy to set the charge carriers in motion through the resistor, where they experience drag from the crystal lattice of the resistive conductor and dissipate their energy as heat from the resistor.

58
Q

Protein secondary structure is characterized by the pattern of hydrogen bonds between:

A.backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens.
B.backbone amide protons and side chain carbonyl oxygens.
C.side chain hydroxyl groups and backbone carbonyl oxygens.
D.side chain amide protons and backbone carbonyl oxygens.

A

A. Secondary structure includes turns, helices, and beta sheets, all of which are established by hydrogen bonds between backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens.

B. These interactions may exist for tertiary structure, but they are not characteristic of secondary structure.

C.Although side chain hydroxyl groups can hydrogen bond to backbone carbonyl oxygens, this is not characteristic of secondary structure.

D.Side chain amide protons and backbone carbonyl oxygens may hydrogen bond in tertiary structure, but this is not characteristic of secondary structure.

59
Q

A 60-Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 20-Ω resistor. What is the equivalent resistance of the combination?

A.80 Ω
B.40 Ω
C.15 Ω
D.3 Ω

A

several resistors in parallel always have a smaller effective resistance than would any of the individual resistors on their own.