9.1 GI Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What sort of toxins can the gut be exposed to?

A
  • Chemical
  • Bacteria
  • Viruses
  • Protozoa
  • Nematodes (Roundworms)
  • Cestodes (Tapeworms)
  • Trematodes (Flukes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are commensal bacteria?

A

Make up part of the normal gut flora, have a role in protecting the gut against pathogenic bacteria, viruses and protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are GI protective mechanisms?

A
  • Sight, smell, memory
  • Saliva (bacteriostatic secretions)
  • Gastric acid (acidic environment)
  • Small intestinal secretions (Bile)
  • Colonic mucus (protects from commensal bacteria)
  • Anaerobic environment (small bowel, colon)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does the amount of commensal bacteria change along the gut?

A

More bacteria present the further along length of gut.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is the stomach described as a microaeriophilic environment?

A

Decreased partial pressure of oxygen but not an anaerobic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the environment of the colon

A

Anaerobic environment

Large gut micro biome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the benefits of the micro biome?

A
  • Harmful bacteria cannot compete for nutrients (outcompeted by gut microbiome) and cannot multiply and colonise
  • Microbiome produces antimicrobial substances
  • Helps to develop newborn’s immune system
  • Produce certain nutrients (Vit K)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Poor microbiota diversity increases risk of :

A

Obesity
Inflammatory bowel disease
Poor response to chemotherapy
Poor response to insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do bacteria in the colon produce?

A

SCFA (acetate, propionate, butyrate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of butyrate?

A

energy source for colonocytes

helps regulate gut environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of acetate?

A

Involved in cholesterol metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of propionate?

A

Helps regulate satiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How might fibre intake influence our health?

A

High fibre diet = binds bile salts, more bile excreted, more cholesterol used to produce new bile salt, lower levels of cholesterol. Influences composition of gut microbiota (probiotic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a probiotic?

A

A substance that encourages the growth of our gut micro biome by introducing live bacteria and yeasts delivered in food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do sweeteners affect our micro biome?

A

Disrupt diversity of microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What influence does a gluten free diet have on people without gluten insensitivity/coeliacs disease?

A

Negative effect as lowers number of key species of gut microbiota
Help tighten tight junctions, reducing leaky gut, cant absorb some larger nutrient molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do proton pump inhibitors influence the gut microbiome?

A

Stop acid production, stopping our innate protection. Increases risk of GI infections and disrupting the microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is consuming antibiotics within meat harmful?

A

Disrupts gut microbiome, linked to obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are prebiotics?

A

Essentially food for the existing microbiota (accessible carbs and fibres - indigestible for us)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a faecal microbiota transplant?

A

Take faeces from healthy donors and give to patients with poor gut health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is pseudomembraneous colitis treated?

A

Faecal enemas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What infection commonly causes pseudomembraneous colitis?

A

Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the possible routes of transmission of faecal microbiota transplant?

A
  • NG/duodenal tubes (unappealing for most patients)- Can be done under anaesthetic
  • Upper GI endoscopy
  • Colonoscopy
  • Transplant can be put in Caecum (allowed to move throughout colon) - Distributed throughout length of colon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are successful uses of faecal microbiota transplant?

A

Pseudomembraneous colitis
Clostridium difficile
IBD
Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why is a faecal microbiota transplant preferable to antibiotic treatment of clostridium difficile?

A

Up to 90% resulting of diarrhoea following FMT (30% in vancomycin treatment)
No negative side effects
No antibiotic resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What criteria makes someone a suitable donor for faecal microbiota transplant?

A

10-25 year olds
Donors have not used antibiotics, laxatives or diet pills in last 3 months
Do not have GI disease
Completely screened (inflammatory markers, Hepatitis, HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is a stool sample processed for FMT?

A

From a suitable donor
Fresh stool to transplantation or storage ( 1 hour)
Stool centrifuged filtered and diluted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What gram negative rod bacteria can infect the gut?

A
  • Salmonella
  • Campylobacter
  • Shigella
  • Enterotoxigenic E-coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What gram positive bacterium can infect the gut?

A

Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the symptoms of a GI infection with salmonella?

A

Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea (mostly non-bloody), fever, abdominal cramping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the main transmission route of salmonella?

