8th week Flashcards by JM Park

Which of the following is a proper statement of the second law of thermodynamics?

A. It is impossible for a heat engine to produce net work in a complete cycle if it exchanges heat only with bodies at a lower temperature.
B. It is impossible for a system working in a complete cycle to accomplish, as its sole effect, the transfer of heat from a body at a given temperature to a body at a higher temperature.
C. It is impossible for a system working in a complete cycle to accomplish, as its sole effect, the transfer of heat from a body at a given temperature to a body at a lower temperature.
D. It is impossible for a heat engine to produce net work in a complete cycle if it exchanges heat only with bodies exhibiting a temperature differential.

It is impossible for a system working in a complete cycle to accomplish, as its sole effect, the transfer of heat from a body at a given temperature to a body at a higher temperature.

(Clausius Statement - 2nd law)

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What does the term “tonnage” refer to in regard to refrigeration cycles ?

A. the rate at which heat is removed from a refrigeration cycle
B. the coefficient of performance of a refrigeration cycle
C. the energy efficiency rating of a refrigeration cycle
D. the enthalpy change of a refrigeration cycle

the rate at which heat is removed from a refrigeration cycle

“tonnage” – rate of heat removed

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Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be detected with a halide torch because it changes color with the slightest amount of Freon present. A large leak can de detected easier by applying ____

A. sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for color change
B. a soapsuds solution, mixed with a little glycerin to hold the solution together, and watch for bubbles
C. a thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and watch for bubbles
D. a lighted candle at the joints and watch for leaky spots blowing candle flame

a soapsuds solution, mixed with a little glycerin to hold the solution together, and watch for bubbles

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How do you call the combination of two refrigerants which cannot be separated by distillation process?

A. Hydrocarbon
B. Methane
C. Azeotropes
D. Zeotropes

Azeotropes

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Which of the following is also known as refrigerant (R-600) ?

A. Methane
B. Dichloro methane
C. Butane
D. chloromethane

Butane

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The purpose of relief valves on refrigeration machines is to ___

A. by-pass the compressor when dehydrating
B. prevent overloading in the iceboxes
C. prevent excessive pressure in case of stoppage on the discharge side of the system
D. by-pass the compressor when dehydrating and prevent overloading in the iceboxes

prevent excessive pressure in case of stoppage on the discharge side of the system

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The cooling-water side of the condenser should be opened for inspection every

A. six months
B. two years
C. year
D. three months

Three months

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Sweating of the crankcase is caused by which of the following ?

A. too much oil in the system
B. insufficient superheat
C. too much superheat
D. expansion valve hung up

too much oil in the system

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Which of the following is the usual cause of slugging?

A. too much refrigerant in the system
B. too much oil in the system
C. expansion valve not operating properly
D. too much cooling water to condenser

expansion valve not operating properly

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What operates low-pressure cutout switch?

A. bellows
B. spring tension
C. a magnet
D. water pressure

Bellows

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The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is to

A. cut out the compressor at a set pressure
B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor
C. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor
D. cut compressor in and out at a preset pressure

cut compressor in and out at a preset pressure

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If the cooling water to the condenser suddenly fails?

A. an alarm will ring to notify the engineer
B. the compressor will shut down
C. the expansion valve will close
D. the solenoid valve will close

the compressor will shut down

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Which of the following Refrigerants designated by chemical formula CF3CH2F?

A. R134a
B. R12
C. R11
D. R22

R134a

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A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under ___

A. normal conditions
B. heavy loads
C. light loads
D. all of the above

light loads

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Air is remove from the system by

A. opening the purge valve
B. increasing the amount of cooling water
C. running the refrigerant through an aerator
D. running the refrigerant through a deaerator

opening the purge valve

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Short-cycling means that the machine

A. runs to slow
B. stops and starts frequently
C. runs too fast
D. grounds out frequently

stops and starts frequently

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If any of the electrically controlled devices in a Freon system malfunction, which of the following valve will also automatically shut off?

