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A+P 2 FINAL > A+P Lab RS > Flashcards

A+P Lab RS Flashcards

1
Q

These are involved in blood clotting during homeostasis (3)

A

Prothrombin, thrombin, and fibrinogen

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2
Q

What is the blood volume of an average-size adult male?

A

5-6 Liters

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3
Q

What is the blood volume of an average-size adult female?

A

4-5 Liters

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4
Q

What determines whether blood is bright red or a dull brick-red?

A

The more oxygen the brighter the redness

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5
Q

Most numerous leukocyte

A

Neutrophil

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6
Q

Granulocytes (3)

A

Neutrophil, Eosinophil, Basophil

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7
Q

anucleate formed element

A

Red Blood Cell

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8
Q

Actively phagocytic leukocyte

A

Neutrophil, Monocyte

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9
Q

Agranulocytes (2)

A

Lymphocyte, Monocyte

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10
Q

Precursor cell of platelets

A

Megakaryocyte

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11
Q

Red blood cells, megakaryocyte, eosinophil, basophil, monocyte, neutrophil, and lymphocyte are all examples of?

A

Formed elements

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12
Q

Number rises during parasite infections

A

Eosinophil

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13
Q

Releases histamine; promotes inflammation

A

Basophil

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14
Q

Many formed in lymphoid tissue

A

Lymphocyte

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15
Q

Transports oxygen

A

Red Blood Cells

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16
Q

Primarily water, noncellular; fluid matrix of blood

A

Plasma

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17
Q

Increases in number during prolonged infections

A

Monocyte

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18
Q

Five types of white blood cells

A

Neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil, lymphocyte, monocyte

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19
Q

List the four classes of nutrients normally found in plasma

A

Amino acids, fatty acids, glucose, vitamins

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20
Q

Two gases normally found in plasma

A

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

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21
Q

Three ions normally found in plasma

A

Sodium, potassium, calcium

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22
Q

Describe the consistency and color of plasma

A

Plasma is slippery (gelatinous) fluid. It has a yellowish color.

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23
Q

What is the average life span of a red blood cell? Why

A

The average life span of a RBC is 100-120 days. (Development is about 15 days). Being anucleated it’s unable to reproduce or repair damage during circulation.

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24
Q

Percentage of Eosinophils in the total white blood cell population

A

-2-4% of WBC count

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25
Q

Describe the structural characteristics of Eosinophils

A

bilobe nucleus,

large cytoplasmic granules

stains red-orange

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26
Q

The percentage of Neutrophils in the total white blood cell population

A

50-70% of WBC count

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27
Q

Describe the structural characteristics of Neutrophils (3)

A

nucleus has 3-6 lobes
pale lilac cytoplasm
fine cytoplasmic granules

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28
Q

Percentage of Lymphocytes in the total white blood cell population

A

about 25% (little more)

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29
Q

Describe the structural characteristics of Lymphocytes

A

Nucleus is spherical or slightly indented (makes up most cells mass)

cytoplasm is thin blue rim around nucleus

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30
Q

Percentage of basophils in the total white blood cell population

A

-less then 1%

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31
Q

Describe the structural characteristics of Basophils

A

Large U or S shaped nucleus w/ 2 or more indentations

cytoplasm contains course, sparse granules

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32
Q

Percentage of monocytes in the total white blood cell population

A

3-8% of WBC count

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33
Q

Describe the structural characteristics of Monocytes

A
  • kidney shaped nucleus and abundant cytoplasm

- stains grey-blue

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34
Q

Abnormal increase in number of WBC

A

leukocytosis

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35
Q

Abnormal increase in number of RBC

A

polycythemia

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36
Q

Condition of too few RBC’s or of RBC’s with hemoglobin deficiencies

A

Anemia

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37
Q

Abnormal decrease in number of WBC

A

leukopenia

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38
Q

Why is differential WBC count more valuable than a total WBC count when trying to pin down the specific source of pathology?

A

Differential WBC is more valuable because any change or abnormal count (increase/decrease) of any WBC can indicate a problem

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39
Q

What name is given to the process of RBC production?

A

Erythropoiesis

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40
Q

What hormone acts as a stimulus for erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoietin

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41
Q

Define Hematocrit

A

percentage of total blood volume occupied by RBC

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42
Q

What is an anticoagulant?

