90 - Oesophagus Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three ‘sections’ of the oesophagus?

Describe the course within each section

A

Cervical
* Dorsal to the cricoid cartilage
* Runs to the left of the trachea
* Ends at the thoracic inlet

Thoracic
* To the left of the trachea at the thoracic inlet
* Becomes dorsal at the tracheal bifurcation
* Ends at the oesophageal hiatus

Terminal
* Short wedge shaped abdominal portion
* Extends from oeosphageal hiatus to the cardia

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2
Q

What are the layers of the oesophagus?

A

Mucosa
* Stratified squamous epithelium
* Longitudinal folds
* Herringbone appearance in cats

Submucosa
* Allows independent mucosal movement
* Contains mucous glands which lubricate mucosa

Muscularis
* 100% striated muscle in dogs
* Terminal portion is smooth muscle in cats
* Functional sphincters at cranial and caudal ends
* Arises from the cricopharyngeus muscle and circo-oesophageal tendon (fixed attachment to cricoid)
* Two distinct sheets which form left and right-handed spirals
* Fibres in inner coat become transverse, blending with oblique fibres of the stomach
* Fibres in outer coat become more longitudinal, blending with longitudinal fibres of stomach

Adventitia
* Blending with deep cervical fascia, pleura and peritoneum
* Connected to diaphragm by phrenico-oesophageal membrane

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3
Q

Describe the anatomy of the ‘Oesophageal Spincters’

A

Both are functional – not anatomical

Upper
* Formed by Cricopharyngeus and Thyropharyngeus muscles and associated elastic tissue
‘Pharyngoesophageal junction’

Lower
* Thickening of circumferential striated muscle at gastroesophageal junction (dogs)

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4
Q

What three other structures contribute to the lower oesiphageal ‘sphincter’

A
  1. Diaphragmatic crura
  2. Angle of the gastroesophageal junction
  3. Folds of mucosa
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5
Q

Describe the arterial supply to the oesophagus

A

‘Segmental’

Cervical region
* Cranial and caudal thyroid artery

Thoracic region
* Bronchoesophageal artery supplies the cranial 2/3
* Oesophageal branches of aorta and dorsal intercostal arteries supply caudal 1/3

Terminal region
* Branches of LEFT GASTRIC artery

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6
Q

Describe the venous drainage for the oesophagus

A

Cervical
* Drain into external Jugular

Thoracic
* Azygous

Terminal
* Portal venous system

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7
Q

Which Lymph nodes do the oesophagus drain to?

A
  • Medial retropharyngeal
  • Deep cervical
  • Cranial mediastinal
  • Portal
  • Splenic
  • Gastric
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8
Q

Describe the innervation to the oesophagus

A
  • Paired pharyngoesophageal nerves
  • Recurrent laryngeal nerve
  • Dorsal and ventral vagal trunks

Branches of the vagus nerve

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9
Q

Recap the phases of swallowing

A

1) Oropharnyngeal = Oral (voluntary), pharyngeal, cricopharnygeal = CN V, VII, IX, X, XII
2) Oesophageal = Sufficiently large food bolus generates primary and then secondary peristaltic waves
3) Gastroesophageal = Muscularis ahead of the bolus relaxes to propell through the GEJ into the stomach

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10
Q

What are the normal oesophageal transit times for dogs with liquid vs kibble?

A

In sternal = 2.6s for liquid; 4.4s for kibble

In right lateral = 7.2s for liquid; 8.9s for kibble

Primary peristaltic waves initiated by swallows more frequently in sternal than lateral

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11
Q

How can the causes of oesophageal dysphagia be divided?

A

Mechanical = Anatomic
* Mural/luminal = Hiatal hernia, Gastroesophagal intussusception, FB, stricture, mass
* Extramural = Vascular ring or mass

Functional = Neuromuscular
* Megaoesophagus = idiopathic or due to neuromuscular disease

Inflammatory = Oesophagitis
* Reflux due to GA, hiatal hernia, chronic vomiting, malpositioned tubes
* Other = corrosives, thermal burns, radiation, FBs

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12
Q

Summarise the reflex control of swallowing

A

Oral phase voluntary (CN V - tongue, VII - masticatory muscles, XII - tongue )
swallowing centre (IX - Pharnyx and X - Pharynx, larynx and oesophagus)

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13
Q

What factors contribute to an increased risk of dehiscence?