A. King valve
B. Condenser cooling-water inlet valve
C. Expansion valve
D. Solenoid valve

Solenoid valve

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The dehydrating agent in a Freon system is usually

A. sodium chloride
B. calcium chloride
C. activated alumina
D. slaked lime

activated alumina

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If the compressor short-cycles on the low-pressure cutout, the trouble might be ____

A. too much frost on the evaporator coils
B. dirty traps and strainers
C. lack of refrigerant
D. any of the above

any of the above

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Which of the following would cause a high head pressure?

A. suction valve not open enough
B. too much cooling water
C. insufficient cooling water
D. icebox door left open

insufficient cooling water

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If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be ___

A. charging valve left open
B. expansion valve not open wide enough
C. expansion valve open too wide
D. dehydrator not working properly

expansion valve open too wide

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Which of the following Refrigerants that is represented by the chemical formula CHClF2?

A. R134a
B. R12
C. R11
D. R22

R22

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If a compressor runs continuously, the cause might be a ___

A. clogged scale trap
B. defective thermal bulb
C. stuck high-pressure switch
D. stuck low-pressure switch

stuck low-pressure switch

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Low suction pressure is caused by ____

A. expansion valve causing flooding back
B. solenoid valve not functioning properly
C. leaky compressor suction valves
D. air in the system

solenoid valve not functioning properly

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The boiling point of NH3 at atmospheric pressure is __ A. + 28 C B. + 28 F C. - 28 C D. - 28 F

- 28 F

If the compressor discharge temperature is higher than the receiver temperature then ___ A. add more refrigerant to the system B. decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser C. increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser D. remove some of the refrigerant from the system

decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser

How do you call the water vapor content of air? A. moisture B. dew C. humidity D. vapor

humidity

When air contains all of the water vapor it can hold, it is said to be A. simulated B. saturated C. loaded D. moisture

Saturated

What is the instrument used to register relative humidity? A. hygrometer B. perometer C. hydrometer D. manometer

Hygrometer

Humidity is a measure of which of the following? A. water vapor content B. latent heat C. temperature D. any of the above

water vapor content

In an air-conditioning system, before the air is circulated to the required area, it is: A. cooled B. dehumidified C. filtered D. all of the above

all of the above

The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is known as the: A. vapor point B. moisture point C. dew point D. none of the above

dew point

Saturation temperature is the same as: A. dew point B. steam temperature C. vapor temperature D. humidity

dew point

When the bypass factor is B, the coil efficiency for sensible cooling of air is equal to: A. 1 + B B. 1 - B/B C. 1 - B D. 1 + B/B

1 - B

The psychrometric chart in air conditioning determines the ____ A. wet bulb and dry bulb temperature B. psychrometric temperature requirements C. saturation temperature and relative humidity D. moist air conditions

Moist air conditions

What is the value of air stratification in air conditioning design fit for human comfort? A. minimum B. maximum C. les than air temperature D. equal to air temperature

less than air temperature

Which of the following statements is correct? The relative humidity of an air water vapor mixture ___ A. is the ratio of the partial pressure of the water vapor to the partial pressure of the air B. indicates the mass of water in the mixture C. is equal to the mole fraction of water vapor in the mixture at the mixture temperature D. is the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to the saturation pressure at the mixture temperature

is the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to the saturation pressure at the mixture temperature

In sensible cooling process, moisture content A. does not change B. indeterminate C. decreases D. increases

does not change

What amount of air is required in a low bypass factor? A. greater B. indeterminate C. lesser D. constant

Lesser

What is the lowest temperature to which water could possibly be cooled in a cooling tower? A. the effective temperature B. the temperature of adiabatic compression C. the wet bulb depression D. the dew point temperature of the air

the temperature of adiabatic compression

Combined process of cooling and humidifying is also known as: A. heating and humidifying B. cooling tower C. evaporative cooling process D. moisture removal process

evaporative cooling process

In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by A. condensation B. convection C. evaporation D. conduction

