A&P Lecture Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Mylo

A

molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Genio

A

chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cleido

A

clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Masseter

A

mastification (chewing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tono(s)

A

tension; something stretched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Function of sinus?

A

-warm and humidify air, secrete mucus, and traps impurities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the “downside of sinus structure”

A

-there is no “perfect structure”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is referred pain?

A

pain that is felt in one part of the body, but source of the pain is somewhere else (Dr. Lees tooth ake)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Know order of Vertebrae

A

7 Cervical
12 Thoracic vertebrae (12 ribs is not a coincidence)
5 Lumbar
5 Sacral
4 Cautol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

-four pairs of sinuses (maybe pictures on test)

A
  1. frontal
  2. Ethmoidal
  3. Sphenoidal
  4. Maxillary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Types of bones?

A
  1. long (femur, or thighbone)
  2. Short (carpal, or wrist bone)
  3. Flat (occipital bone from base of skull)
  4. Irregular (sphenoid bone from skull)
  5. Sesamoid bone (imbedded within tendon or ligament (patella)), small and round
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens to arrector pilli when they get scared or cold?

A

-uncontrollable skeletal muscle contraction (shivering)

(Arrector pill (smooth muscle) will contract when we get scared or cold and hair will stand up (involuntary))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Arteries that are exposed and not deep?
(Veins are thinner and superficial)

A
  1. Carotid
  2. Jugular
  3. Femoral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Proprioception

A

Our ability to determine our body’s position, direction, and acceleration in space.
Semicircular rings, vestibulocochlear nerve, tiny hairs within the ear also play a role

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does Keratin do to the skin?

A

Keratin protects epithelial cells from damage or stress (hair, scales, nails, feathers, horns, claws, hooves, and the outer layer of skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What layers in the epithelial are dead?

A

Top two layers are alive (corneum, lucidum)

Stratum Granulosum is alive at the beginning but dying. (MORIBUND)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many days does it take for cells to go from Stratum basale to Stratum corneum

A

45 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Desmosomes

A

“Spot welds” that hold cells together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Thick skin on your Epidermis is called what?

Found where?

A

Calluses

soles of feet, palms of hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Thickest combination of thick dermis and epidermis is found where?

A

Found in the skin between the scapulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 3 Obligate Aerobes (like us) enzymes?

A

1) Catalase
2) S.O.D. (superoxide dismutase)
3) GPx (glutathione (GSH) peroxidase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Do obligate anaerobes have the same 3 enzymes that obligate aerobes have?

A

Obligate anaerobes do NOT have these 3 enzymes (Oxygen is a poison, make H2O2–> water and **O2 (Bubbles!!!); peroxisome houses these 3 enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens when you pour H2O2 on a cut?

A

Hydrogen peroxide is converted to oxygen because obligate aerobes carry three enzymes that can perform this mechanism: catalase, superoxide dismutase (SOD), and glutathione peroxidase (GSH). GSH and catalase are mainly responsible for oxygen production, in which this is toxic to the obligate anaerobes that can cause infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

psychosomatic def?

A

mental factor such as internal conflict or stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Glutathione; GPX

A

Glutathione (GSH) is the most ubiquitous tripeptide in higher invertebrates
Contains the AA glutamate, cysteine, and glycine
Protects cells by neutralizing reactive oxygen species via reduction of the thiol side chain.
GPx = glutathione peroxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Two layers of the Dermis?

A
  1. papillary layer
  2. Reticular layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Stratum corneum

A

provides structural strength due to keratin within cells, prevents water loss due to lipids surrounding cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Cell eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a main role adipocytes play in the body?

A

Insulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does Melanin get into the skin?

A

Melanocytes makes melanin, Keratinocyte phagocytosis by eating the melanosome but melanin stays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Basal cell carcinoma:

A

starts in Stratum Basale, slow growing, least in terms of lethality (almost looks like a zit, almost normal colored)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

starts in Stratum spinosum (darker looking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Melanoma

A

(WORST)

starts in melanocyte, might start as mole, often metastasizes
(splotchy looking and very discolored)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Diff signs of cancer?

A

1) Asymmetrical shape (one half is unlike the other half and not oval or round)
2) Border (Notched, irregular or scalloped border)
3) Color (Multiple colors, changes in color or uneven color)
4) Diameter (Larger than 1/4 inch or a pencil eraser)
5) Evolving (Change in size, shape, color or height; new signs and symptoms, such as itchiness, tenderness or bleeding; or non-healing sores
A,B,C,D,E’s
(Pay attention to CHANGES)
-biopsy’s can be taken to determine if a mole is cancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Do surgeons cut parallel or perpendicular to the skin tissue?