A

agent inhibiting blood from clotting

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43
Q

Name two anticoagulants

A

Heparin and EDTA (ethylenediaminetraacetic acid)

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44
Q

What is the body’s natural anticoagulant?

A

Heparin

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45
Q

Normal range for plasma cholesterol concentration

A

130-200 mg/100 ml

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46
Q

What is the function of the fluid that fills the pericardial sac?

A

It lubricates the heart, allowing the heart to beat in a relatively frictionless environment.

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47
Q

Location of the heart in the thorax

A

Mediastinum

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48
Q

Superior heart chambers

A

Atria

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49
Q

Inferior heart chambers

A

Ventricles

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50
Q

Visceral pericardium

A

Epicardium

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51
Q

Receiving chambers of the heart

A

Atria

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52
Q

Layer composed of cardiac muscle

A

Myocardium

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53
Q

Provide nutrient blood to the heart muscle

A

Coronary arteries

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54
Q

Lining of the heart chambers

A

Endocardium

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55
Q

Actual “pumps” of the heart

A

Ventricles

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56
Q

Drains blood into the right atrium

A

Coronary sinus

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57
Q

What is the function of the valves found in the heart?

A

Prevent blood flow; Allows blood to only flow in one direction

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58
Q

What is the role of the chordae tendineae?

A

“Heart strings” that anchor the cusps to the ventricular walls

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59
Q

Differentiate clearly between the roles of the pulmonary and systemic circulations

A

Pulmonary circulation strictly provides gas exchange in the lungs;

whereas the systemic circulation provides the functional blood supply to all body tissues.

60
Q

Right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the ___1___, through the ___2___ valve to the pulmonary trunk, to the ___3___, to the capillary beds of the lungs, to the ___4___, to the ___5___ of the heart, through the ___6___ valve to the ___7___, through the ___8___ valve to the ___9___, to the systemic arteries, to the ___10___ of the tissues, to the systemic veins, to the ___11___, ___12___, ___13___, and ___14___ entering the right atrium of the heart.

A
  1. Right ventricle
  2. Pulmonary semilunar
  3. Pulmonary arteries
  4. Pulmonary veins
  5. Left atrium
  6. Bicuspid
  7. Left Ventricle
  8. Aortic semilunar
  9. Aorta
  10. Capillary beds
  11. Superior vena cava
  12. Inferior vena cava
  13. Coronary sinus
  14. Cardiac veins
61
Q

If the mitral valve does not close properly, which circulation is affected?

A

Pulmonary circulation

62
Q

Why might a thrombus (blood clot) in the anterior descending branch of the left coronary artery cause sudden death?

A

Blocks blood flow to the left ventricle of the heart

63
Q

How would you distinguish the structure of cardiac muscle from that of skeletal muscle?

A

Skeletal muscles are long, cylindrical, has multinucleated cells, and has obvious striations

Cardiac muscles are branching and the cells interdigitate at the junctions (intercalated discs)

64
Q

Describe the unique anatomical features of cardiac muscle. What role does the unique structure of cardiac muscle play in its function?

A

Intercalated discs with 2 important functions:

It holds the myocytes together so that they do not pull apart when the heart contracts
The discs allow an electrical connection between the cells, which is vital to the function of the heart as a whole

65
Q

List the elements of the intrinsic conduction system in order, starting from the SA node

A 
SA Node-> 
AV node-> 
AV Bundle (through septum)->
bundle branches-> 
purkinje fibers
66
Q

At what structure in the transmission sequence is the impulse temporarily delayed? Why?

A

AV node, allows completion of atrial contraction before initiation of ventricular systole

67
Q

Even though cardiac muscle has an inherent ability to beat, the nodal system plays a critical role in heart physiology. What is that role?