Evaporation

Which of the following types of air dryers works by absorbing moisture on a solid dessicant or drying material such as activated alumina, silicon gel or molecular sieve? A. regenerative dryer B. deliquescent dryer C. spray dryer D. refrigerated dryer

Deliquescent dryer

The relationship of water vapor in the air at the dew point temperature to the amount that would be in the air if the air were saturated at the dry bulb temperature is: A. partial pressure actual at dew point B. percentage humidity C. relative humidity D. partial pressure of water

Relative Humidity

When the air is saturated the wet bulb depression is __ A. zero B. unity C. indefinite D. 100%

zero

A temperature measurement in an ordinary thermometer which has constant specific humidity. A. critical temperature B. dew point temperature C. dry bulb temperature D. wet bulb temperature

Dew point temperature

During sensible heating, the humidity remains constant but the relative humidity ___ A. increases B. remains constant C. decreases D. zero

Decreases

The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor starts to condense. A. critical point B. dew point C. saturated point D. cloud point

Dew point

What is the specific humidity of dry air? A. 15 B. 50 C. 100 D. 0

What is the temperature range of air in air conditioning application where the dry air can be considered ideal gas? A. 100 to 125 C B. 75 to 100 C C. 50 to 75 C D. -10 to 50 C

-10 to 50 C

The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor starts to condense. A. dew point B. saturated point C. cloud point D. critical point

Dew Point

Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in an air conditioning unit? A. it will not cause ice build-up B. it will wear out the motor bearings and cause noise C. it may not slice suction line D. it decreases the volume flow of refrigerant

it will wear out the motor bearing and cause noise

A type of refrigerant that will not damage the ozone layer. A. Hydro fluorocarbons (HCFs) B. Hydro chlorofluorocarbons (HCHFs) C. R-22 D. R-12

Hydro fluorocarbons (HCFs)

Which of the following is the type if refrigerant that damages Ozone layer? A. Hydro chlorofluorocarbons (HCFs) B. R-12 C. R-22 D. All of these

All of these

The phenomenon that warm air rise and cold air settle is called: A. Stratification B. Setting due C. Sedimentation D. Ventilation

Stratification

Air delivered to the room from the supply duct, moving at a velocity of 150 ft/min or more is called: A. Primary air B. Saturated air C. Secondary air D. Air turbulence

Primary air

Carries needed to deliver air to the conditioned space. It is made of sheet of metals like aluminum, galvanized sheet steel and some structural materials that will not burn. A. duct B. air outlet C. air inlet D. diffuser

Duct "deliver air" - duct

From what principle that air ducts operate? A. Principle of Pressure Difference B. Principle of Temperature Difference C. Forced Draft Fan Principle D. Principle of Natural Convection

Principle of Pressure Difference

It is used deliver concentrated airstreams into a room. Many have one-way or two-way adjustable air stream deflectors. A. Register B. Diffuser C. Grille D. Damper

It is used to control the air-throw distance, height, and spread, as well as the amount of air. A. Grille B. Diffuser C. Register D. Damper

Grille "used to control" - grille

It is used to deliver widespread, fan-shaped flows of air into the room. A. Grille B. Diffuser C. Register D. Damper

Diffuser "deliver widespread" - diffuser

Which of the following fans in air conditioning systems which can be classified as centrifugal flow? A. Axial fan B. Bi-axial fan C. Propeller fan D. None of these

Propeller fan

The most common controller in the heating and cooling systems. A. Thermostat B. Barometer C. Pressure gauge D. Sling Psychrometer

Thermostat

A thermostat that functions as increase or decrease instead of starting and stopping system is called: A. modulate B. heating-cooling the thermostat C. interlocked D. compound thermostat

Modulate

A number used to compare energy usage for different areas. It is calculated by dividing the energy consumption by the fottage of the conditioned area. A. Energy Utilization Unit B. Energy Utilization Efficiency C. Energy Utilization Index D. Energy Utilization Ratio