A

For cosmetic and medical procedural purposes, surgeons will try to cut parallel to the bands
-(Only perpendicular if it has to be done)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

3 types of hairs?

A

-Terminal (head hair)
-Intermediate (arm hair leg hair)
-Vellus (peach fuzz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What two parts of the hair can DNA be extracted and isolated from?

A
  1. Hair follicle
  2. Hair shaft

-Follicle attached is better for DNA
-dermal cells around the follicle if its infected and cells of dermis are extracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What leads to zits (whiteheads)

A

If oil clogs a pour, inflammation and redness happen, necrosis occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why does oily hair happen?

A

-Sebaceous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

extension or the stratum corneum from the proximal nail fold

A

Eponychium also known as the cuticle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

1st degree burns?
2nd degree burns?
3rd degree burns?

A

-epidermis is burned

-epidermis and dermis is burned

-subcutaneous layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How does a Immunosuppressant help with skin grafts?

A

used that way “skin graft” is not “tagged as foreign”
-There is no MHC match between the patient and the donor so skin graft may be rejected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MHC purpose?

A

(Major Histocompatibility Complex)
-us recognizing our own cells and tissue as self/our own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Debridement procedure

A

-when a doctor removes dead tissue from a wound
-they do this to help a wound heal
-dead tissue can give bacteria a place to grow → infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the connection to EGF, a wound and a scar?

A

EGF stimulates collagen production but can’t heal wounds
A scar forms around a wound and macrophages signal fibroblast activity which also adds collagen and other elements of the ECM to help heal the Wound
EGF is released when tissue is damaged; EGF shows up and mitotic activity goes up, able to repair most injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Stress and Cortisol levels (made where?) Immune system function, incidence of sickness?

A

When stressed cortisol levels go up, immune system function goes down
Body cannot fight off virus as easily and is therefore susceptible to sickness
Cortisol is a hormone from the adrenal Cortex
Stress hormone is only good for short periods of time

-Cortisol levels stay high for a long period of time (stress our)= weakens immune systems= greater likely good of getting sick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hernia

A

abnormal exit of tissue or an organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What happens to blood flow in the body during shock

A

Blood flow SLOWS DOWN and vasoconstriction occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Different kinds of injections?

A

Intradermal- injection into the Dermis (Intra= within)

Subcutaneous- into subcutaneous layer (Inter= between)

Intramuscular- into the muscle (epipen) (Sub or hypo= under/below)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How did our ancestors going upright and bipedal affect our body?

A

affected anatomy of pelvic girdle, pelvic girdle widens and widens birth canal making it to where females could give birth to children with larger craniums (larger brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Acute

A

Several and sudden onset of disease/illness (short duration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

5 layers of the growth plate?

A

Cartilage - comes from chondroblasts
Proliferation - Hyperplasia (grow in number of cells)
Hypertrophy - Cell size gets bigger
Calcification - Hydroxyapatite (HA) left behind after apoptosis
Ossification - New Diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What zones is bone still actively growing from?

A

New Diaphysis all the way to Cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What direction do bones slowly ossify?

A

Bones first ossify in the ossification zone, slowly working to the inner parts and down the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Interstitium:

A

Space between cells, fluid in this space is called interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

“HA” = Hydroxyapatite

A
  1. inorganic matrix
  2. Ca10(PO4)6OH2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

“HA” = Hydroxyapatite
Formula?

A

(Ca)10(PO4)6(OH)2
-is inorganic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does sulfuric acid do to bone?

A

Leaches out the HA and the bone will bend.
Or when bone is buried for a while in dirt, bone loses organic components and water therefor becoming brittle (dead cow bones in fields)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Is bone avascular or highly innervated?

A

bone is highly vascularized and highly innervated (nerves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Osteoclast

Osteoblast

Osteocytes

A

Osteoclasts: cells that break down old or damaged bone tissue, making room for new bone growth

Osteoblast: create bone tissue and responsible for remodeling, gowth, and repair

Osteocytes: A type of cells in bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Ossification def?

A

Bone formation, generally referring to soft tissues becoming calcified and hardened.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is special about newborns skull and sutures

A

The skull is squishy and sutures are not fused yet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the spot called on a newborns head that is still squishy?

A

Fontanelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Does cartilage or bone come first?

A

Cartilage is first formed by chondroblasts, this cartilage is then ossified and becomes bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Major type of hyaline cartilage?