(5)

A
  1. Lack of serosa
  2. Segmental blood supply
  3. Motion from swallowing
  4. Tension due to fixed anatomical position
  5. Lack of omentum
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14
Q

Why does lack of serosa impair healing?

A

Serosa provides an early fibrin seal and mesothelial stem cells for healing

Pleural mesothelium does act similarly to serosa in the thoracic oesophagus

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15
Q

What is the most important factor in wound dehiscence of the oesophagus?

A

The integrity of the intramural plexus

  • Provided this is intact, and collateral blood supply is present in the other segments, resection and anastmosis can be successful
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16
Q

How can motion of the oesphagus be limited?

A

Witholding food and water
1-7 days

Place an G tube or enterostomy tube!

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17
Q

Which approach should be selected for the cervical oesophagus?

A

Ventral cervical midline

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18
Q

Which approaches are appropriate for the cranial thoracic oesophagus?

A

Median sternotomy
* Can be used with ventral cervical midline
* Access up to the tracheal bifurcation

Left ICS 3/4
* Ventral retraction of the brachiocephalic trunk and subclavian vessels to access

Right ICS 3/4/5
* Ventral retraction of the trachea
* Ventral retraction of the azygous at the heart base (or ligation if necessary)

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19
Q

Which approach is appropriate for the caudal thoracic oesophagus?

A

Left ICS 7/8/9
* Avoids the vena cava on the right
* Essential to identify/preserve the dorsal and ventral vagus n.

(Useful to combine with Left paracostal incision for omental pedical flap, tunneled through diaphragm)

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20
Q

Which approach is appropriate for the terminal oesophagus

A

Ventral midline coeliotomy
* Extended to caudal median sternotomy if needed
* +/- diaphragmatic incision

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21
Q

Which suture material should be used for the oesophagus?

A

Monofilament
Slowly absorbably
Minimally reactive

e.g. Polydioxanone (PDS) or Polygloconate (Maxon)

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22
Q

How should sutures be placed in the oesophagus?

A
  • Appositional
  • 2mm from cut edge
  • 2-3 mm apart
  • Single later
  • Simple interrupted

Submucosa is functional holding layer

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23
Q

Give 2 reasons why simple interrupted sutures preferred in the oesophagus

A
  • Reduce vascular compromise in the intramural layer
  • Allows dilation of the oesophagus

Can use double layer (superior to simple continuous)
Simple continous fine for otomy repair

(I like to preplace interupteds to ensure good bites before typing off)

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24
Q

Describe the technique for oesophagotomy

A
  • Suction material from oesophagus transorally
  • Isolate with moist lap sponges
  • Obstruct material with fingers, umbilical tape, atraumatic clamps
  • Incision made longitudinally
  • Bites 2 mm from edge and 2-3mm apart
  • Single layer closure = Full thickness with minimal mucosa, extraluminal knots
  • Two layer closure: Mucosa/submucosa intraluminal knots, muscularis/adventitia extraluminal knots
  • +/- omentalise/muscle patch

NPO 24- 48 hrs
Otube can delay healing

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25
Q

What steps should be taken pre op before considering oesophageal R&A?

A
  • Estimate length of resection pre op (Contrast US, CT, MRI)
  • Consider need for oesophageal substitution techniques
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26
Q

What % of the oesophagus can be resected

A

< 3 - 5 cm

Realistically any resection > 3-5 cm has an increased risk of dehiscence

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27
Q

What % of the cervical oesophagus and thoracic oesophagus has been successfully resected experimentally?

A

Cervical = 20%

Thoracic = 50%

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28
Q

Descibe the technique for oesophageal resection and anastomosis

A
  • Care with excessive mobilisation and damage to segmental blood supply
  • Stay sutures for handling and alignment
  • Single or two layer closure
  • Far oesophageal wall sutured first
  • Stapling devices can be used (via mouth, pharyngotomy or gastrostomy)

  • NPO for 1 week post op
  • G-tube or E-tube required
  • Follow up swallow study at 1 and 3 months - Assess for stricture and oesophageal function
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29
Q

What technique can be performed to reduce the tension on an oesophageal resection and anastomosis?