A

Organization of depolarization, and coordinates heart activity

68
Q

Define ECG

A

Recording of electrical changes in heart activity

69
Q

Why causes the heart rate increase during running? (hormone)

A

Release of norepinephrine by the sympathetic nervous system

70
Q

Define tachycardia

A

heart rate over 100 beats/min

71
Q

Define bradycardia

A

heart rate below 60 beats/min

72
Q

Define fibrillation

A

very rapid uncoordinated myocardial activity

73
Q

Layer of a blood vessel with a smooth surface to decrease resistance to blood flow + thin tunic of capillaries

A

Tunica Intima

74
Q

Layer of a blood vessel containing smooth muscle and elastin

A

Tunica media

75
Q

Name two events occurring within the body that aid in venous return.

A
  1. skeletal muscle “milking action”

2. changes in thoracic cavity pressure during breathing

76
Q

the arterial system has one of these; the venous system has two

A

brachiocephalic

77
Q

these arteries supply the myocardium

A

coronary

78
Q

two paired arteries serving the brain

A

internal carotid

vertebral

79
Q

longest vein in the lower limb

A

great saphenous

80
Q

Artery on the dorsum of the foot

A

dorsalis pedis artery

81
Q

main artery that serves the thigh muscles

A

deep artery of the thigh

82
Q

supplies the diaphram

A

phrenic

83
Q

formed by the union of the radial and ulnar veins

A

brachial

84
Q

two superficial veins of the arm

A

basilic

cephalic

85
Q

artery that supplies the distal half of the large intestine

A

inferior mesenteric

86
Q

drains the pelvic organs

A

internal iliac vein

87
Q

what the external iliac artery becomes on entry into the thigh

A

femoral

88
Q

artery that branches into radial and ulnar arteries

A

brachial

89
Q

supplies most of the small intestine

A

superior mesenteric

90
Q

joins to form the inferior vena cava

A

common iliac veins

91
Q

has three major branches, which run to the liver, spleen, and stomach

A

celiac trunk

92
Q

major artery serving the tissues external to the skull

A

external carotid

93
Q

four veins serving the leg

A

anterior artery
fibular
posterior tibial
great saphenous

94
Q

artery generally used to take the pulse at the wrist

A

radial

95
Q

What is the function of the cerebral arterial circle?

A

Protection - it provides alternate pathways for blood to reach the brain tissue

96
Q

The anterior and middle cerebral arise from the __1__ artery. They serve the __2__ of the brain.

A

internal carotid

2) cerebrum

97
Q

Trace the pathway of a drop of blood from the aorta to the left occipital lobe of the brain, noting all structures which it flows.

A 
Aorta → 
subclavian artery → 
vertebral artery →
basilar artery →
posterior cerebral artery → 
occipital brain tissue.
98
Q

Trace the pathway of a carbon dioxide gas molecule in the blood from the inferior vena cava until it leaves the bloodstream. Name all structures (vessels, heart chambers, and others) passed through en route. Inferior vena cava

A

right atrium →

tricuspid valve →

right ventricle →

pulmonary →

semilunar valve →

pulmonary trunk →

right or left pulmonary artery →

lobar artery →

pulmonary capillary beds in lungs →

air sacs (alveoli) of lungs.

99
Q

Trace the pathway of oxygen gas molecules from an alveolus of the lung to the right atrium of the heart. Name all structures through which it passes. Highlight the areas of gas exchange

A

Alveolus →

alveolar/capillary walls* →

pulmonary vein →

left atrium →

bicuspid (mitral) valve →

left ventricle →

aortic semilunar valve →

aorta →

systemic arteries →

capillary beds of tissues* →

systemic veins →

superior or inferior vena cava →

right atrium →

100
Q

How do pulmonary arteries and veins differ from the others?

A

The pulmonary arteries carry oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

The pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart.

101
Q

How do the arteries of the pulmonary circulation differ structurally from the systemic arteries? What condition is indicated by this anatomical difference?

A

The pulmonary arteries are more like veins anatomically.

  • relatively thin walls, reflecting the fact that pulmonary circulation is a low pressure bed
102
Q

What is the source of blood in the hepatic portal system?

A

blood drained from the digestive viscera

103
Q

Why is this blood carried to the liver before it enters the systemic circulation? (2)

A

the blood is rich in nutrients.

phagocytes also cleanse the blood of debris.

104
Q

Trace the flow of a drop of blood from the small intestine to the right atrium of the heart, noting all structures encountered or passed through on the way.