A

Articular cartilage

66
Q

4 hormones of bone remodeling?

A
  1. parathyroid Hormone (PTH)
  2. Calcitriol (treats low calcium levels caused by kidney disease with Vitamin D (sunlight))
  3. Calcitonin
  4. Estrogen (hormone of empathy = I understand)
67
Q

What could happen if estrogen levels fall?

A

osteoporosis-A condition in which bones become weak and brittle.

68
Q

How does estrogen help maintain the density in our bones?

A

Estrogen helps prevent osteoblast apoptosis and keeps more osteoblasts in circulation which is good for the density of our bones

69
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Cause little holes in bones (hits post-menopausal women the most)

70
Q

Osteoporosis treatments?

A

1) Ca++ Diet (Dairy products) + TUMS

2) E2 (give it back) through ERT (Estrogen Replacement Therapy)

3) Low Weight-Bearing Exercise (Stress on bone = Increase bone remodeling)

4) Pulsatile PTH (Exogenous source) - Tricks brain into thinking PTH levels are elevated, this causes it to make less PTH so that osteoclast activity decreases.

71
Q

Hyperplasia vs Hypertrophy vs Atrophy

A

Hypertrophy - Cell size gets bigger

Hyperplasia - Number of cells in the area grow

Atrophy - Decrease in size of organ or tissue

72
Q

What really happens when you crack your knuckles?

A

Cracking knuckles is the element of gases (associated with metabolism) escaping

73
Q

How does synovial fluid help our joints?

A

high levels of hyaluronic acid which helps cushion and protect the ends of bones and reduces friction during movement

74
Q

Function of wrist and type of joint in wrist?

A

The wrist (radiocarpal joint) is a condyloid synovial joint of the upper limb
-allows for flexion, extension abduction and adduction

75
Q

The 5 different vertebrae and the number of them?

A

7 Cervical Vertebrae
12 Thoracic vertebrae
5 Lumbar vertebrae
5 Sacral vertebrae
4 Coccyx

76
Q

What passes through the central Haversian Canal?

A
  1. arteries
  2. Veins
  3. Nerves
77
Q

Volkmann’s Canale

A

Located on the edge of bones and house

-arteries
-veins
-nerves

78
Q

What percentage of bone breaks down each year?

A

7-10% of each (EVERY) bone break down each year

79
Q

Organs involved with bones?

A
  • Bone
  • G.I. Tract
  • Kidney (renal)
80
Q

How much blood/time is sent to the brain?

A

Same amount of blood/time sent to the Kidneys (both of them)
(Brain and kidneys work together)

81
Q

Who is hit the hardest by osteoporosis?

A

Post menopausal women

82
Q

What are direct correlations when estrogen increases?

A

Estrogen increases, more osteoblasts, more building of bones (females menopause)

83
Q

Potential treatments for osteoporosis?

A
  1. Increase calcium in diet
  2. ERT (estrogen replacement therapy), giving back some estrogen
  3. low weight bearing exercise
  4. Pulsatile PTH, trick the brain into thinking our PTH levels are already very high, then the brain does feedback inhibition and the endogenous PTH levels go down, osteoclast activity goes down
84
Q

Concentric Lamellae are the ______ inside the bone

A

Rings (tree rings)

85
Q

What are osteocytes derived from?

A

Osteocytes derive from osteoblasts, or bone-forming cells

86
Q

Interstitial lamellae

A

irregularly shaped and fill in the spaces between osteons

87
Q

Canaliculi bone function?

A

small canals running through the bone solid matrix that help with supplying nutrients to the bone cells, removing the bone cell waste, and also aiding in communication between the bone cells

88
Q

Lacunae

A

An unfilled space in bone

89
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

-It is also known as brittle bone disease

symptoms include Whites of the eye (sclera) are blue instead

Cause lack of collagen type 1 (28 types) and has Atleast one segment that is triple helix

Autosomal: non sex chromosome 1-22 and dominant (dominant code for a functional protein; does not mean fitness of an individual)

90
Q

Carpal tunnel Syndrome

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome caused by pressure on the median nerve. (Numbness, tingling, and weakness in hand and arm).

Carpal Tunnel - Narrow passageway surrounded by bones and ligaments on palm side of the hand.