Energy Utilization Index "compare energy usage" - EUI

The ratio of the rated cooling capacity divided by the amount of electrical power used: A. Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER) B. Energy Efficiency Index (EE) C. Cooling Efficiency (CE) D. Energy Cooling Ratio (ECR)

Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER)

Heat exchanger in which water flows by gravity over the outside of the tubes or plates. A. Baudelot Cooler B. Newtonian Cooler C. Free Cooler D. Bourdon Cooler

Baudelot Cooler

The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor starts to condense. A. dew point B. saturated point C. cloud point D. critical point

Dew point

it will wear out the motor bearings and cause noise

A type of refrigerant that will not damage the ozone layer. A. Hydro fluorocarbons (HCFs) B. Hydro chlorofluorocarbons (HCHFs) C. R-22 D. R-12

Hydro fluorocarbons (HCFs)

Which of the following is the type if refrigerant that damages Ozone layer? A. Hydro chlorofluorocarbons (HCFs) B. R-12 C. R-22 D. All of these

All of these

Large-bulb alcohol thermometer used to measure air speed or atmospheric conditions by means of cooling. A. Kata thermometer B. Kelvin thermometer C. JJ Thompson Thermometer D. Wet Bulb Thermometer

Kata Thermometer "measure air speed" - kata thermometer

The phenomenon that warm air rise and cold air settle is called: A. Stratification B. Setting due C. Sedimentation D. Ventulation

Stratification

Air delivered to the room from the supply duct, moving at a velocity of 150 ft/min or more is called: A. Primary air B. Saturated air C. Secondary air D. Air turbulence

Primary Air

Duct "deliver air" - duct

From what principle that air ducts operate? A. Principle of Pressure Difference B. Principle of Temperature Difference C. Forced Draft Fan Principle D. Principle of Natural Convection

Principle of Pressure Difference

Which of the following is the common classification of ducts? A. Conditioned Air - Ducts B. Fresh-air Ducts C. Recirculating D. All of these

All of these

It is used deliver concentrated airstreams into a room. Many have one-way or two-way adjustable air stream deflectors. A. Register B. Diffuser C. Grille D. Damper

It is used to control the air-throw distance, height, and spread, as well as the amount of air. A. Grille B. Diffuser C. Register D. Damper

Grille

Which of the following fans in air conditioning systems which can be classified as centrifugal flow? A. Axial fan B. Bi-axial fan C. Propeller fan D. None of these

Propeller fan

The most common controller in the heating and cooling systems. A. Thermostat B. Barometer C. Pressure gauge D. Sling Psychrometer

Thermostat

The temperature to which the air must be cooled at constant pressure to produce saturation is called: A. boiling point B. dew point C. critical point D. triple point

Dew point

The mass of water vapor per unit volume of air ___ A. absolute humidity B. specific humidity C. relative humidity D. critical humidity

Absolute Humidity

The heat transfer due to motion of matter cause by a change in density is called: A. radiation B. convection C. conduction D. absorption

Convection "HF due to motion" - convection

The changing of solid directly to vapor, without passing through the liquid state is called: A. Evaporization B. Vaporization C. Sublimation D. Condensation

Sublimation

What amount of air is required in a low by pass factor? A. greater B. lesser C. indeterminate D. does not change

Lesser

Pump used to increased air pressure above normal, air is then used as a motive power: A. Air cooled engine B. Air compressor C. Air condenser D. Air injection

Air compressor

For moderate speed of mating gears, the ideal ratio of contact is ___ A. 1.35-1.55 B. 1.25 - 1.45 C. 1.0 - 1.3 D. 1.25 - 4.0

1.25 - 4.0

Zero axial thrust is experienced in ____ A. herringbone gears B. bevel gears C. helical gears D. worm gears

Herringbone gears

Spiral gears are suitable for transmitting ___ A. any power B. huge power C. small power D. pulsating power

