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Abnormal Psychology > :) > Flashcards

:) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three general approaches to understanding psychological disorders?

A

sociocultural approach, biological approach, and psychological approach.

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2
Q

sociological approach

A

disorders are the result of the environmental conditions or cultural norms

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3
Q

biological approach

A

disorders as the result of abnormal genes or neurobiological dysfunction

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4
Q

psychological approach

A

disorders as the result of thinking processes, personality styles, emotions, and conditioning

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5
Q

Continuum perspective on abnormality

A

seeing disorders as collections of deficits in fundamental neurobiological processes (biological approach)

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6
Q

Theory

A

set of ideas that provide a framework for asking questions about a phenomenon and for gathering and interpreting information about that phenomenon.

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7
Q

Therapy

A

a treatment, usually based on a theory of a phenomenon, that addresses those factors the theory says cause the phenomenon.

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8
Q

biopsychological approach

A

the development of psychological symptoms often results from a combination of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors.

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9
Q

transdiagnostic risk factors

A

factors that increase the risk of developing a wide range of psychopathologies.

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10
Q

diathesis

A

risk factor

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11
Q

diathesis-stress model

A

when a risk factor and the trigger/stress come together, causing the emergence of a disorder.

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12
Q

what are the three causes of abnormality on which biological approaches often focus?

A

brain dysfunction, biochemical imbalances and genetic abnormalities

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13
Q

cerebral cortex

A

involved in most of human advanced thinking processes

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14
Q

thalamus

A

directs incoming information from sense receptors (such as vision and hearing) to the cerebrum

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15
Q

hypothalamus

A

regulates eating, drinking, sexual behavior and is involved in processing basic emotions

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16
Q

limbic system

A

regulate many instinctive behaviors (ex: reactions to stressful events and eating and sexual behavior

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17
Q

amygdala

A

structure of the limbic system & critical in emotions such as fear

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18
Q

hippocampus

A

part of limbic system & plays role in memory

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19
Q

what are possible causes of brain dysfunction?

A

head injury & diseases that cause brain deterioration (ex: Alzheimer’s)

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20
Q

behavioral genetics

A

study of genetics of personality and abnormality. concerned with extent to which behaviors inherited and identifying the processes by which genes affect behavior.

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21
Q

dopamine

A
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22
Q

norepinephrine

A
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23
Q

epigenetics

A
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24
Q

antipsychotic drugs

A
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25
Q

antidepressant drugs

A
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26
Q

antianxiety drugs

A
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27
Q

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT

A
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28
Q

psychosurgery

A

neurosurgical treatment of psychiatric disorders

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29
Q

classical conditioning

A
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30
Q

operant conditioning

A
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31
Q

modeling

A
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32
Q

observational learning

A
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33
Q

systematic desensitization therapy

A
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34
Q

cognitive-behavioral therapy

A
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35
Q

humanistic theories

A
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36
Q

humanistic therapy

A
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37
Q

psychoanalysis

A
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38
Q

catharsis

A
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39
Q

repression

A
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40
Q

ego psychology

A
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41
Q

psychodynamic therapies

A
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42
Q

interpersonal therapy (IPT)

A
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43
Q

client centered therapy (CCT)

A
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44
Q

family systems theories

A
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45
Q

dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)

A
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46
Q

mindfulness

A
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47
Q

assessment

A

the process of evaluating psychological, social, and emotional functioning through a variety of clinical methods

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48
Q

presenting problem

A

a psychological disorder present in an individual- must determine in order to provide treatment

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49
Q

what type of information is collected during an assessment?

A

-current symptoms and current ways of coping with stress
-recent events and physical conditions
-drug and alcohol use
-personal and family history of psychological disorders
-cognitive functioning
-sociocultural background

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50
Q

syndrome

A

symptoms that cluster together

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51
Q

diagnosis

A

identifies the characteristics of a specific disorder

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52
Q

content validity for a questionnaire or test

A

test assesses all important aspects of a phenomenon

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53
Q

face validity for a questionnaire or test

A

test appears to measure what it is supposed to measure

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54
Q

concurrent validity for a questionnaire or test

A

test yields the same results as other measures of the same behavior, thoughts, or feelings