Describe key steps

A

Circumferential partial myotomy

  • Performed 2-3cm proximal, distal or both from the R&A site
  • Layers separated by injecting saline into the muscularis
  • Partial avoids damage to the intramural plexus compared with complete myotomy
  • Heals by second intention without stricture or diverticulum
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30
Q

How can the oesophageal repair be reinforced?

A

Oesophageal patching

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31
Q

How can oesophageal patches be applied?

A

On-lay = Reinforcement of incisions at risk of dehiscence due to poor blood supply

In-lay = Partial circumferental replacement

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32
Q

Which host tissues can be used as on-lay oesphageal patches?

A

Omental pedicle flap
Pericardium
Sternothyroideus
Longus coli
Free buccal mucosa
Vascularised pedicle graft from internal/external intercostal
Diaphragmetic pedicle
Stomach/small intestine
Adjacent lung

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33
Q

How is an omental pedicle flap formed?

A
  • Via paracostal or midline abdo incision
  • Right gastrepiploic arterial branches ligated
  • Brought through incision in diaphragm and tacked to site

Vascular, available, minimises stricture formation

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34
Q

What is the concern regarding using adjacent lung to reinforc oesophageal repair?

A

Oesophagopulmonary fistula formation

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35
Q

Which Xenogenic or artifical tissues can be used as oesophageal patches?

A

Porcine SIS
Lyophylised dura mater
Collagen coated vicryl mesh
PTFE (Gortex)

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36
Q

Which tissue types can be used for oesophageal substitution?

A

Skin grafts

Muscle grafts

GI based techniques

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37
Q

Name three techniques for oesophageal reconstruction using the cervical skin?

A

Inverse tubed skin graft
Creation of oesophagocutaneous fistulas
Omocervical cutaneous island axial pattern flap

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38
Q

Describe the techniques for inversed tubed skin graft

A

1:
* Single pedicle skin flap formed into tube and sutured distally to oesophagus cut end
* Two weeks later cranial skin pedicle cut and sutures to cranial end of oesophagus

2:
* Two oesophagocutaneous fistulas created by suturing cut end to skin
* Several weeks later skin between inverted to form tube connecting two ends of the oesophagus and cervical skin closed over the top

3:
* Omocervical cutaneous island axial pattern flap based on the omocervical vessels can create one stage tube skin graft

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39
Q

What are downsides to use of skin grafts for oesophageal substitution?

A
  • Can block with hair
  • Lacks peristalsis
  • Indistensible
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40
Q

Give three examples of oesophageal substitution using muscle grafts

Which location can they be used in?

A
  • Tubed intercostal musculpleural pedicle graft = Cranial thoracic
  • Diaphragmatic pedicle graft = Caudal thoracic (or terminal)
  • Epithelial lined oesophageal conduit from latissimus dorsi musculocutaenous flap based on thoracodorsal vessles = Thoracic
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41
Q

Name 4 techniques for oesophageal substitution using the GI tract

A
  • Gastric advancement and oesophagogastric anastomosis
  • Iso and antiperistaltic gastric tubes
  • Jejunal or conolic pedicle grafts
  • Microvascular free grafts

GI pedicle grafts hampered by mobility of the vascular pedicle

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42
Q

Where are iso/antiperistatic tubes harvested from?

What is the difference between iso and anti?

What other procedures need to be performed?

A

Created from the greater curvature of the stomach

Anti = Reverse
- Created so maintains luminal connection with the fundus
- Advanced into the thorax for anastomosis

Iso = Maintains peristalsis in an aboral direction
- Separated at both ends to form pedicle graft

Other procedures =
* Splenectomy and ligation of the ometalgastroepiplic vessels
* Pyloromyoplasty recommended to enhance gastric emptying (vagal disruption likely)

Portion of tube should remain in the abdomen to prevent reflux

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43
Q

With GI microvascular free grafts, which location is most feasible?