91
Q

Retinaculum

A

a deep layer of dense connective tissue that is typically oval or circular in its morphology that can often times stabilize tendons or even muscles

92
Q

Opothy

A

Irritated or disturbed

93
Q

Tommy John Surgery (TJS)

A

-sports that involve throwing
-Ulnar collateral ligament reconstruction
-surgical graft procedure
1. take a tendon from somewhere else in the patients body or from a deceased donor

94
Q

Turf Toe= Hallux

A

-when you bend your big toe too far or too forcefully

  • injury refers to a ligament sprain of the big toe joint that occurs on toes surface (Picture)
95
Q

Strain vs Sprain

A

Strain: muscle to bone (Tendon)

Sprain: bone to bone (Ligament)

96
Q

Separated Shoulder

A

Acromioclavicular Joint (Acromion of scapula and Lateral end of Clavicle) - Injury to this is a separated shoulder. (AC)

97
Q

Dislocated Shoulder:

A

Glenohumeral Joint = Humerus and Glenoid Fossa

98
Q

High ankle sprain (syndesmotic ankle sprain)

A

type of strain from twisting and stretching the syndesmotic ligament that connects the tibia to the fibula (LONG TIME TO HEAL BC VERY UNVASCULARIZED)
-Fibula is a non weight bearing bone on lower leg

99
Q

Broken bones are referred to as ______

A

Fractures

100
Q

Breaks skin?

A

Compound

101
Q

In pieces?

A

Comminuted

102
Q

Bruise on a bone is called?

A

Also known as a contusion; most common cause being capillaries damaged by trauma, causing localized bleeding extravasates (leakage of blood, lymph fluid) into the surrounding interstitial tissue

103
Q

Depression fracture:

A

Depression Fracture (Cranium); most often seen in forensics due to malicious intent, bone fragment dislodged towards brain

104
Q

Different kinds of fractures and what they mean?

A

Transverse: perp fracture
linear: parallel
Diagonal : oblique
Displaced: oblique displaced
Spiral: leg planted in ground and upper body gets torqued
Greenstick: bend instead of break (very young)
Comminuted: in pieces

105
Q

Rotator Cuff muscles (4)

A
  1. Supraspinatus
  2. Infraspinatus
  3. Teres minor
  4. Subscapularis
106
Q

Tendinopothy

A

pain, swelling or tenderness typically due to overuse

107
Q

Hemoglobin

A

FE+2 (toxic) visible discoloration

108
Q

Bruise blanched:

A

skin has whiteish appearance caused by diminished blood flow to that region

109
Q

What do Nociceptors do?

A

Free nerve endings that respond to pain and tickling

110
Q

Apocrine sweat glands

A

Found in the groin and axillary region, activated when nervous
Bacterial growth= SMELLS BAD
OILY

111
Q

What diet should a kid be on after getting back from the hospital bc of a burn?

A

High protein and high-caloric diet
-Kids need nutrition to grow and develop
Larger the burn size=more nutrition your child needs

112
Q

What kind of hernia can you get from lifting something too heavy?

A

Inguinal hernias
-present as bulges in the groin

113
Q

5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

1) Heat
2) Pain
3) Redness
4) Swelling
5) loss of function

114
Q

Define Compression Strength–> Bone is hard! Hydroxyapatite
Define Tensile strength –> Like a rope! Collagen

A

Compression Strength - Material’s ability to resist forces that compress it, or reduce its size. : Hydroxyapatite Softer=dehydration

Tensile Strength - Material’s ability to resist forces that stretch or elongate it.: Collagen

115
Q

How do Osteoclasts degrade bone?

What do they look like?

A

Osteoclasts excrete HCL and proteolytic enzymes (From the Golgi) to degrade bones. Serum Ca++ levels typically go up

Osteoclasts have a ruffled border that connects with the bone and works to break the bone apart by secreting hydrochloric acid. They are also multinucleated

116
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

Takes place within the cartilage of the cartilaginous precursor of what will become a bone

117
Q

Intermembranous ossification

A

Taking place within the embryonic mesenchyme which will turn over into bone (Clavicle and skull)

118
Q

What happens to blood Ca++ levels when the osteoblasts are active? Same for osteoclasts?

A

Osteoblasts: blood Ca++ levels decrease
Osteoclasts: blood Ca++ levels increase

119
Q

Chondroblasts

A

form cartilage and chrondrocytes, descended from mesenchyme

120
Q

Arthritis

A

Joint inflammation; typically from less articular cartilage due to wear and tear
NSAIDS can manage symptoms

121
Q

Anatomical Points of Reference: Olecranon, popliteal, anterior crest of tibia, nuchal and calcaneal.

