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a&p > A&P Final > Flashcards

A&P Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?

A

epiphyseal plate

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2
Q

Osteogenesis is the process of

A

bone formation

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3
Q

Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth?

A

Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.

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4
Q

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?

A

parathyroid hormone

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5
Q

lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through

A

interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plate

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6
Q

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process

A

osteoclast

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7
Q

what tissue forms the model for endochondrial ossification.

A

cartilage

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8
Q

Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of

A

osteoblasts and osteoclasts

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9
Q

The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the haversion canal) is the site of

A

blood vessels of nerve fibers

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10
Q

Which of the following is a bone marking name that indicates an armlike bar of bone?

A

ramus

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11
Q

cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth?

A

The secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage.

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12
Q

Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ____.

A

Calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D

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13
Q

Ossification of the ends of long bones____.

A

is produced by secondary ossification centers

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14
Q

What causes osteoporosis?

A

Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal systems?

A

Communication

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16
Q

osteomyelitis is _____.

A

Due to pus-forming bacteria.

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17
Q

Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of _____.

A

fat

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18
Q

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the _____.

A

osteoblast

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19
Q

The term diploe refers to the _____.

A

internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones

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20
Q

The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?

A

compact bone

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21
Q

In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows_____.

A

by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis.

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22
Q

The process of bones increasing in width is known as _____.

A

appositional growth

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23
Q

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the _______.

A

diaphysis

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24
Q

What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?

A

Hyaline cartilge

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25
Q

The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called______.

A

perforating (sharpey’s) fibers

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26
Q

Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have _____.

A

costal facets

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27
Q

Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body?

A

The lumbar region

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28
Q

which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum?

A

perpendicular plate

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29
Q

Along with support, the anterior ligament of the vertebral column also acts to ____.

A

Prevent hyperextension of the spine

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30
Q

Which bone acts as a moveable base for the tongue?

A

Hyoid bone

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31
Q

Which forms the largest portion of the coxal bone?

A

Ilium

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32
Q

Which of the following is true about paranasal sinuses?

A

Paranasal sinuses enhance the resonance of the voice and lighten the skull.

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33
Q

What makes up the axial skeleton

A

The skull, vertebral column, and rib cage.

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34
Q

The “true wrist” or carpus consists of _____.

A

A group of eight short bones united by ligaments

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35
Q

Which vertebra does not have a body

A

atlas

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35
Q

Which of the following is not a movement that can occur between vertebrae?

A

supination

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36
Q

The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones?

A

Humerus-ulna

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37
Q

Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal?

A

Medial cuneiform

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38
Q

What is the major function of the axial skeleton?

A

Provide central support for the body and protect internal organs

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39
Q

What is the major function of the intervertebral discs?

A

absorb shock

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40
Q

Which bone contains areas of diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle, and its proportionally more compact than spongy bone?

A

humerus

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41
Q

The superior oribital fissure is formed in the sphenoid bone, whereas the inferior orbital fissure is formed between the sphenoid and _____.

A

maxilla

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42
Q

Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves?

A

To provide resilience and flexibility

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43
Q

The pituitary gland is housed in the ______.

A

sella turcica of the sphenoid bone

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44
Q

Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus?

A

lateral malleolus

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45
Q

Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones?

A

Maxillae

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46
Q

Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek?

A

zygomatic bone

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47
Q

The superior nasal concha is part of which bone?

A

ethmoid

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48
Q

The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called ______.

A

Fontanelles

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49
Q

The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the _____.

A

Sagittal

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50
Q

Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones?

A

rotation

51
Q

Extrascapular ligaments stabilizing the knee include____.

A

lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing later or medial angular movements

52
Q

Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped?

A

The patellar ligament

53
Q

Tendon sheaths ______.

A

Act as a friction-reducing structures

54
Q

A fibrous joint is a peg-in-socket is called a _____ joint.

A

gomphosis

55
Q

The gliding motion of the wrist uses ______ joins.

A

plane

56
Q

A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ____.

A

symphysis

57
Q

An example of a interosseous fibrous joints is _____

A

the radius and ulna along its length

58
Q

Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?

A

cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage united the ends of bones

59
Q

Synarthrotic joints_____.

