:)(: Flashcards
where do u find the 4 major plexi of body
4 major: cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral (CBLS)
spinal cord
connection:
- through which part of the spinal cord does the sensory nerve enter ?
- & motor neuron leave?
appearance:
- where do u find grey and white matter in the spinal cord?
spinal cord:
connection:
sensory neuron enters via the dorsal root
motor neuron exits via the ventral root
appearance:
grey matter: inside
white matter: outside
- dorsal root: sensory neuron cell bodies. goes into the spinal cord - synapse
why is it bad if fibrous pericardium gets fluid in it?
bc cannot expand - so fluid drains into sac and builds up and compress the heart = cardiac tampondade
whats the 9 regions of abdo?
which organs are retroperitoneal?
SAD PUCKER
S: suprarenal (adrenal) gland
A: aorta/IVC
D: duodenum (second and third part)
P: pancreas (except tail)
U: ureters
C: colon (ascending and descending)
K: kidneys
E: (o)oesophagus
R: rectum
label these structures :)
what is the epiploic foramen?
is the passage of communication, or foramen, between the greater sac (general cavity (of the abdomen)), and the lesser sac.
how many layers of elastin are in muscular arteries?
arteries further from the heart: muscular arteries (normally named arteries) - less elastin, more connective tissue. ONLY 2 layers of elastin - external and internal elastic lamina. rest = smooth muscle
at which level does the thoracic aorta -> abdominal aorta?
@ T12
- great / long saphenous vein: drains the medial aspect of leg to the ? vein?
- small / short saphenous vein: drains posterial aspect of leg into ? vein?
- great / long saphenous vein: drains the medial aspect of leg to the femoral vein
- small / short saphenous vein: drains posterial aspect of leg into popliteal vein
describe the structure of the lympahtic system
- where does the lympahtic system drain into venous system?
lymphatic system drains back into the right and left venous angle: junction where subclavian vein and internal jugular vein meet
lymph system is split into:
thoracic duct: drains the left head and neck, left upper limb, left thorax and both of lower limbs . then goes into the left venous angle
right lymphatic trunk: right arm, right thorax, right head and neck
which unpaired artery supplies:
a) spleen
b) stomach
c) pancreas
d) duodenum
e) jujeum
f) sigmoid colon
g) ascending
and
h) descending colon
a) spleen: coeliac trunk
b) stomach: coeliac trunk
c) pancreas: superior mesenteric artery
d) duodenum: coeliac trunk
e) jujenum: superior mesenteric artery
f) sigmoid colon: inferior mesenteric artery
g) ascending: superior mesenteric artery
and
h) descending colon: inferior mesenteric artery
what do enteric neurons use as their major NT? (3)
Ach, NO and seratonin
where do the SNS preganglionic fibres synapse (3)
SNS preganglionic fibres synapse in:
i) paravertebral ganglia of the sympathetic chain (T1-4 sympathetic chain).
T1 – T4 pre & post ganglionic fibres synapse within the sympathetic trunk (paravertebral ganglia).
ii) prevertebral ganglia: T5-L2 the nerve fibres from the spinal cord pass through the sympathetic ganglia and synapse outside the sympathetic trunk (prevertebral or collateral ganglia).)
iii) chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla (pass independently)
where are sympathetic postganglionic neurons that innervate abdominal viscera located?
what ^ made from?
in prevertebral ganglia:
T5-T9 = great splanchnic nerve (The greater splanchnic nerve is formed from the preganglionic fibres of T5–T9, which traverse the paravertebral ganglion and terminate in the coeliac and superior mesenteric ganglia)
T10-T12 = lesser splanchnic nerve
BOTH SYNAPSE ON POSTGANGLIONIC NEURONS IN THE CELIAC GANGLION
- postganglionic fibres innervate smooth muscle and glands in stomach, small intestines, liver, kidney and spleen
which sympathetic preganglionic fibres pass through the sympathetic chain and travel in lumbar splachnic nerves? what do they synapse on?
- L1-L2 sympathetic preganglionic fibres
- Synapse on postganglionic neurons in inferior mesenteric ganglion: innervates colon, rectum, bladder and genital
where do u find the cell bodies of the SNS in the spinal cord?
- cell bodies in lateral horn of the spinal cord
which vert levels does parasym innervation come from?