A

Olecranon- Back of elbow
Popliteal- Back of Knee
Anterior Crest of Tibia- Shin bone (forms shin)
Nuchal- Back of Neck
Calcaneal- Heel of foot

122
Q

COVID 19 and our defense

A

Inflammation; can become overzealous and lead to increase in fluid concentration in the lungs= drowning (pneumonia)

123
Q

Is collagen a double helix?

A

Triple Helix

124
Q

Hallux

A

Is the scientific name for the big toe.

125
Q

Blunt force trauma

A

Blunt force Trauma leads to a fracture and/or contusion (bruise)

126
Q

Rotator cuff stabilizes which joint?

A

Glenohumeral joint

127
Q

Tendonitis

Tendinopathy

Tear of the Tendon

A

Tendonitis: Inflammation of tendon sheaths typically caused by overuse

Tendinopathy: the general term for degeneration of a tendon in any joint; ex: Rotator Cuff

Tear of the Tendon: an injury to soft tissue that connects muscles to joints; can happen suddenly, typically due to overuse/ overstretching; caused by muscle’s inability to absorb shock, load, or force

128
Q

Why does a bruise change color?

A

Most bruises occur close enough to the epidermis such that bleeding causes a (hemoglobin) visible discoloration

129
Q

what is the evolutionarily significant purpose of inflammation? Can defenses get out-of-hand and actually be harmful?

A

To eliminate the initial cause of cell injury / clear out necrotic cell and tissues damaged from original insult and initiate tissue repair
Yes, “defenses are good, right up until they are NOT good”

130
Q

If I scratch my arm with a key in a linear manner the initial color of the line is? Then it becomes what color? Why?
white to red

A

The line is whitish or pale immediately after the scratch. This is because the pressure from the key temporarily displaces blood from the capillaries, reducing blood flow and causing a blanching effect.
Reactive hyperemia, where blood rushes back into the area as part of the body’s inflammatory response. Histamine is released by cells, causing vasodilation and increased blood flow to the area, resulting in the red appearance.

131
Q

Gap junctions

A

Gap Junctions allow for intracellular fluid and ions to flow between cells (remember intercalated discs).

132
Q

5 layers of Epidermis?

A
  1. Corneum
    2) Lucidum
    3) Granulosum
    4) Sprinosum
    5) Basale
133
Q

Which layers are alive?

A

Stratum basale and spinosum (Granulosum is moribund and the top two layers are dead)

134
Q

Eccrine sweat glands?

A

Found everywhere and ONLY sweat

135
Q

Parts of human nail?

A

Nail plate, nail groove, lunula, cuticle (eponychium)

136
Q

Fascia?

A

very thin layer of connective tissue that wraps around internal organs and muscles

137
Q

Shock (there are many types)…..vasodilation = resistance in system = what to blood pressure..?

A

Insufficient blood flow to organs
Systemic vasodilation leads to reduced resistance and blood pressure

138
Q

Inguinal Hernias?
Lateral Hernias?
Femoral Hernias?
Incisional Hernias?
Umbilical Hernias?

A

Inguinal hernias present as bulges in the groin, epigastric hernias are in the stomach (upper abdomen), lateral hernias occur in the lateral abdomen, femoral hernias are in the upper thigh, incisional hernias are at the front of the abdomen where a previous incision was, and umbilical hernias are at or near the belly button.

139
Q

Osteons

A

Functional unit of bone

140
Q

Tendons (from which muscles) used for Tommy John surgery repair.

A

Gracilis and palmaris longus

141
Q

3 MAJOR organs or structures involved in Ca++ level in the blood? Does the brain want blood calcium levels higher or lower–hormones involved

A

-Bone
Bones act as a reservoir for calcium. When blood calcium levels are low, calcium can be released from bones through a process called bone resorption.

-GI tract
The intestines absorb calcium from the diet, allowing it to enter the bloodstream

-Kidney
The kidneys regulate calcium levels by controlling how much calcium is reabsorbed into the blood or excreted in urine.

142
Q

Histamine….When?

A

Histamine is stored in granules in Mast cells, but can be released when the mast cell comes in contact with an allergen.

143
Q

Allergies…types! Casual vs life-threatening

A

Seasonal and severe allergies, though there can be non-seasonal allergies that are not severe

Casual: a mild reaction; symptoms include runny nose, coughing, or itchy eyes
Life-threatening: anaphylaxis

144
Q

Allergic reactions – small vs LARGE (life threatening?)

A

-A cascade of reactions leads to a release of histamine, which causes allergy symptoms

-These symptoms are usually confined to one area of your body.