A

Spread by ingesting food and water contaminated by salmonella bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How long does it take to become symptomatic after being infected with salmonella?

A

48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe the infective process of salmonella

A

Ingested salmonella bacteria must travel through stomach to small intestine
Enter small intestinal cells by endocytosis
Pass through to submucosa and taken up by macrophages
Carried to reticuloendothelial system
Multiply intracellularly, causing lymphoid hyperplasia and hypertrophy
Salmonella reenter bowel via the liver and gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is salmonella usually treated?

A

In healthy individual usually self-limiting (2/3 days)

Fluid resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is campylobacter?

A

A spiral or s shaped gram negative organism. Mainly microaerophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the route of transmission of campylobacter?

A

Falcon-oral route

From ingestion of poultry faeces ( lots of campylobacter in poultry GI tract )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How long does it take to be symptomatic with a campylobacter infection?

A

Longer incubation period (1-7 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are symptoms of an infection of campylobacter?

A

Fever, abdominal cramping, perfuse diarrhoea (can be bloody)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does campylobacter cause its effects?

A

Must pass through the stomach to infect the small intestine

Release cytotoxin similar to cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the treatment for campylobacter infection?

A
  • Fluid/electrolyte replacement
  • Consider antibiotics if bloody diarrhoea

Generally self limiting and lasts days to week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where does campylobacter colonise to cause bloody diarrhoea?

A

The colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Who does shigella infection commonly affect?

A

Commonly affects young children under 5 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a dysentery?

A

Any of several inflammatory disorders of the intestines, especially of the colon, characterised by abdominal pain, fever and severe diarrhoea often with blood and mucus in the stool.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does shigella spread?

A

Only needs small dose to infect

  • ingesting infected food/water
  • person to person (sometime flies)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the pathology of shigella?

A

Ingested shigellae invade large intestine colonocytes via endocytosis
Escape from endocytic vesssels
Replicate intracellularly
Invades neighbouring cells
Mucosal abscess forms as the cells in the colon die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are symptoms of shigella?

A

Bloody diarrhoea with mucus and abdominal cramping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How long does a shigella infection last?

A

Resolves in a week

48
Q

What is enterotoxigenic e-coli?

A

A gram negative rod bacterium that is a commensal of the colon but can also be a pathogen

49
Q

How does enterotoxigenic e-coli spread?

A

Spread by faecal oral route in contaminated water

50
Q

What is a common cause of travellers diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxigenic e-coli

51
Q

What is the pathology of the enterotoxigenic e-coli?

A

Invades small intestine and adheres to the enterocytes.
Produces enterotoxins
Cause hypersecretion of chloride ions from enterocytes
Sodium ions follow into gut lumen
Water move into gut lumen

52
Q

What are enterotoxins?

A

Proteins produced by bacteria that is toxic to enterocyte

53
Q

What is the main symptom of entertoxigenic e-coli infection?

A

Perfuse diarrhoea

54
Q

Which infections of the GI produce bloody diarrhoea and why?

A

Shigella and campylobacter as involve infection of the large intestine.

55
Q

Which GI infections cause watery diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxigenic e-coli

Salmonella

56
Q

What is haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Triad of anaemia, thrombocytopenia and AKI

57
Q

Which GI infection can cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Shigella

Campylobacter

58
Q

Why are antibiotics only prescribed in serious cases of GI infection?

A

Antibiotic resistance

59
Q

How does duration of infection vary in GI infections?

A

Enterotoxigenic e-coli
Salmonella (days)
shigella (week)
Campylobacter (weeks)

60
Q

Which gram negative rod is most likely to cause bloody diarrhoea?

A

Shigella

61
Q

What is clostridium difficile?

A

Gram positive, anaerobic spore forming bacillus

62
Q

How is clostridium difficile spread?

A

Minor component of GI tract

Faecal-oral route

63
Q

Why is clostridium difficile easily spread?

A

As produce spores that are very hard to get rid of

64
Q

What commonly causes a c-difficile infection?

A

Happens following antibiotic therapy (broad spectrum)

Antibiotics disrupt normal gut microbiota allowing c-diff to colonise gut

65
Q

What happens when clostridium difficile colonises the gut?

