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OCHT Term I > A&P - Skeletal System > Flashcards

A&P - Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

Which bones are associated with appendicular skeleton?

A

upper extremities + shoulder girdle

lower extremities + pelvic girdle

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2
Q

Which bones are associated with axial skeleton?

A

skull, thorax, vertebral column, hyoid bone

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3
Q

number of bones in axial skeleton

A

80 (74 forming upright axis + 6 tiny middle ear bones)

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4
Q

number of bones in appendicular skeleton

A

126

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5
Q

Clavicle, is this part of appendicular or axial skeleton

A

appendicular

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6
Q

Hip bone, is this part of appendicular or axial skeleton

A

appendicular

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7
Q

sacrum, is this part of appendicular or axial skeleton

A

axial

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8
Q

Sphenoid, is this part of appendicular or axial skeleton

A

axial

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9
Q

Ethmoid, is this part of appendicular or axial skeleton

A

axial

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10
Q

If cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of what?

A

A chance of infectious material to pass through nasal cavity into the cranial fossa; also fractured nasal bone can push through cribriform plate and tear coverings of the brain or into the brain itself

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11
Q

What is a fontanel and its function.

A
  • Soft spots in skull where ossification is incomplete at birth (which allows for some compression of skull during birth)
  • allows for rapid brain growth during infancy without increased intracranial pressure
  • 6 sit at angles to the parietal bone
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12
Q

What is the name we give to the upper part of the sternum?

A

manubrium

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13
Q

The skeletal framework of the neck, consists of which vertebrae?

A

cervical (C1-C7)

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14
Q

Number of thoracic vertebrae

A

12

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15
Q

All vertebrae except sacrum & coccyx have a central opening called what?

A

vertebral foramen

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16
Q

What is the layman’s name for clavicle?

A

Collarbone

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17
Q

Our human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of an animal because of which freely moving joint?

A

Thumb metacarpal (CMC joint - articulation between thumb metacarpal and trapezium carpal bone)

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18
Q

Which bones does the humerus articulate with?

A

Proximally: scapula (in glenoid cavity)
Distally: radius and ulna

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19
Q

The metacarpal bones form the framework of what?

A

the hand

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20
Q

Where would I find pisiform bone?

A

the wrist/upper part of hand (carpal bones) – closest to the little finger

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21
Q

During childbirth, baby passes through imaginary plane called what?

A

pelvic outlet

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22
Q

What is the longest and heaviest bone in the body?

A

femur

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23
Q

A person with a fractured patella would feel discomfort where?

A

knee

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24
Q

Lordosis is….

A

abnormal accentuation of the lumbar curve

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25
Q

Scoliosis is….

A

abnormal side to side curvature

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26
Q

Kyphosis is….

A

abnormal increase in roundness in thoracic curvature

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27
Q

What are the clinical signs of a fracture?

A
  • Limited ROM/function
  • deformity/instability
  • pain
  • swelling
  • bruising
  • crepitus/abnormal sounds
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28
Q

What is the sequence of vertebral column from superior to inferior?

A 
Cervical (7)
Thoracic (12)
Lumbar (5)
Sacrum
Coccyx
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29
Q

Going from proximal to distal, identify the bones of the upper extremity.

A

Scapula/clavicle, humerus, radius/ulna, carpal bones, metacarpal bones, phalanges

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30
Q

The total # bones in the body

A

206

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31
Q

Which bone in the human body does not articulate with any other bone?

A

hyoid bone

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32
Q

How many pairs of true ribs do we have?

A

7

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33
Q

Which of the following is associated with the vertebral column?

a) vertebral foramen
b) dens
c) a spinal process
d) all of the above

A

all of the above

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34
Q

What is the name we give to the lower tip of the sternum?

A

xiphoid process

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35
Q

With which structure do floating ribs articulate?

A

vertebral column (thoracic vertebrae)

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36
Q

Which bone marking can be defined as a depression in a bone, and often receives an articulating bone?

A

fossa

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37
Q

Which bone marking can be defined as a large bump for the attachment of muscles?