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55
Q

construct validity for a questionnaire or test

A

test measures what it is supposed to measure, not something else

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56
Q

productive validity for a questionnaire or test

A

test predicts the behavior it is supposed to measure

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57
Q

validity

A

the accuracy of a test in assessing what it is supposed to measure

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58
Q

reliability

A

indicates the consistency of a test in measuring what it is supposed to measure

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59
Q

test-retest reliability

A

test produces similar results when given at two points in time

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60
Q

internal reliability

A

different parts of the same test produce similar results

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61
Q

alternate form reliability

A

two versions of the same test produce similar results

62
Q

intertester/interjudge reliability

A

two or more raters or judges who administer and score a test come to similar conclusions

63
Q

clinical interview

A

face-to-face conversation between a mental health professional and a client where information is gathered about the client’s behavior, attitudes, emotions, life history, and personality.

64
Q

mental status exam

A

used to organize the information collected during the interview and systematically evaluate the client through a series of questions

65
Q

what are the steps of a mental status exam?

A

-clinician assesses client’s appearance and behaviors
-clinician takes note of individual’s thought processes
-clinician evaluates the individual’s mood and affect
-clinician observes the individual’s intellectual functioning
-clinician assesses general awareness to their surrounding and their orientation to time, person, and place

66
Q

sensorium

A

awareness of surrounding and orientating to time, person and place

67
Q

structured interview

A

clinicians ask individual a series of standardized questions about symptoms and use concrete criteria to score responses

68
Q

unstructured interview

A

open-ended questions are asked and directed by the clinician based on the client’s responses

69
Q

semi-structured interview

A

combine standardized with open-ended questions that allow clinicians to follow up with specific questions in order to gather more personalized information

70
Q

symptom questionairres

A

self-report measure used to quickly determine a person’s symptoms

71
Q

BDI-ll

A

one of the most widely used self-report symptom measurements in both research and clinical practice for assessing depression (21 items each with 4 levels rated on a scale from 0-3)

72
Q

personality inventories

A

questionnaires designed to assess people’s typical ways of thinking, feeling, and behaving

73
Q

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

A

most widely used personality inventory that assessed 1o major characteristics or problems (ex: paranoia, anxiety, social introversion, substance abuse, etc.)

74
Q

what is behavioral observation used for?

A

used to assess deficits in their skills or their ways of handling situations- doesn’t rely on individuals reporting and interpretation of their own behaviors

75
Q

intelligence tests

A

used to determine an individual’s level of cognitive functioning and consists of a series of tasks that involve both verbal and nonverbal skills

76
Q

IQ

A

Intelligence Quotient- used to describe a method of comparing an individuals’ score on an intelligence test with the performance of individuals in the same age group

77
Q

neuropsychological tests

A

used to detect specific cognitive deficits associated with a neurological impairment

78
Q

CT scan and its uses?

A

computerized tomography- enhanced x-ray procedures; can reveal brain injury, tumors, and structural abnormalities

79
Q

PET scan and its uses?

A

positron-emission tomography- can provide a picture activity in the brain by injecting a harmless radioactive isotope; can be used to show differences in the activity level of specific areas of the brain between people with & without a psychological disorder

80
Q

SPECT scan and its uses/limitations?

A

single photon emission computerized tomography- similar to PET scan but different tracer substance is injected; less accurate but less expensive than PET

81
Q

MRI scan and its uses?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging- creates magnetic field around the patient that causes realignment of hydrogen atoms in the brain; can be used to assess CHANGES in brain activity

82
Q

psychophysiological tests & EEG

A

used to detect changes in the brain and nervous system that reflect emotional and psychological changes; electroencephalogram- measures electrical activity along scalp produced by firing of neurons in the brain

83
Q

diagnosis

A

a set of symptoms that tend to occur together

84
Q

classification system

A

a set of syndromes and the rules for determining whether an individual’s symptoms are part of these syndromes

85
Q

what is the DSM?

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders- classification system most commonly used in the US

86
Q

what does it mean to “reify” a diagnosis?

A

seeing the diagnosis as real and true rather than as the product of a set of judgements about how symptoms tend to occur together

87
Q

comorbidity and why does it often occur?