A

Releases toxins A and B into the epithelial cells oft he colon

66
Q

What is the function of the toxins released by clostridium difficile?

A

Toxin A = enterotoxins that results in excessive secretion and inflammation (causes diarrhoea)
Toxin B = cytotoxin (kills colonocytes)

67
Q

How does a clostridium difficile infection present in patients?

A
  • mostly asymptomatic
  • varying degrees of diarrhoea (mild to terrible, usually non-bloody)
  • abdominal cramping
68
Q

What are rare complications of clostridium difficile?

A
Pseudomembraneous colitis 
Toxic megacolon (surgery needed)
69
Q

What is toxic megacolon?

A

Massive dilation of the colon

Needs surgery to remove before perforation and causing peritonitis

70
Q

What is pseudomembraneous colitis?

A

Inflammatory condition, characterised by elevated yellow plaques joining in the lumen of the colon to form a pseudomembrane

71
Q

What is the treatment of clostridium difficile?

A
  • Remove offending antibiotic
  • Fluid resuscitation
  • Metronidazole/Vancomycin - ABX to treat c-diff
  • Probiotics
72
Q

What are 2 viral causes of gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus

Norovirus

73
Q

What are 3 parasitic causes of gastroenteritis?

A

Cryptosporidium
Giardiasis
Entamoeba

74
Q

What is a common cause of gastroenteritis in under 5s?

A

Bacterial - shigella

Viral - rotavirus

75
Q

Who is most commonly affected by rotavirus?

A

Children under 5

Adults reparable you affected as have immunity

76
Q

How does rotavirus spread?

A

Small dose via faecal-oral route

77
Q

What are the first symptoms of rotavirus?

A
Vomiting with a fever 
Diarrhoea follows (lasting up to a week)
78
Q

Why does diarrhoea occur in rotavirus?

A

Chloride secretion, resulting in Na movement into lumen. Water follows.
SGLT1 disruption resulting in malabsorption, Mose sodium and glucose in the gut lumen exerting an osmotic pressure and drawing water out of colonocytes
Reduced brush border enzyme function, molecules aren’t broken down and absorbed. Stay in gut lumen and exert an osmotic pressure

79
Q

What is the treatment of rotavirus?

A

Managing dehydration due to fluid loss

80
Q

How is SGLT1 disrupted in rotavirus?

A

SGLT1 function reduced
Reduced movement of Na/glucose into enterocyte
Higher osmotic load in gut
Water moves into gut via osmosis

81
Q

Why is there malabsorption in rotavirus?

A

As there is brush border dysfunction

82
Q

What is the most common cause of non bacterial gastroenteritis?

A

Norovirus

83
Q

What is Norwalk virus?

A

Norovirus

84
Q

How contagious is norovirus?

A

Highly contagious, only requires small dose (18 particles) and resistant to cleaning

85
Q

How is chloride secretion affected in rotavirus infection?

A

Rotavirus causes an increase in cAMP within the enterocyte
Stimulates opening of the CFTR channels
Chloride ions are released into the lumen of the gut

86
Q

Why does rotavirus predominantly affect young people whilst norovirus affects any age?

A

Rotavirus - develop immunity, rare in adults

Norovirus - dont develop immunity due to huge number of strains, can affect people at any age

87
Q

What structures are affected in a norovirus infection?

A
Enterocytes of the small intestine. 
Damages microvilli (brush border enzyme disruption)
88
Q

How long does norovirus last?

A

1-4 days

89
Q

What are the symptoms of norovirus?

A

Vomiting, watery diarrhoea, fever

  • anion secretion
  • vomiting due to delayed gastric emptying
90
Q

What is the treatment for norovirus?

A

Oral rehydration therapy

91
Q

What are the 3 Protozoa that can cause gastroenteritis?

A

Cryptosporidium
Giardiasis lamblia
Entamoeba

92
Q

What type of Protozoa is cryptosporidium?

A

A sporozoan

- non-motile

93
Q

What type of Protozoa is giardia lamblia?

A

A flagellate

- move by rotating a whip like flagella

94
Q

What type of Protozoa is entamoeba?

A

Amoeba

- move by extending cytoplasmic projections

95
Q

How is cryptosporidium transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral route

Bodies of water infected by animal faeces

96
Q

Who are commonly affected by cryptosporidium?