Which vessels can it be anastomosed to?

A

Middle colic:
* vessels are larger
* provides a longer segment
* more tolerant to ischaemia

In cervical region
- Carotid and cranial thyroid a.
- Jugular, omobrachial or lingofacial veins

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44
Q

What causes congenital megaoesophagus?

A

Idiopathic

Suspected to be due to defect in vagal afferent innervation

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45
Q

Which breeds are affected by congenital MO?

A

GSD
Irish setters
Great Danes
Newfies
Labs
Sharpei’s
Mini schnauzers
Fox Terriers

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46
Q

What is the mortality rate of congenital MO?

A

74% by 1 year old

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47
Q

Treatment of congenital MO?

Describe the technique

A

Oesophagodiaphragmatic cardioplasty
(Torres technique)

Places light tension on the caudal oesophagus
Pumping mechanism aids drainage

Left 9th ICT
Diaphragm dissected free from the left 1/2 of O
2-3cm wide semicircle resected from diaphragm
New edge sutured to the oesophagus with 2/0 prolene horizontal matress
Remaining gaps closed with 3/0 PDS

48
Q

What is within an oesophageal duplication cyst?

Clinical signs? Tx?

A

Contains epithelium and 2 x muscle layers
(A congenital duplication of oesophagus, within the oesophageal wall)

Asymptomatic, dysphagic or resp issues if mass effect
Tx = Surgical vs thoracoscopic resection
Can recur

49
Q

Treatment of paraoesophageal abscess

A

Median sternotomy/lateral thoracotomy based on location
Drainage, lavage, resect wall and omentalise

50
Q

Treatment for oesophageal lacerations

A

Debride laceration edges
Single or double layer closure
Lavage
Closed suction drainage vs open wound management (for neck)
G-tube placement

High mortality for acute stick penetration and dog bites with oesophageal laceration

51
Q

What are the two types of oesophageal diverticula?

A

Pulsion = Mucosa herniates through muscularis defect due to increased luminal pressure
(FB, stricture, functional obstruction)

Traction = Full thickness deviation of oesophageal wall due to adhesion to another organ and contraction of that adhesion causing tension and outpouching

Notes reported with trichobezoar in thoracic inlet in cats

52
Q

What is the only location of oesophageal diverticula reported in dogs?

A

Epiphernic

(Between the heart base and diaphragm)

53
Q

What sequelae can occur if an diverticulum becomes impacted or inflammed?

A

Peridiverticulitis

Can lead to adhesions to the lungs
Bronchoesophageal fistula formation
Rupture

54
Q

What condition has been linked to oesophageal diverticulae in dogs?

A

Lameness associated with

SECONDARY HYPERTROPHIC OSTEODYSTROPHY

55
Q

Which breeds are over-represented for diverticula?

A

Cairn terriers
Poodles
Parson Russels

Small dogs
Median 3y

56
Q

Treatment for diverticula?

A

Conservative
- Gruel diet, elevated feeding

If large or refractory
- Diverticulectomy
- Linear stapler
- Partial resection and oesophageal inlay patch
- Resection and anastomosis
- Substitution if large or multiple

If bronchoesophageal fistula or adhesions
- Lung lobectomy

Good px if small, guarded if more extensive or has developed fistula

57
Q

Diagnostic tests for oesophagal FB

A

Radiograph/CT
Positive contrast oesophagography (Iodinated sterile contrast)
Oesophagoscopy

58
Q

What is the concern for oesphagoscopy in the face of perforation

A

Development of tension pneumothorax

59
Q

What % of oesophageal FBs required surgery?

A

8%!!

Majority can be removed endoscopically

Small holes may seal (NPO 72 hrs)

60
Q

Name three techniques for endoscopic retrieval of foreign bodies

A
  • Grasp and retract
  • Advance into stomach
  • Pass baloon catheter aboral to FB, inflate and retract

Most bones will digest once reach the stomach

61
Q

How should fish hooks be retrieved?

A

Combined approach
Barbs pushed through oesophagus and cut
Scope to retrieve the rest

62
Q

Mortality rate for oesophageal FBs without vs with surgery?