A

epicondyle

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38
Q

Which bone marking can be defined as a round hole through which vessels and nerves can pass?

A

foramen

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39
Q

A fracture in the shaft of a bone is a break in what part?

A

diaphysis

40
Q

The cells responsible for active bone erosion

A

osteoclasts

41
Q

The cells responsible for bone formation

A

osteoblasts

42
Q

What the functions of the skeletal system (5)?

A

1) Support - supporting framework of the body and contributes to shape, alignment and positioning of body parts
2) Protection - protecting delicate structures
3) Movement - bones + joints = levers (allows movement during muscle contractions)
4) Mineral storage - major calcium reservoir (also phosphorus and others)
5) Hematopoiesis - blood cell formation (in epiphyses of some long bones, sternum, ribs, flat bones of skulls, and pelvis)

43
Q

Hematopoiesis: where does this process take place

A

red bone marrow

44
Q

What is the major purpose of the epiphyseal plate?

A

Allows diaphysis of long bones to increase in length

45
Q

What is the first step in healing a fracture?

A

hematoma formation (blood clot)

46
Q

At approximately what age range will bone loss begin to exceed bone gain?

A

35-40

47
Q

Mature stage of the human skeleton is reached at age ______. Skeleton is in a state of active maintenance during ages ______.

A

25; 25-50

48
Q

What is the most abundant type of cartilage?

A

hyaline cartilage

49
Q

In young children, a vitamin A deficiency will have what effect on epiphyseal plate?

A

Decrease in thickening of the epiphyseal plate in growing long bones in children - which inhibits bone growth

50
Q

Sesamoid bones are classified as what? Long, short, flat, etc.?

A

small, round, sesame seed-like

51
Q

What is another term for cancellous bone?

A

spongy bone/trabecular bone

52
Q

Humerus, vertebral bone, and scapula. Describe each bone, what type (long, short, flat, etc.)

A

Humerus - long

Vertebral bone - irregular

Scapula - flat

53
Q

Which type of bone is usually found in a tendon?

A

sesamoid

54
Q

Endosteum can be found

a. lining the epiphysis
b. at articular surfaces
c. covering bones
d. lining the medullary cavity

A

d. lining the medullary cavity

55
Q

In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the

a. osteoclasts
b. osteocytes
c. osteoblasts
d. chondrocytes

A

Osteoblasts

56
Q

The osteon, or Haversian, system:

a. delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from bone cells
b. resists stress
c. erodes one
d. produces yellow marrow

A

a: delivers nutrients to and removes waste products form bone cells

57
Q

All of the following are functions of bones except:

a. providing a set point for the control of blood pressure
b. storage of inorganic salts
c. production of red and white blood cells
d. protection for specific internal organs

A

a. providing a set point for the control of blood pressure

58
Q

The zygomatic bone is an example of a(n):

a. irregular bone
b. long bone
c. short bone
d. flat bone

A

a - irregular bone

59
Q

At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified:

a. 15 years
b. 25 years
c. birth
d. 5 years

A

25

60
Q

The hard palate (roof of mouth) is composed of the:

a. maxillary and palatine bones
b. nasal conchae and vomer bones
c. zygomatic and lacrimal bones
d. sphenoid and ethmoid bones

A

a - maxillary and palatine bones

61
Q

T he primary curves of the vertebral column are the:

a. lumbar and sacral curvatures
b. thoracic and sacral curvatures
c. cervical and lumbar curvatures
d. cervical and thoracic curvatures

A

b - thoracic and sacral

62
Q

Describe long bones.

A

Cylindrical, longer than they are wide and larger ends

63
Q

Describe short bones.

A

cube-/box-like that are as broad as they are long

64
Q

Describe flat bones

A

Broad and thin with flattened & curved surface

65
Q

Describe irregular bones

A

various shapes and sizes

66
Q

Compact bone vs cancellous bone.

A

Compact: dense and solid appearance

Cancellous: open space with network of thin branched crossbeams (trabeculae)

67
Q

Epiphyses are filled with what type of bone?

A

spongy bone

68
Q

Where is the metaphysis?