A
  • People who swim regularly in pools with insufficient sanitation (certain strains of Cryptosporidium are chlorine-resistant)
  • Child-care workers
  • Parents of infected children
  • People caring for other people with cryptosporidiosis
  • Backpackers, hikers, and campers who drink unfiltered, untreated water
  • Petting Farms and open farms with public access
  • People, including swimmers, who swallow water from contaminated sources
  • People handling infected cattle
  • People exposed to human faeces
97
Q

Describe the infective cycle of cryptosporidium

A
  1. Disease caused by ingestion of an oocyst (a cyst containing parasite)
  2. Reproduces in epithelial cells of distal small intestine
  3. Oocyst excreted in faces to continue cycle
98
Q

What are the symptoms of cryptosporidium infection?

A

Watery diarrhoea

  • Malabsorption (brush border enzymes affected)
  • Chloride secretion
99
Q

How is cryptosporidium infection treated?

A

Normally self limiting - supportive treatment with fluids

Occasionally anti-parasitic treatment in at risk groups (AIDS patients)

100
Q

What are the symptoms of giardia lamblia infection?

A
Usually asymptomatic 
If symptomatic (appear after 10+ days incubation period)
• Diarrhoea
• Abdominal cramping
• Can last up to 6 weeks
Symptoms more common in children 
Common cause of persistent diarrhoea
101
Q

How is giardia lamblia spread?

A

Faecal oral route. Water supplies often affected in developing countries.

  • swimming
  • eating uncooked contaminated food
  • direct contact
  • drinking contaminated water
  • travelling to countries where giardiasis is common
102
Q

Describe the life cycle of giardia lamblia

A
  1. Cyst is ingested
    • Stomach acid/ pancreatic enzymes release parasite from cyst which then multiplies in small intestine- incubation 1-2 weeks
    • Damages proximal small intestine causing symptoms (diarrhoea)
    • Villous atrophy occurs
  2. Parasite then goes back into cyst stage in colon, excreted to repeat the cycle
103
Q

How do we treat giardia lamblia infection?

A

Antibiotics

Fluid rehydration therapy

104
Q

What symptoms can occur post giardia lamblia infection?

A

Lactase deficiency resulting in lactose intolerance

105
Q

Where is entamoeba histolytica commonly seen?

A

In developing countries

106
Q

How does infection with entamoeba histolytica present?

A

Asymptomatic (80%)

If symptomatic = diarrhoea and very rarely liver abscesses

107
Q

How is entamoeba histolytica transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral route (contaminated food or water)

108
Q

Who does entamoeba histolytica commonly affect?

A
  • travel to tropical places with poor sanitary conditions
  • live in institutions with poos sanitary conditions
  • men who have sex with men
109
Q

Describe the infective cycle of entamoeba histolytica

A
  1. Ingestion of cyst
  2. Excystation occurs in colon where trophozoites invade mucosa
  3. Bloody diarrhoea and inflammatory changes occur (similar to IBD)
  4. Infection can also spread to liver (abscesses form)
  5. Cysts then pass out with faeces- infect others
110
Q

What is the treatment of entamoeba histolytica?

A
  • Anti-protozoals/metronidazole

* Severe colitis/toxic megacolon may require surgery

111
Q

What is the most common cause of travellers diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxic escherichia coli

112
Q

What are the symptoms of travellers diarrhoea?

A

Passing 3 or more loose watery stools

May have fever and abdominal pain

113
Q

What does symptoms of travellers diarrhoea for greater than 2 weeks suggest?

A

That the cause is not bacterial

114
Q

What are the risk factors for getting travellers diarrhoea?

A
Place you are visiting
Dietary exposure
Less than 6 years old
PPIs
Blood group O
115
Q

How do we prevent travellers diarrhoea?

A

Good hand hygiene

Food and water precautions

116
Q

How do we treat travellers diarrhoea?

A

Mild/moderate (less than 6 stools/24 hrs)
• Hydration (oral rehydration solutions/ safe water)
• Antidiarrhoeal agents
Severe (more than 6 stools/24 hrs)
• IV fluids (potentially)
• Antibiotics (if appropriate)