A 
Capillaries of small intestine →
superior mesenteric vein →
hepatic portal vein → 
liver sinusoids → hepatic vein → inferior vena cava → 
right atrium of heart
105
Q

Hormone

A

chemical messenger for the endocrine system that changes in the metabolic activity

106
Q

Chemically, hormones belong chiefly to two molecular groups the

A

endocrine and exocrine

107
Q

Target cell

A

cells within an organ that respond to a particular hormone

108
Q

located in the anterior neck; produces key hormones for metabolism

A

thyroid

109
Q

produces the hormones that are stored in the posterior pituitary

A

hypothalamus

110
Q

mixed gland, located behind the stomach and close to the small intestine

A

pancreasa

111
Q

found in the upper thorax overlying the heart; large during youth

A

thymus

112
Q

found in the roof of the third ventricle of the brain

A

pineal

113
Q

Which hormones/glands regulates the function of another endocrine gland (tropic)

A

Hormones: 
FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH

Gland: Anterior pituitary

114
Q

Which hormones/glands maintain salt and water balance in the extracellular fluid

A

Hormones:
ADH, aldosterone

Gland: Posterior pituitary, Adrenal cortex

115
Q

Which hormones/glands are directly involved in milk production and ejection

A

Hormones:
Oxytocin, Prolactin

Glands: Posterior Pituitary, Anterior Pituitary

116
Q

Which hormones/gland controls the rate of body metabolism and cellular oxidation

A

Hormones:
T3, T4

Gland: Thyroid

117
Q

Which hormones/gland regulates blood calcium levels

A

Hormone: Parathyroid hormone

Gland: Parathyroid

118
Q

Which hormones/gland regulate blood glucose levels; produced by the same “mixed” gland

A

Hormone:
insulin, glucagon

Gland: Pancreas

119
Q

Which hormones/gland released in response to stressors

A

Hormones:
Cortisol, epinephrine

Gland: Adrenal cortex, Adrenal medulla

120
Q

Which hormones/gland drive development of secondary sex characteristics in males

A

Hormones: Testosterone

Gland: Testes

121
Q

Which hormones/gland directly responsible for regulation of the menstrual cycle

A

Hormones:
Estrogen, Progesterone

Gland: ovaries

122
Q

ACTH: humoral, hormonal or neural?

A

hormonal

123
Q

calcitonin: humoral, hormonal or neural?

A

humoral

124
Q

estrogens: humoral, hormonal or neural?

A

hormonal

125
Q

insulin: humoral, hormonal or neural?

A

humoral

126
Q

norephinephrine: humoral, hormonal or neural?

A

neural

127
Q

parathyroid hormone: humoral, hormonal or neural?

A

humoral

128
Q

T3/T4: humoral, hormonal or neural?

A

hormonal

129
Q

testosterone: humoral, hormonal or neural?

A

hormonal

130
Q

TSH, FSH: humoral, hormonal or neural?

A

hormonal

131
Q

What causes tetany

A

inadequate parathyroid

132
Q

What causes excessive urine output without high blood glucose levels

A

inadequate antidiuretic

133
Q

What causes loss of glucose in the urine

A

inadequate insulin

134
Q

What causes abnormally small stature, normal properties

A

inadequate growth hormone

135
Q

What causes large bones of the hands, feet and face in adults

A

excessive growth

136
Q

What causes nervousness, irregular pulse rate, sweating

A

excessive thyroid

137
Q

What causes demineralization of bones, spontaneous fractures

A

excessive parathyroid

138
Q

parafollicular cells of the thyroid

A

calcitonin

139
Q

Produced by follicular cells of the thyroid

A

T4 and T3

140
Q

Produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets

A

insulin

141
Q

Produced by basophil cells of the anterior pituitary

A

TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH

142
Q

Produced by zona fasciculata cells

A

glucocorticoids

143
Q

Produced by zona glomerulosa cells

A

mineralocorticoids

144
Q

Produced by acidophil cells of the anterior pituitary

A

GH, prolactin

145
Q

Hormones secreted by the pineal gland

A

Melatonin

146
Q

Hormones secreted by the adipose tissue

A

Leptin

147
Q

Three types of arteries

A
  1. Elastic 2. Muscular 3. Arterioles

A+P 2 FINAL (3 decks)

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