A

Non-surgical = 7% Mortality

Surgical = 14-43% Mortality

63
Q

Medical management for Oesophageal FBs post op?

A

Famotidine/Ranitidine
Omeprazole
Sucralfate slurry
ABs
NPO 3-7 days/G-tube/Dietary management

64
Q

Causes of oesophageal stricture

A
  • Reflux
  • Chronic vomiting
  • Corrosive ingestion
  • Thermal burns
  • Radiation Injury
  • Foreign bodies
  • Antibioitcs (Doxy, Clindamycin)
  • Surgery?

Give water bolus with these ABs in cats

65
Q

Recommended assessment for oesophageal FB?

A

Positive contrast oesophagoscopy
- Identifies number, location and length
- Fluoro with Barium/food mix best to identify partial strictures

Oesophagoscopy
- Direct visualisation, evaluation and biopsy
- Visualise treatment methods
- Scope may not accurately assess length

66
Q

Treatment methods of oesophageal strictures

A

Bougienage or Balloon Dilation
Surgical treatment
Oesphageal Stenting

67
Q

Give 4 surgical methods for treatment of oesphageal strictures

A
  1. Simple oesphagoplasty =
    Transverse closure of longitudinal oesophagotomy
  2. Patch oesophagoplasty =
    Longitudinal oesophagotomy through stricture and patched with sternothyroideus, internal intercostal, diaphragm or pericardium
  3. Oesophageal resection and anastomosis=
    Limited due to length of stricture
  4. Oesophageal substitution

High rate of re-stricture or dehiscence

68
Q

What is the risk of perforation following bougienage and balloon dilation?

A

Bougie = 3.6%

Balloon = 11%

69
Q

How many bougie and balloon dilations are usually required in dogs and cats?

A

Bougie = 3-5

Balloon = 2-4

Good outcome in 71-88%

70
Q

What medical management if given after stricutre dilation?

A

H2 receptor antagonists
Proton pump inhibitors
Sucralfate
Prokinetics to reduce oesophageal sphincter tone
Intralesional corticosteroids to reduce fibrosis

71
Q

What are the risks of oesophageal stenting?

A

Stent migration
Pain
Tracheoesophageal fistula

Indicated for recurrent strictures or as palliative measure

72
Q

What can be added to the stent to reduce stricture formation?

A

Iodine-125 seeds

Reduce fibroblast proliferation
Widened diameter compared to controls

73
Q

Which measures have been shown experimentally to reduce the risk of stricture following surgery?

A

5-Fluorouracil injection

Adipose derived stromal stem cells

Porcine small intestinal submucosa

74
Q

What breeds are over-represented for oesophageal fistulas?

A

Cairns
Poodles
Yorkies

Can be congenital due to incomplete separation

Young, small breed dogs
median 3y

75
Q

What tissues can oesophageal fistulae communicate with?

A

Trachea
Bronchus
Lung parenchyma
Skin (less common)

76
Q

Which is the most common type of fistula in dogs?

Be specific

A

Bronchoesophageal

RIGHT CAUDAL LOBE

Reported also in left caudal, right cranial/middle/accessory in dogs

Reported in Left caudal in cats

77
Q

What imaging findings are visible with bronchoesophageal fistula?

A

Bronchoalveolar/Interstitial pattern
FB presence (if secondary)
Pleural effusion
Pulmonary abscess/mass lesions

CT, Positive contrast oesophagram useful to further characterise

78
Q

How are bronchoesophageal fistulae treated?

Prognosis

A

GA with TIVA
Lateral thoracotomy based on location
Concurrent endoscopy to identify location
Excision of fistuous tract
Primary closure of oesophageal defect
Lung lobectomy
If tracheoesophagal - then tracheal defect primarily apposed

Px depends on pulmonary infection control

79
Q

What are the most common forms of oesophageal neoplasia?

A

SCC
Leiomyosarcoma
Osteosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma
Undifferentiated Sarcoma
Leiomyoma
Plasmacytoma

Cats mostly SCC

Paraoesophageal tumours =
Thyroid, thymus or heart base can invade oesophagus

80
Q

What aetiology has been associated with oesophageal sarcomas?