Small power

The type of cam used for low and moderate speed engines is generally ____ A. flat B. tangent C. involute D. harmonic

Harmonic

Gears for wrist watches are generally manufactured by ___ A. molding B. galvanizing C. stamping D. honing

Stamping

An imaginary circle passing through the points at which the teeth of the meshing gears contact each other. A. pitch circle B. dedendum circle C. addendum circle D. base circle

Pitch circle

A kind of gears used to transmit motion from one shaft to another shaft at an angle to the first. A. bevel gears B. helical gears C. worm gears D. spiral gears

Bevel gears

A kind of gears used for heavy duty works where a large ratio of speed is required and are extensively used in speed reducers. A. bevel gears B. helical gears C. worm gears D. spiral gears

Worm gears

Hearingbone gears are gears which ___ A. do not operate on parallel shaft B. have a line of contact between the teeth C. consist of two left handed helical gears D. tend to produce thrust on the shafts

have a line of contact between the teeth

Gears used to transmit power between shafts axis of which it intersect ___ A. spur gears B. helical gears C. bevel gears D. straight bevel gears

Bevel gears

Gearing in which motion or power that is transmitted depends upon the friction between the surfaces in contact . A. bevel gears B. evans friction cones C. spur friction wheels D. friction gearing

Friction gearing

A bevel gears of the same size mounted on a shaft at 90 degrees: A. crown gears B. angular gears C. spur gears D. miter gears

Miter gears

Determine the number of teeth in a driver of two spur gears mesh which has a velocity ratio of 0.75. The driven gear has 36 teeth A. 50 B. 26 C. 46 D. 48

Which of the following materials to be utilized to reduce cost in the manufacturing of large worm gears? A. alloyed aluminum B. bronze rim with cast iron spider C. cast iron rim with bronze spider D. all of these

bronze rim with cast iron spider

The angle, at the base cylinder of an involute gear, that the tooth makes with the gear axis ___ A. base helix angle B. arc of recess C. pressure angle D. arc of approach

Base helix angle

The path of contact involute gears where the force/power is actually transmitted. It is a straight imaginary line passing through the pitch point and tangent to the base circle. A. principal reference plane B. front angle C. pitch point D. line of action

Line of action

The hardness of helical and herringbone gear teeth after heat treatment is 210 to 300 Brinell Hardness, for gear and pinion is at: A. 360 Brinell min. B. 340-350 normal C. 400 Brinell max. D. all of these

340 - 350 normal

A type of gear commonly used in parallel-shaft transmission especially when a smooth, continuous action is essential as in high speed drives up to 12,000 fpm ____ A. bevel gear B. spur gear C. herringbone gear D. helical gear

Helical gear

What type of gear which can transmit power at a certain angle. A. helical gear B. bevel gear C. worm gear D. herringbone gear

Bevel gear

The arbitrary modification by removing a small portion of tooth material at the tip of the gear tooth is called: A. tip removal B. tip relief C. tip undercut D. pressure angle cut

tip relief

In a pair of gears, ____ is the plane perpendicular to the axial plane and tangent to the pitch surface. A. pitch B. pitch circle C. pitch plane D. pitch point

pitch plane

What type of gear is used for high speed operation? A. helical B. bevel C. spur D. worm

Helical

One of the causes of spur gear tooth breakage is the unbalanced load on one end of the tooth that results in higher stresses than when the load is evenly distributed. To minimize this problem, the face width "b" should not be greater than the thickness (or pitch) of the tooth. In the absence of test values, the following can be a guide: A. 2.5Pc < b < 4Pc B. 2.5Pd < b < 4Pd C. 2.0Pd < b < 4Pd D. 2.0Pd < b < 4Pc

2.5Pc < b < 4Pc

Hypoid gear is a special type of gear like ____ A. Worm gear B. Herringbone gear C. Spur gear D. Bevel gear