-If the Immune reaction is severe, it causes anaphylaxis.

-Anaphylactic shock is life-threatening

145
Q

Allergen?

A

a substance that produces an allergic reaction in an individual

146
Q

Histamine receptors?

A

-H1-Found in vascular smooth muscle, in bronchi, and on sensory nerves
Stimulation results in itching, pain, edema, vasodilation, bronchoconstriction
Characteristic of inflammation and allergy

-H2-Located in stomach and eyes
Stimulation results in secretion of hydrochloric acid

-H3-are involved in central nervous system functioning and feedback control of histamine synthesis and release.

H4-located in peripheral WBCs and mast cells
involved in immune responses

147
Q

Cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes and inhibitors!

A

COX 1 & COX2→ enzymes that turn arachidonic acid into prostaglandins
5 prostaglandins

-PGD2 (pain, sleep/wake cycles, pyretic/fever promoter)
-PGE2 (pain, redness, swelling, inflammation)
-PGF2 alpha (Corpus luteum regression, skeletal muscle function)
-PGH2 (thromboxane: vasoconstriction and increased clotting/platelet aggregation) (SCABS)
-PGI2 (causes vasodilation for increased blood flow/healing)

Acetaminophen blocks COX2; Advil Blocks COX1; Aspirin blocks both

148
Q

Histamine blockers – specifics = Antihistamines!

A

1) Benadryl (antihistamine) blocks H1

2) Anti heartburn drugs blocks H2

149
Q

Histamine type around the eye

A

H2, same as digestive system

150
Q

COX inhibitors (be specific with pharmacological references here no!)

A

-Cox 1 Inhibitors - Ibuprofen (Advil) & Naproxen (Aleve) [NSAID]
-Cox 2 Inhibitors - Acetaminophen (Tylenol) [NOT an NSAID]
-Cox 1 & 2 Inhibitor - Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin) [NSAID]
Acetylates serine (Ex: SER530) SER = Serine; 530 = AA #

151
Q

Baroreceptors….. vasodilation….what happens to blood pressure?
.

A

Baroreceptors detect a change in blood pressure (too low or too high) and then mediate the appropriate response. If blood pressure is too high, vasodilation occurs and blood pressure will decrease due to blood vessels expanding

152
Q

Adrenaline….from where in the body. Physiological relevance with an EpiPen…and histamine levels during allergic reaction!

A

Adrenaline comes from the adrenal medulla; causes vasoconstriction and bronchodilation, raising O2 levels and blood pressure; inhibits further release of histamine.

153
Q

NSAIDs

A

…..Tylenol…..Benadryl……Heartburn medications
NSAIDs: Non Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
Tylenol: Acetaminophen; Not an NSAID
Benadryl: Diphenhydramine; Not an NSAID
Heartburn Medications: Pepcid AC (famotidine); Not an NSAID. Tagamet (Cimetidine)

154
Q

Deodorant vs antiperspirant…back to apocrine sweat glands….oil….bacteria
produce what?

A

Antiperspirants: Inhibit apocrine sweat glands, decreasing the amount of sweat & oil excreted
Deodorant: Neutralize thiol alcohols which produce stink (masks odor)

155
Q

What is anaphylaxis? Shock?

A

Anaphylaxis, also known as anaphylactic shock or allergic shock, is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur suddenly and affect the entire body

156
Q

Vasoconstriction vs Vasodilation

A

Vasoconstriction: narrowing of blood vessels

Vasodilation: Widening of blood vessels

157
Q

Sources of Histamine?

A

1) Mast cells
2) Basophils
3) Hypothalamus
4) Entochomellic live cells

158
Q

Effects of Histamine?

A

1) Inflammation
2) Vasodilation
3) Bronchoconstriction (Resp system)
4) Mucous secretion
5) Itching

159
Q

Allergy symptoms?

A

Eyes: red, puffy, itchy
Nose: Stopped up, Runs
“Trouble Breathing” (Bronchoconstriction)

160
Q

What does eyes itching lead to?

A

Eyes Itch→ Histamine levels go up→ Red; puffy; itch→ Rub/Scratch on red eyes→ feels good!!–> Mast cell activity up→ Histamine levels go up→ eyes Itch (loop)

FEED FORWARD STIMULATION

161
Q

What do antihistamines do?

A

help relieve or prevent symptoms of allergies, motion sickness, nausea, vomiting, and insomnia

Block histamines effects like H1, H2, H3, and H4

162
Q

Inflammations function?

A

1) Get to it
2) Remove it
3) Clean it
4) Replace it