OSA/FSA/Undiff

A

**SPIROCERCA LUPI **

Nematode parasite
Dogs = Definative host

**Nodules in the oesophagus **
May be benign and respond to avermectin or malignant and metastasise readily to lung

81
Q

What secondary condition has been associated with spirocerca lupi?

What % are affected with this?

A

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy

39%

82
Q

Which location of oesophageal neoplasia is most common in dogs and cats?

A

Dogs = Caudal thoracic

Cats = Cranial thoracic

83
Q

Clinical signs of oesophageal neoplasia?

A

Regurge/Vomiting
Lethargy/depression/anorexia/Weight loss
Sialoadenosis and salivation
Dysphagia
Melena and Haematemesis (=> Anaemia)
Lameness (HOD)

84
Q

How do benign vs malignant oesophageal masses appear visually?

A

Benign = Smaller, smoother, increased necropurulent cavitation

Leiomyoma/LMSA = Discrete submucosal masses with intact mucosa in caudal thoracic region

Neoplasic = Cauliflower like, necrotic, bleeding, irregular, mineral foci, fluid pockets are rare,

SCCs = Infiltrative, friable, circumferential lesions

Prognosis for malignant neoplasia very poor, does not correlate with chemo, tumour tye or grade

85
Q

What % of oesophageal neoplasia cases have mets at presentation

A

50%

Treatment should be generally palliative
(G-tube, Debulking)

86
Q

Treatment options for oesophageal neoplasia

A

Marginal excision if benign
- Longitudinal incision opposite mass
- Removed with 1cm margins
- Both incisions closed longitudinally

Transendoscopic mass ablation
- Nd:YAH laser
- Snare electrocautery
- Palliative for S.lupi lesions

Adjuvant chemo/radiation/phytodynamic therapy

87
Q

What is the difference between crichopharyngeal Achalasia and Asynchrony

A

Achalasia = Upper oesophageal sphincter FAILS TO OPEN during crichopharyngeal phase

Asynchrony = Incoordination between pharnygeal constrictor contraction and relaxation f the oesphageal sphincter

88
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to crichopharyngeal dysphagia?

A

Golden retrievers
Cocker Spaniels

89
Q

When do clinical signs occur?

What signs are common?

A

Congenital = After weaning
(Acuqired form reported)

Cx =
Multiple attempts to swallow
Discomfort
Food dropping from mouth
Salivation, coughing gagging
Nasal reflux
Aspiration pneumonia

90
Q

How is crichopharyngeal dysphagia diagnosed?

A

Fluoroscopy and swallow study

  • Normal bolus formed
  • Inadequate pharyngeal contraction
  • Incoordination of sphincter relaxation
  • Some food may past but also regurgitated, aspirated, nasal reflux
  • Assessment of oesophageal function
91
Q

What must be ruled out prior to surgery for teratment of crichopharyngeal dysphagia

A

WEAKNESS OF THE PHARYNGEAL CONSTRICTORS

Surgery will make this worse!

92
Q

What is the treatment of choice for crichopharyngeal achalasia?

A

CRICHOPHARYNGEAL
MYOTOMY OR MYECTOMY

93
Q

What nerves supply the crichopharnyngeus?

What is the blood supply to this muscle?

A

Glossopharyngeal (IX) and Vagus (X)

Blood supply = cranial thyroid a.

94
Q

What are the two approaches for cricopharnygeal myotomy

A

Ventral midline
- Larynx rotated 180° with stay placed in wing of thyroid

Right lateral approach
- More common

95
Q

Describe the lateral approach for cricoharyngeal myotomy

A

RIGHT lateral with towel under neck
Orogastric tube placed to ID oesophageal wall
Incision dorsal to the larynx and ventral to jugular vein through skin, suncut, platysma
Jugular and sternocephalicus retracted dorsally and sternohyoideus ventrally by gelpis
Thyroid carilage identified and fascia freed to visualise cricopharnygeus muscle
Cricopharnygeus dissected free from the oesophagus dorsally and laterally
2-2.5cm section removed from dorsal midline
Metal clips applied at rostral and caudal end of muscle transection for ID on fluoro post op
Tissue submitted for histopath
Oesophagus inspected for damage and sutured as needed
Closed routinely

96
Q

Name two adaptations to the standard cricopharnygeal myotomy/ectomy technique?