Bevel gear

The distance a helical gear or worm would thread along its axis in one revolution if it were free to move axially is called ___ A. length of action B. land C. length of contact D. lead

Lead

For moderate speed of mating gears, the ideal ratio contact is: A. 1.25 - 4.00 B. 1.00 - 130 C. 1.20 - 1.45 D. 0.35 - 1.45

1.25 - 4.00

It is used to change rotary motion to reciprocating motion: A. Helical gear B. Worm gear C. Rack gear D. Spur gear

Rack gear

In gear design, the ratio of the pitch diameter in inches to the number of teeth ____ A. module B. english module C. diametral pitch D. circular pitch

English module

Gear used to transmit power at high velocity ratios between non-intersecting shafts that are usually but not necessarily at right angle. A. helical gear B. worm gear C. bevel gear D. spiral gear

Worm gear

For evenly distributed and uniform wear on each meshing gear tooth, the ideal design practice is to consider a ____ A. wear resistance alloy addition to tooth gear B. heat treatment of the gears C. hardening of each tooth D. hunting tooth addition

hunting tooth addition

What will be the effect in bushing gears without backlash? A. jamming B. overload C. overheating D. all of these

All of these

Range of helix angle on helical gear . A. less than 18 B. 20-35 C. 15-25 D. 35-40

15-25

For economical cost in the manufacturing large worm gears the following materials are usually applied. A. bronze rim with cast steel spider B. cast iron rim with bronze spider C. cast steel rim with brass spider D. alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron spider

bronze rim with cast steel spider

Which of the following is an example of rectilinear translation? A. locomotive wheels B. piston of an engine C. rack gear D. jack

piston of an engine

If a set of spur gears are made, installed and lubricated properly, they normally may be subjected to failures like: A. tooth spalling B. pitting C. tooth peening D. shearing

pitting

The amount by which the dedendum in a given gear/pinion exceeds the addendum of its mating pinion/gear. Also the radial distance between the top of a tooth and the bottom of the mating tooth space. A. tip relief B. clearance C. top land D. space

clearance

The surface of the gear between the fillets of adjacent teeth is called: A. bottom land B. top land C. flank D. flank of tooth

bottom land

In designing gears for power transmission consider an efficiency of ____ as recommended. A. 96 % or more B. 85 % or more C. 89% or more D. 98% or more

98% or more

Which of the following gears has the simplest type of teeth? A. Helical gears B. Bevel gears C. Spur gears D. Worm gears

Spur gears

It is the circle tangent to the addendum of the meshing gears. A. clearance circle B. addendum circle C. base circle D. pitch circle

clearance circle

The distance from a point on one gear to the corresponding point measured along the base circle. A. normal pitch B. axial pitch C. circular pitch D. diametral pitch

normal pitch

A line passing through the pitch point that is tangent to both base circles of a gear is: A. pressure line B. tangent line C. perpendicular line D. center line

pressure line

Which of the following is the contact ratio for a good gear design? A. 1.5 : 1 B. 1 : 3 C. 1 : 1.3 D. 1.2 : 2

1.5 : 1

Bevel gears of sizes 5 in. to 15 in. should not be lift or depress more than ___, as Gleason statement. A. 0.004 B. 0.002 C. 0.003 D. 0.001

0.003

The process of forming metal parts by the use of dies after the metal is heated to its plastic range. A. rolling B. turning C. forging D. casting

Rolling

The process of forming a metal parts by the use of a powerful pressure from a hammer or press to obtain the desired shape, after the metal has been heated to its plastic range. A. rolling B. turning C. forging D. casting

forging

A manganese steel containing approximately 0.20% carbon A. SAE 1320 B. SAE 2340 C. SAE 1230 D. SAE 4230