Craniosacral outflow:
a) Cranial nerves: III, VII, IX, X: organs in head
b) Sacral nerves: S2-S4: rectum, bladder and genitals
where is the myentric and submucosal plexi located?
each function?
myenteric plexus:
located: between circular and long. muscle layers
function: motility (peristalsis?)
submucosal plexus:
located: between submucosal and circular muscle layer
function: controls secretion and muscle function in the mucosal layer
describe the pathway for synapse for the release of adrenaline
- sympathetic pre-ganglionic fibres leaves spinal cord (via lateral horn) and goes through sympathetic trunk without synapsing
- goes through pre-vertebral ganglia without synapsing
- directly goes to cells of adrenal medulla: stimulates medullary cells to secrete adrenaline and noradrenaline
what is difference in somatic vs autonomic motor reflex?
main difference: in efferent branch:
autonomic = 2 step pathway -> preganglionic nerve synapse at post ganglionic neuron, which in turn project to effector
somatic: projects directly onto skeletal muscle
where are SGLT and GLUT2 located in entrocytes?
SGLT1 is located in the apical membrane of enterocytes,
GLUT2 is located only in the basolateral membrane;
whats the difference between pinocytosis and receptor mediate endocytosis?
Pinocytosis is nonspecific uptake of small droplets of extracellular fluid
Receptor-mediated endocytosis a specific receptor protein on the plasma membrane that “recognizes” an extracellular molecule and binds with it
Folding of newly synthesized polypeptides in the crowded cellular environment requires the assistance of so-called molecular WHAT proteins
Folding of newly synthesized polypeptides in the crowded cellular environment requires the assistance of so-called molecular chaperone proteins
draw structure of a a.a.
list 4 things that are derived from cholesterol :)
- steroid hormones
- sex hormones
- vitamin D
- bile salts
What makes cancer cells differnt to normal cells? (2)
- Does not respond to normal cell cycle signals
- Does not respond to signals for cell destruction
give three ways in which cancer cells can evade apoptosis
- eliminating the internal sensors the trigger apoptosis e.g. hypoxia, lack of nutrients,
- upregulating anti-apoptotic factors (e.g. bcl-2)
- Downregulation pro-apoptotic factors (e.g. bax)
name an anti growth signal that cancer cells can become insensitve to
RB !
what is the warburg effect?
Modification of metabolism to support neoplastic proliferation – Warburg effect:
cancer exhibit glucose fermentation even when enough oxygen - allows proliferating cells to convert nutrients such as glucose more efficiently into biomass promoting anabolism.
uncontrolled proliferation of TFGa makes what cancer?
Oesophageal cancer
name a receptor, when overexpressed causes cancer?
HER2 / ErbB2: breast cancer
what is depurination?
•Spontaneous cleavage of bond linking purine (A or G) to the deoxyribose removes base.
how cna tumours cause death (3)
- Organ failure
- Haemorrhage
- Immunosuppression and death by opportunistic infections
what class of pathogen is malaria?
protozoa
3 main shapes of bacteria?
Spherical (cocci)
Cylindrical rod (bacilli)
Curved/spiral (spirochetes)
what colour does ziehl-neelosn stain turn mycobacteria?
red !
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
resistant to which antibiotics?
•Resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics which is used to inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
innate immunity tries to take out pathogens. the system uses complement blood proteins. name 2 that do this and their role
Uses complement blood proteins that
- opsonise (act as markers for phagocytes)
- cytolyse (directly attack via membrane attack complex (MAC))
- enhance inflammation
which bacteria do exotoxins and which do endotoxins?
exootoxins: gram postive & gram negative
endotoxins: gram negative -> from the LPS layer of wall !
what can type 2,3, & 4 hypersensitivty be
Type II: IgG/IgM to patients own RBCs due to M. pneumonia
Type III: complement activation causing inflammation e.g. S. pyogenes causing glomerulonephritis
Type IV: T cell mediated e.g. TB granulomas
•Increased K+ permeability of the post-synaptic membrane will result in which type of potential?
Inhibitory post synpatic signal
the normal pH range of blood = ?
can u name a location in the body which is alkali?
•The normal pH of blood: 7.35-7.45
- If blood pH <7.35 = Acidosis = Acidaemia
- If blood pH >7.45 = Alkalosis = Alkalaemia
alkali: small intestine - pH of 8
whats a buffer?
A solution that can resist pH change upon the addition of an acid or a base.
what is the equation for bicarobate buffer? what enzume?
Co2 + H20 ⇌ H2C03 ⇌ HCO3- + H+
enyme: carbonic anhydrase
acid / base disorders:
If the problem is with the respiratory system, the kidneys can compensate by altering HCO3-. How is this altered for acidosis & alkalsosi?
If the problem is with the respiratory system, kidneys:
- In acidosis: increases HCO3-
- In alkalosis: ¯ HCO3-
acid / base disorders:
If the problem is metabolic, the lungs can compensate by altering Co2 levels. How is this altered for acidosis & alkalsosi?
- the lungs can compensate by altering CO2 Levels
- In acidosis: increases RR (decreases CO2)
- In alkalosis: decreaeses¯ RR (increases CO2)