A

permit essentially no movement

60
Q

Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces diarthroses in contact?

A

Number of bones in the joint

61
Q

Which of the following are cartilaginous joints?

A

Synchondroses

62
Q

The hip joint is a good example of a(n) _____ synovial joint.

A

Multiaxial

63
Q

Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of _____.

A

Hyperextension

64
Q

Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?

A

Hinge joint

65
Q

Which of the following is a true statement?

A

The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius

66
Q

Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ______.

A

rare because of the ligament reinforcement

67
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the synovial joint?

A

Tendon sheath

68
Q

The cruciate ligaments of the knee ______.

A

Prevent hyperextension of the knee

69
Q

In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with _____.

A

hyaline cartilage

70
Q

Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result?

A

Medial collateral, medial meniscus, anterior cruciate

71
Q

Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to _____.

A

Provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

72
Q

On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?

A

Syndesmosis

73
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement about development of joints?

A

Joints develop in parallel with bones.

74
Q

Which of the following statements best describes angular movements?

A

They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.

75
Q

The oxygen-binding protein found in the muscles cells is ______.

A

myoglobin

76
Q

Which of the following is true about smooth muscle?

A

Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.

77
Q

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle _______.

A

changes in length and move the “load”

78
Q

Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by _____.

A

storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesizes ATP

79
Q

Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?

A

Activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland

80
Q

What produces the striations of skeletal muscle cell?

A

The arrangements of myofilaments

81
Q

What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?

A

The ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy

82
Q

The contractile units of skeletal muscles are _____.

A

myofibrils

83
Q

During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pryuvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to _______.

A

Lactic acid

84
Q

The muscle cell membrane is called the ______.

A

sarcolemma

85
Q

Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of ______.

A

intense exercise of short duration

86
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the standard treatment for muscle strain?

A

stretching of the muscle

87
Q

Most skeletal muscles contain ______.

A

a mixture of fiber types

88
Q

What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?

A

bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition

89
Q

Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?

A

endomysium

90
Q

When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?

A

Refractory period

91
Q

Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, _____.

A

no muscle tension could be generated

92
Q

Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red ribers?

A

a long, relaxing swim

93
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei

94
Q

muscle tone is ______.

A

a state of sustained partial contraction

95
Q

During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?

A

actin filaments

96
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?

A

motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments

97
Q

What does excess post exercise oxygen consumption represent?

A

the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used

98
Q

muscle tissue has all of the following properties except _____.

A

secretion

99
Q

The sliding filament model of contraction involves ______.

A

actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

100
Q

Which of the following muscles fixes and depresses the ribs and stabilizes the pelvis during walking?

A

Rectus abdominis

101
Q

What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts?

A

synergist

102
Q

What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?

A

The total number of muscle cells available for contraction

103
Q

If L= load, F= fulcrum, and E= effort, what type of lever system is described at LEF?

A

third class lever

104
Q

Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?

A

Hamstring muscles

105
Q

Which of the following muscles is not a member of the hamstrings group?

A

Vastus intermedius

106
Q

The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. what does the term levator mean?

A

the muscle elevates

107
Q

Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?

A

first class lever

108
Q

Which of the following inserrts by the calcaneal tendon

A

the gastronemius

109
Q

A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is an

A

antagonist

110
Q

Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true?

A

during contraction the two articulating bones move equally

111
Q

Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants?

A

the vastus lateralis

112
Q

What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop?

A

extensor digitorum longus

113
Q

Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles?

A

the type of muscle fibers

114
Q

Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?

A

The frontal belly of the epicranius

115
Q

Which group of muscles flexes and rotates the neck?

A

The scalenes

116
Q

What is the major factor controlling how levers work?

A

The difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

117
Q

Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh?

A

adductor magnus

118
Q

Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings?

A

Gracilis

119
Q

A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called?

A

buccinator

120
Q

Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?

A

Tibialis anteior

121
Q

Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?

A

iliopsoas and rectus femoris

122
Q

Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles?

A

they are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity

123
Q

If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the

A

load is far from the fulcrum and effort is applied near the fulcrum

124
Q

What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?

A

An agonist

a&p (6 decks)

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