SAE 1320

A machine tool in which metal is removed by means of a revolving cutter with many teeth, each tooth having a cutting edge which remove its share of the stock. A. milling machine B. lathe machine C. broaching machine D. boring machine

milling machine

A metal turning machine tool in which the work, while revolving on a horizontal axis, is acted upon by cutting tool which is made to move slowly (feed) in a direction more or less parallel to the axis of the work (longitudinal feed). A. milling machine B. lathe machine C. broaching machine D. boring machine

lathe machine

A machine tool used in the production of flat surfaces on pieces too large or too heavy or, perhaps too awkward to hold in a shaper. A. shaper B. tool grinder C. planer D. power saw

planer

It consists of shaping a piece by bringing it into contact with a rotating abrasive wheel. A. drilling B. grinding C. boring D. broaching

grinding

A tool used in measuring diameters. A. caliper B. tachometer C. nanometer D. pyrometer

caliper

Used to true and align machine tools, fixtures, and works, to test and inspect size trueness of finished work, and to compare measurements either heights or depth or many other measurements. A. dial gauge B. tachometer C. dial indicator D. speedometer

dial indicator

The ability of metal to be deformed considerably without rupture. A. ductility B. malleability C. plasticity D. elasticity

plasticity

The shop term used to include the marking or inscribing of center points, circles, arcs, or straight lines upon metal surfaces, either curved or flat, for the guidance of the worker. A. shaping B. laying out C. hobbing D. shaping

laying out

An operation of sizing and finishing a hole by means of cutting tool having several cutting edges. A. notching B. turning C. piercing D. reaming

reaming

The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole, as for a recess for a flat head screw. A. countersinking B. squaring C. knurling D. perforating

countersinking

The operation of enlarging a hole by means of an adjustable cutting tool with only one cutting edge. A. drilling B. milling C. broaching D. boring

boring

A welding operation in which a non-ferrous filler metal melts at a temperature below that of the metal joined but is heated above 450C. A. brazing B. gas welding C. spot welding D. projection welding

brazing

The operation of cooling a heated piece of work rapidly by dipping it in water, brine or oil. A. tempering B. quenching C. annealing D. normalizing

quenching

A machine tool used to machine flat surfaces. A. shaper B. grinder C. planer D. lathe

shaper

A soft yellow metal, known since ancient times a precious metal which all material values are based. A. solidus B. gold C. bronze D. Austenite

gold

A machine used in shaping metal by means of abrasive wheel or removal of metals with an abrasive is called: A. planer B. shaper C. power saw D. grinding machine

grinding machine

A machine tool used to finish internal and external surfaces by the use of a cutter called a broach, which has a series of cutting edges or teeth. A. lathe machine B. planer C. broaching machine D. shaper

broaching machine

The good deoxidizer in steel melting is ___ A. manganese B. silicon C. aluminum D. all of these

all of these

Manganese steel standard designations is SAE ___ A. 8XXX B. 12XX C. 10XX D. 13XX

13XX

Least shrinkage allowance is provided in the case of which of the following __ A. cast iron B. white cast iron C. aluminum D. brass

white cast iron

What is the percentage of carbon in Eutectoid steel? A. 0.02% B. 0.63% C. 0.30% D. 0.80%

0.80%

A twist drill is specified by which of the following? A. its shank and diameter B. shank, material and flute size C. its diameter and lip angle D. shank, material and diameter

shank, material and diameter

Which of the following is used to measure the clearance between the value and tappet of an automobile engine? A. shape gauge B. feeler gauge C. slip gauge D. vernier scale

feeler gauge

Which of the following will best describe sunk key? A. the keyway is helical along shaft B. the keyway is cut in shaft only C. the keyway is cut in hub only D. the key is cut in both shaft and hub

the key is cut in both shaft and hub

Which of the following where turn buckle has? A. left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on other end B. right hand threads on both ends C. left hand threads on both ends D. no threads

left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on other end

Which of the following is maximum in 18-4-1 high speed steel? A. tungsten B. argon C. chromium D. iron

iron

What tool is used in foundry for repairing the mould? A. swab B. bellows C. gagger D. rammer

swab

What tool is used in foundry for smoothening and cleaning out depression in the mould? A. swab B. bellows C. gagger D. rammer

bellows

In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means wires and strands are arranged in the following manner: A. twisted in same direction B. twisted in any direction C. twisted in opposite direction D. twisted in along direction

twisted in opposite direction

Which of the following ropes is used for haulage, rigging, guard rails? A. 6 X 35 IRWC B. 7 X 8 IWRC C. 6 X 15 IWRC D. 7 X 7 IWRC