A

many ppl who are diagnosed with one disorder also meet the criteria for at least one other disorder- often occurs because certain symptoms show up in the criteria for several different disorders

88
Q

What is the disorder specific to Japan in which individuals are extremely afraid that their body displeases, embarrasses, or is offensive to their people?

A

Taijin kyofusho

89
Q

How do we consider culture in therapy according to the multicultural model?

A

All parts of culture should be considered in the treatment plan.

90
Q

What was so notable about the result of Phineas Gage’s accident?

A

He held the same level of intelligence and was able-bodied; however, his personality had changed entirely

91
Q

modeling

A

people learn new behaviors from imitating the behaviors modeled by important people in their lives

92
Q

Ivan Pavlov conducted experiments on the salivary glands of dogs. In his experiments, Pavlov paired a previously neutral stimulus with a stimulus until the neutral stimulus was able to illicit a response in the dog on its own. This learning process is known as…

A

Classical Conditioning

93
Q

Where is the Wernicke’s area located?

A

left temporal lobe

94
Q

What are the four D’s?

A

deviance, distress, dysfunction, danger

95
Q

behavioral contracting

A

behavioral therapy technique that provides rewards for reaching goals in increments of severity

96
Q

Which approach views disorders as not vastly different from normal functioning?

A

sociocultural approach

97
Q

what kind of medication is often prescribed for anxiety disorders?

A

SSRIs

98
Q

transference

A

A client with parental problems believing the therapist is just like those parents.

99
Q

what emotion is the amygdala critical in?

A

fear

100
Q

anxiety

A

future-oriented apprehension, tension, or sense of dread

101
Q

what distinguishes anxiety from fear?

A

anxiety is future oriented, while fear is an immediate emotional response to danger/perceived threat in the environment

102
Q

which part of the brain initiates the body’s flight-or-fight response and what two systems are affected in this response?

A

hypothalamus; autonomic nervous system and the adrenal-cortical system

103
Q

what are 4 characteristic responses to threat?

A

somatic, emotional, cognitive, and behavioral

104
Q

panic disorder

A

when panic attacks become a common occurrence, when they are not usually provoked by any particular situation/are unexpected, and when person begins to worry about having them and changes behavior as result of worry

105
Q

panic attacks

A

short, but intense periods during which one experiences symptoms of anxiety (ex: heart palpitations, dizziness, intense dread, etc.)

106
Q

what are some biological theories of panic disorder?

A

fight-or-flight response is poorly regulated, dysregulation of norepinephrine in locus ceruleus (area of brain stem), increased anxiety symptoms premenstrual periods and postpartum

107
Q

cognitive theories of panic disorder?

A

anxiety sensitivity, interoceptive awareness, interoceptive conditioning

108
Q

interoceptive conditioning

A

bodily cues at beginning of attacks have become conditioned stimuli signaling new attacks

109
Q

interoceptive awareness

A

heightened awareness of bodily cues

110
Q

anxiety sensitivity

A

belief that bodily symptoms have harmful consequences

111
Q

conditioned avoidance response

A

association of certain situations with symptoms of panic and may begin o feel them again if they return to the situations

112
Q

biological treatment of panic disorder?

A

SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) and SNRIs (serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

113
Q

cognitive-behavioral therapy

A

clients confront the situations/thoughts that arouse anxiety

114
Q

separation anxiety disorder

A

developmentally inappropriate and excessive fear or anxiety concerning separation from those to whom the individual is attached- associated with childhood onset

115
Q

biological theories of separation anxiety disorder

A

behavioral inhibition- children who are shy, fearful, and irritable as toddlers and cautious, quiet, and introverted as school-age children

116
Q

treatments for separation anxiety disorder

A

pharmacotherapy and cognitive-behavioral therapy- recieved the most empirical support

117
Q

selective mutism (SM)

A

the failure to speak in specific social situations- anxiety disorder

118
Q

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

A

experience of excessive anxiety about ordinary, everyday situations and is intrusive/causes distress or functional impairment

119
Q

social anxiety disorder

A

anxiety surrounding social situations caused by fear of being rejected, judged, or humiliated and leads individuals to avoid social interactions and situations associated with potential social scrutiny.