A
  • Thyropharyngeal muscle excised in addition
  • Cricopharnygeus removed from both sides of dorsal midline
97
Q

Expected prognosis following cricopharyngeal myotomy?

A

Good to excellent
Immediate resolution of signs

98
Q

What factors may limit response to cricopharyngeal myotomy?

A

Failure to resect all bands
Fibrosis or contracture
Stricture of the upper oesophageal sphincter

Prognosis poir with
* Functional disease (Lar par, myositis, myaesthenia gravis
* Malnourishment
* Aspiration pneumonia

99
Q

Simplify the normal embronic development of the cranial aorta

A

Starts as ventral and dorsal aorta, connected by 6 aortic arches

  1. Ventra aorta fuse caudally to form the heart
  2. 1st and 2nd arches involute
  3. Ventral aortas at 1st and 2nd => EXTERNAL carotids
  4. Dorsal aortas at 1st and 2nd => INTERNAL carotids
  5. Ventral aorta between 3rd and 4th => Common carotids
  6. 3rd and 4th arches involute
  7. LEFT 4TH ARCH AND VENTRAL AORTA at this level => ADULT AORTIC ARCH
  8. RIGHT VENTRAL AORTA at the level of the 4th arch => BRACHIOCEPHAIC TRUNK
  9. Right 4th arch itself => RIGHT SUBCLAVIAN
  10. 7th intersegmental artery => LEFT SUBCLAVIAN
  11. 5th arches involute
  12. 6th arches => Pulmonary arteries
  13. LEFT pulmonary artery => DUCTUS ARTERIOSUS and after birth => LIGAMENTUM ARTERIOSUM
  14. Right ductus arteriosus and right dorsal aorta between 6th arch and point of fusion regress => releasing the oesophagus and trachea
100
Q

Which breeds of dogs and cats most frequently develop vascular ring anomalies?

A

Dogs = GSD + Irish Setters

Cats = Persians + Siamese

Familial (present in litter mates) => Neutering recommended

101
Q

When do signs of VRA tend to occur?

A

On Weaning
When solid food is ingested

(20% are Dx by 2 months and 60% by 6 months)

Cx = Postprandial regurge, slow growth, ravenous appetite.
May have enlarged cervical oesophagus post meal. Signs of aspiration, tracheal compression, murmurs, axial skeleton abnormalities.

102
Q

Radiographic signs of VRAs?

Other modalities?

A

Oesophageal dilation cranial to heart base
Descending aorta visible on the right on VD (For PRRA)
Trachea deviated with marked curvature to left near heart base (Due to PRAA and LLA)
Aspiration pneumonia

Dan suggests most can be dx on rads alone~ 95%
Positive contrast radiography recommended
Fluoroscopy may be useful to assess caudal oesophageal motility
CT or MRI angiography

103
Q

How can oesophagoscopy aid in the diagnosis of VRAs?

A

Visible aortic pulse on the right side in PRAA

Heart base obstruction

Excludes other causes

Left aortic pulse with compression at the heart base consistent with normal LAA but Right ligamentum arteriosum

104
Q

What are the aims of surgical treatment for VRAs?

A
  1. Divide the compressive structure
  2. Transect fibrous bands
105
Q

What is the most common approach for VRA surgery?

A

Dogs = Left 4th ICT

Cats = Left 5th ICT

  • For PRAA & If in doubt approach from left
  • If Left ligamentum, then approach from right
  • Aberrent R SC best from right but can be done from left too.
  • For DAA - pick the side the aorta is smaller
106
Q

How should cases be managed preoperatively?

A
  • Elevated feeding
  • Monitor for 10-20 minutes post meal
  • Feed slurry foods
  • G-tube if malnourished
  • ABs and medical management for aspiration pneumonia

IVFT and Dextrose/close glucose monitoring intraop

SURGERY SHOULD BE PERFORMED AFTER PNEUMONIA RESOLVED!