A

The region between epiphyses and diaphysis (in mature bone) OR

at the epiphyseal plate (in growing bones)

69
Q

Periosteum vs endosteum in terms of which parts of bone they cover.

A

periosteum - bone surfaces

endosteum - medullary cavity of long bones/spaces of spongy bone

70
Q

The inner portion of a flat bone, made of cancellous bone, and is sandwiched between compact bone (internal and external table) is called what?

A

diploe

71
Q

The primary regulator of calcium homeostasis is what? How does it maintain homeostasis?

A

parathyroid hormone

function: if decreased calcium levels, osteoclasts are stimulated to initiate increased bone matrix brekadown for more calcium is released back into the blood (and vice versa for elevated calcium levels)

72
Q

Osteogenesis is what?

A

The combined action of osteoblasts and osteoclasts sculpting bone into their adult shape

73
Q

Identify the number of cranial bones and which bones.

A

8 cranial bones

  • frontal bone
  • parietal bone (2)
  • temporal bone (2)
  • occiptal bone
  • sphenoid bone
  • ethmoid bone
74
Q

Identify the number of facial bones and which bones.

A

14 facial bones

  • zygomatic (2)
  • nasal (2)
  • maxillary (2)
  • mandible
  • vomer
  • lacrimal (2)
  • palatine (2)
  • inferior nasal conchae (2)
75
Q

Identify the number of ear bones and which bones.

A

6 ear bones

  • malleus (hammer): 2
  • Incus (anvil): 2
  • stapes (stirrup): 2
76
Q

How many bones in upper and lower extremities

A

upper - 64

lower - 62

77
Q

What is the bone marking that described by having a rounded bump and usually fits into a fossa on another bone to form a joint?

A

condyle

78
Q

Meatus: what kind of bone marking is this?

A

Tubelike opening or channel

79
Q

Notch: what kind of bone marking is this?

A

v-like depression in margin or edge of a flat area

80
Q

The cranial bone that forms the lower sides of the cranium and part of the cranial floor, as well as contains middle and inner ear structures

A

temporal bone

81
Q

The cranial bone that forms most of the roof of the orbits and anterior part of cranial floor

A

frontal bone

82
Q

The cranial bone that forms the posterior part of the cranial floor and walls

A

occipital

83
Q

Which cranial bone is the keystone of the cranial floor and looks like a bat with outstretched wings?

A

sphenoid

84
Q

What does the vomer bone form in the cranium?

A

inferior and posterior parts of the nasal septum

85
Q

The strongest bone on the face is which bone?

A

Mandible

86
Q

The keystone in the architecture of the face is which bone?

A

maxilla

87
Q

Causes of lordosis

A
  • poor posture
  • pregnancies
  • trauma/disease
88
Q

Kyphosis is commonly seen in which conditions?

A
  • osteoporosis
  • chronic arthritis
  • neuromuscular diseases
  • compression fractures
89
Q

True or False: Cartilage is avascular

A

True

90
Q

What are the three types of cartilage present in the body?

A

Hyaline (most abundant)
Fibrocartilage - stiff & contains many collagen fibers
Elastic cartilage

91
Q

What is the composition of hyaline cartilage’s organic matrix?

A

ground substance & unique gel polysaccharide (both secreted by chondrocytes)

92
Q

Costal cartilage, and cartilage rings in trachea, lung bronchi, and the tip of the nose are composed of what type of cartilage?

A

hyaline cartilage

93
Q

Epiglottis, external ear, and Eustachian tubes are composed of what type of cartilage?

A

elastic cartilage

94
Q

Cartilage that exists at the pubis symphysis and interveterbral disks are what type of cartilage?

A

fibrocartliage

95
Q

What are the two ways of cartilage growth/

A

Interstitial growth - growining of cartilage within cartilage tissue (most offten seen in childhood/early adolescence)

Appositional growth - growing of cartilage by new matrix being depositied on the surface of already existing cartilage

96
Q

Bone stores around _____% of body’s calcium reserves.

A

98

OCHT Term I (14 decks)

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