120
Q

what do twin studies show us about anxiety disorders?

A

suggest that there is a genetic basis of anxiety disorders

121
Q

specific phobias

A

unreasonable or irrational fears of specific objects or situations

122
Q

what are the 5 DSM-5 categories of specific phobias?

A

animal type, natural environment type, situational type, blood injection-injury type, and other

123
Q

animal-type phobia

A

fear of specific animals or insects (e.g., dogs, cats, snakes, etc)

124
Q

natural environment type phobias

A

situations in the natural environment (e.g., storms, heights)

125
Q

situational type phobias examples

A

public transportation, tunnels``, flying, enclosed spaces, etc.

126
Q

blood-injection-injury type phobias

A

people diagnosed with fear of seeing blood or an injury- tends to run in families more than other phobias

127
Q

agoraphobia

A

fear of places where it might be hard to escape or to get help if one becomes anxious; often includes public transportation, open spaces, shops/theaters, crowded places, etc.

128
Q

obsessive compulsive disorder

A

anxiety disorder characterized by obsessions (persistent thoughts) and compulsions (rituals)

129
Q

obsessions (OCD)

A

thoughts images, ideas, or urges that are persistent, repetitive, intrusive, unwanted and that usually cause significant anxiety or distress

130
Q

compulsions (OCD)

A

repetitive behaviors or mental acts that an individual feels he or she must perform in an effort to reduce anxiety and distress

131
Q

hoarding

A

psychological disorder that involves uncontrollable urges to keep items that have no utility or instrumental value (form of OCD)

132
Q

trichotillomania

A

OCD type disorder characterized by repetitive pulling out of hair

133
Q

excoriation

A

OCD type disorder characterized by picking at one’s own skin resulting in skin lesions, scars, and or/ infections that causes disruption in daily function

134
Q

body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)

A

an OCD disorder characterized by excessive concern about physical appearance which results in significant distress and the impairment of interpersonal situations

135
Q

what is exposure and response prevention and what disorder is it commonly used to treat?

A

repeated exposures to the focus of client’s obsession and prevents compulsive responses to the resulting anxiety; OCD

136
Q

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and acute stress disorder (ASD)

A

psychological and physiological consequences of exposure to traumatic events

137
Q

flashbacks (PTSD)

A

uncontrollable, intense, and repeated episodes that force the individual to relive the traumatic experience

138
Q

Acute stress disorder (ASD)

A

occurs in response to traumatic events but is diagnosed when symptoms arise within 1 moth of exposure to the stressor but last no longer than 4 weeks

139
Q

adjustment disorder

A

consists of emotional/behavioral symptoms that arise within 3 mo of the stressor

140
Q

reactive attachment disorder (RAD)

A

occurs as a result of of severe neglect, abuse, and maltreatment that typically occurs btwn 9 mo-5 yrs causing affected children have difficulty forming emotional attachments to others

141
Q

OCD is a multifactorial disorder with (minimal/strong) genetic predispositions

A

strong

142
Q

people prone to panic attacks have (heightened/minimized interoceptive awareness?

A

heightened (interoceptive awareness: awareness of bodily cues)

143
Q

psychopathology

A

another name for AP- focuses on behaviors that are atypical or unexpected

144
Q

cultural relativism

A

the view that there ar eno universal standards or rules for labeling a behavior abnormal; behaviors can be labeled abnormal only relative to cultural norms

145
Q

cultural universality

A

the view that values, concepts, and behaviors characteristic of diverse cultures ca be viewed, understood, and judges according to universal standards

146
Q

cultural relativism vs. cultural universality

A

normal/abnormal vary from culture to culture v. normal/abnormal is same across cultures

147
Q

Szasz’s critiques of abnormal psychology

A

mental health is a myth & created to control and change people

148
Q

Rosenhan’s critiques of AP

A

ppl are admitted into hospitals even though they are completely sane

149
Q

prevalence

A

proportion of total pop w/ a disorder in a specific period of time

150
Q

lifetime prevalence

A

proportion of pop who have ever had a disorder

151
Q

incidence

A

rate at which new cases arise over a period of time (ex: COVID-19 rates of new cases)

Abnormal Psychology (4 decks)

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