107
Q

Review the normal anatomy

A
108
Q

What is the most common VRA in dogs?

A

Aberrant right subclavian with normal left aortic arch!!

Right SC comes from caudal position on Left arch
Causes mild dorsal compression of the oesophagus

Likely underdiagnosed/incidental finding on angiography

109
Q

What is the most common CLINICALLY RELEVANT VRA in dogs?

What % of VRA does this represent?

What other anomaly can occur - how frequently?

A

Persistant Right Aortic Arch

95% of clinical VRAs

10% have concurrent PDA

Left 4th ICT, ligate and divide the ligamentum, transect fibrous bands

110
Q

What VRA does this diagram represent?

In addition to regurgitation, what concurrent clinical signs can occur and why?

A

Double Aortic Arch

Causes respiratory signs
due to tracheal stenosis

CT angiography useful to determine dominant side
(Right more dominant in Matteo’s case series)
Tx = Ipsilateral Intercostal thoracotomy and division of the non-dominant arch. Tobias recommends oversewing the ends once transected

111
Q

How clinically relevent is a left aortic arch and right ligamentum arteriosum?

A

Likely to cause clinical signs
Basically a mirror image of PRAA becase you have right ligamentum entrapping the oesophagus

Requires identification for correct RIGHT sided surgical approach (Right 4th ICT) to access, ligate and transect ligamentum

112
Q

Which VRA does this diagram represent?

How will it appear on imaging?

A

Persistent right aortic arch with
aberrent left subclavian

Left subclavian arises from the right aortic arch and passes dorsal to the oesophagus

If the ligamentum arteriosum is from the right e.g. correct side for the arch, this anomaly will appear as as a single, incomplete, vascular ring on imaging

Tx - If clinical, the left subclavian can be divided
The vertebral artery provides sufficent collateral circulation

113
Q

Which VRA presents as a ‘double bubble’ on imaging?

A

Persistant right aortic arch with LEFT ligamentum arteriosum PLUS
Aberrant left subclavian

Same as for PRAA but left subclavian also forms incomplete vascular ring orad to the heart base
Creating a double stricture

Tx = If OG tube passed readily through the orad stricture from the left subclavian, treat as PRAA by dividing ligamentum and fibrous bands. If concern for Left subclavian causing relevent constriction, divide this too.

114
Q

You diagnose a PRAA on radiographs
You perform a left 4th ICT to treat it and you see this structure*

What is it?

How frequently does it occur?

A

PERSISTANT LEFT CRANIAL VENA CAVA

Occurs in 45% of VRAs

Angiogram would be useful for planning
Can complicate approach

115
Q

Briefly describe the surgical technique for treatment of PRAA

A
  • Left 4th ICT (5th in cats)
  • Pack lung lobes caudally
  • Isolate and dorsally retract persistent left cranial vena cava with vessel loop if present
  • Ligate and divide hemiazygous vein for access as needed
  • Incise mediastinum longitudinally over VRA
  • Preserve the vagus and recurrent laryngeal nerve which pass caudal to Ligamentum
  • Identify pulmonary artery, aorta and ligamentum
  • Dissected LA/PDA using right angled forceps
  • Double ligated with silk and transect
  • Pass OG tube through oesophagus
  • Identify, dissect and transect constrictive fibres
  • Massage oesophageal casts into stomach (oesophagotomy if obstructed - avoid if poss)
  • Place chest drain piror to closure

Redundant oesophageal resection reported but not recommended due to risk of complication and motility distruption

116
Q

Summarise postop management for VRA?

A

Feed from 12-24 hrs post op
Slurry food
Elevated feeding
Gradually decrease water in slurry over 2-4 weeks
Lower bowl gradually once normal food tolerated
May require modification of feeding long term

117
Q

What is the prognosis following VRA surgery?

A

Likely associated with preop degree of construction, dilation, debilitation and presence of aspiration
- Postoperative fluoroscopy/endoscopy correlate well with outcome

Expect ongoing regurgitation due to loss of NM funciton and peristalsis

Generally ~90% survival to discharge

Good to excellent outcome in majority