7 X 7 IWRC

For most wire ropes and chains with 180 degree contact, the loss factor at low speed varies between: A. 1.03 to 1.06 B. 1.07 to 1.10 C. 1.20 to 1.50 D. 1.60 to 1.80

1.03 to 1.06

Heating to a subcritical temperature, about 1,100F to 1,300F and holding at that temperature for a suitable time for the purpose of reducing internal residual stress. A. Annealing B. Tempering C. Hardening D. Stress Relieving

Stress Relieving

A machine tools used to enlarge a hole by means of an adjustable cutting tool with only one cutting edge. A. drilling machine B. milling machine C. boring machine D. broaching machine

boring machine

Cast alloy steel for very high temperature application: A. manganese-nickel steel casting B. high chrome steel casting C. chrome-nickel steel casting D. high manganese casting

chrome-nickel steel casting

Which of the following acronyms is not generally used as standard A. ASTM B. IPS C. SAE D. AISI

IPS

Alloy steel known for its resistance to corrosion, abrasion and wear that is usually ideal for mill grinding of ore in cement and concentrator application. It is usually combined with molybdenum to increase the depth hardening. A. manganese chromium steel B. chrome-nickel-moly steel C. chromium-moly steel D. manganese-moly steel

chromium-moly steel

What is the difference between the shaper and a planer? A. the tool of the shaper moves while on the plane is stationary B. the shaper can perform slotting operation while the planer cannot C. the shaper handles large pieces while the planer handles only small pieces D. the tool of the shaper moves in reciprocating motion while the tool in the planer moves in rotary motion

the tool of the shaper moves while on the plane is stationary

Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron coated with ___ A. Tin B. Magnesium C. Zinc D. Aluminum

Zinc

Which of the following is not a common term relating to the classification of fits? A. Tunking B. Medium force fit C. Snug D. Bound

Bound

For a high corrosion resistant stainless steel, what minimum chromium content is required? A. 8% B. 1.1% C. 4.3% D. 5.8%

Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn with __ or more teeth. A. 21 B. 25 C. 23 D. 27

A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in the opposite direction. A. long lay B. regular lay C. perform D. lang lay

regular lay

A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in the same direction. A. long lay B. regular lay C. perform D. lang lay

lang lay

The operation of cooling a heated piece of work rapidly by dropping it in water, brine or oil. A. Normalizing B. Annealing C. Quenching D. Squeezing

Quenching

A machine operation whereby the tool reciprocates and the feed is stationary is called __ A. shaping B. planning C. reaming D. turning

shaping

A machine tool in which an abrasive wheel is used as a cutting tool to obtain a very high degree of accuracy and a smooth finish on metal parts, including soft and hardened steel. A. grinding machine B. milling machine C. broaching machine D. boring machine

grinding machine

The process of working metals by the application of sudden blows or by a steady pressure. A. trimming B. forging C. welding D. lancing

forging

The process of producing a variety of surfaces by using a circular type cutter with multiple teeth. A. piercing B. embossing C. cutting D. milling

milling

The softening of metals by heat treatment and most commonly consists of heating the metals up to near molten state and then cooling them very slowly. A. quenching B. annealing C. tempering D. forming

annealing

The corrosion of iron or iron-based alloys is called __ A. rusting B. chalking C. crazing D. fritting

rusting

Test sometimes referred to as an upsetting test. A. bend B. flange C. flaring D. crush

bend

Killed steel is very much associated with: A. manganese B. phosphorous C. sulphur D. silicon

silicon