6th week Flashcards
1
Q
What temperature is required to ignite the fuel oil?
A. 800 to 1000 F
B. 700 to 900 F
C. 900 to 1100 F
D. 1000 to 1200 F
A
800 to 1000 F
2
Q
An engine in which the fuel is burned directly within the working cylinder.
A. internal combustion engine
B. external combustion engine
C. compression ignition engine
D. spark ignition engine
A
internal combustion engine
3
Q
An engine in which the fuel is burned outside of the power cylinder.
A. internal combustion engine
B. external combustion engine
C. compression ignition engine
D. spark ignition engine
A
external combustion engine
4
Q
An engine where the ignition is caused by heat of compression.
A. internal combustion engine
B. external combustion engine
C. compression ignition engine
D. spark ignition engine
A
compression ignition engine
5
Q
At what temperature will self igniting cartridges ignite?
A. About 200 F
B. About 190 F
C. About 210 F
D. About 250 F
A
About 190 F
6
Q
What temperature should be the maximum to which lubricating oil is permitted to rise?
A. not more than 100 F
B. not more than 200 F
C. not more than 300 F
D. not more than 400 F
A
not more than 100 F
7
Q
What air pressure is needed for air starting a Diesel engine?
A. 250 psi
B. 150 psi
C. 350 psi
D. 450 psi
A
250 psi
8
Q
The portion of the piston which extends below the piston pin and serves as a guide for the piston and connecting rod.
A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure
A
piston skirt
9
Q
Rings located in the grooves of the piston usually near the top and near the bottom.
A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure
A
piston ring
10
Q
A device which automatically governs or controls the speed of an engines.
A. servomotor
B. governor
C. indicator
D. speedometer
A
governor
11
Q
A combination of liquids which do not ix – or combine chemically.
A. emulsion
B. deposition
C. evaporation
D. separation
A
emulsion
12
Q
What air pressure is required to produce the required ignition temperature?
A. 350 to 500 psi
B. 250 to 400 psi
C. 450 to 600 psi
D. 150 to 300 psi
A
350 to 500 psi
13
Q
In a four stroke Diesel engine, drawing air into the cylinder is what stroke?
A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke
A
first stroke
14
Q
Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into it a current of air which provides clean air for the next compression stroke.
A. scavenging
B. supercharging
C. choking
D. knocking
A
scavenging
15
Q
Increasing the total amount of charging air in the working cylinder of the engine.
A. scavenging
B. supercharging
C. choking
D. knocking
A
supercharging
16
Q
One could expect the possibility of Reynolds number similarity in all of the following cases except:
A. pumps
B. fans
C. turbines
D. weirs
A
weirs
17
Q
One could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity in all of the following cases except:
A. surface ships
B. surface wave motion
C. flow over weirs
D. closed-pipe turbulent pipe flow
A
closed-pipe turbulent pipe flow
18
Q
The following are all examples of indirect (secondary) miscellaneous methods to measure flow except:
A. turbine and propeller meters
B. magnetic flow meters
C. positive displacement meters
D. hot-wire anemometers
A
positive displacement meters
19
Q
A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through a hole in a plate is located approximately:
A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole
B. at jet’s minimum diameter
C. at the orifice minimum diameter
D. at the orifice maximum diameter
A
at jet’s minimum diameter
20
Q
Once could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity in al of the following cases except:
A. motion of a fluid jet
B. flow over spillways
C. surge and flood waves
D. subsonic airfoils
A
subsonic airfoils
21
Q
The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as the cross sectional area of the pipe through which it flow decreases is due to :
A. Bernoulli’s equation
B. the continuity equation
C. the momentum equation
D. the perfect gas law
A
the continuity equation
22
Q
Compressing air in a four stroke cycle is
A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke
A
second stroke
23
Q
Which of the following strokes is produced by the burning gases.
A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke
A
third stroke
24
Q
In parallel pipe system originating and terminating in common junctions:
A. mass flows through each branch are equal
B. pressure drops through each branch are equal
C. lengths of each branch are equal
D. flow areas of each branch are equal
A
pressure drops through each branch are equal
25
The following are examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to measure flow rates using obstruction meters except:
A. pitot static meters
B. static pressure probes
C. weight and mass scales
D. direction - sensing probes
weight and mass scales
26
Which of the following strokes expels the burned gases?
A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke
fourth stroke
27
The fuel is supplied by one pump and switched to each cylinder by a multi outlet rotating valve or distributor.
A. distributor system
B. injector system
C. non injector system
D. non distributor system
distributor system
28
When a falling object reaches a speed at which the drag force equals its weight, it has achieved:
A. Mach one
B. a laminar boundary layer
C. a turbulent boundary layer
D. terminal velocity
a turbulent boundary layer
29
The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the:
A. area of vena contracta to the orifice area
B. actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. effective head to the actual head
actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
30
Binding of the piston and the cylinder wall as a result of the lubrication having been destroyed by excessive temperature and friction:
A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure
piston seizure
31
Grooves in the cylinder wall or piston or in both. It is caused by the piston scraping the cylinder wall in its movement without proper lubrication.
A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure
piston scoring
32
The coefficient of velocity is equal to the
A. product of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of contraction
B. actual velocity divided by the theoretical velocity
C. sum of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of contraction
D. difference of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of contraction
actual velocity divided by the theoretical velocity
33
What is the average fuel-oil temperature of range of the oil in the discharge line to the boiler?
A. 180 - 200F
B. 240 - 260F
C. 160 - 180F
D. 140 - 160F
180 - 200F
34
What is the highest pressure under which distinguishable liquid and vapor phases can exist in equilibrium?
A. maximum pressure
B. atmosphere
C. critical pressure
D. peak pressure
critical pressure
35
Flows through the nozzles and diffusers with increasing fluid velocity will create an equivalent __
A. decrease in the static enthalpy of fluid
B. increase in the static enthalpy of fluid
C. decrease in the internal energy of fluid
D. decrease in the dynamic enthalpy of fluid
decrease in the static enthalpy of fluid
36
A converging - diverging nozzle is the standard equipment in ___
A. subsonic aircraft
B. supersonic aircraft
C. hypersonic aircraft
D. trisonic aircraft
supersonic aircraft
37
An increase in stagnation pressure will increase the mass flux through the:
A. diverging nozzle
B. converging nozzle
C. converging - diverging nozzle
D. none of these
converging nozzle
38
Is the locus of states which have the same value of stagnation enthalpy and mass flux are called ___
A. Fanno Line
B. Straight Line
C. Willan's Line
D. Cross Cut Line
Fanno Line
39
Combination of mass and momentum equations into a single equation and plotted in h-s plane yield a curve called ___
A. Fair Line
B. Freh Line
C. Cutting Line
D. Rayleigh Line
Rayleigh Line
40
An inventor proposes to develop electrical power by withdrawing heat from the geyser fields of northern California and converting it all to work in power turbines. This scheme will not work because ____
A. the geyser fields have only a limited lifetime
B. the salinity of the steam is too great
C. it violates the first law of thermodynamics
D. it violates the second law of thermodynamics
it violates the second law of thermodynamics
41
In a condensing steam engine ___
A. condensed steam is supplied
B. steam condenses inside cylinder
C. steam condenses as soon as it leaves the cylinder
D. exhaust steam is condensed in a condenser
exhaust steam is condensed in a condenser
42
For back pressure valves, abrupt changes in fluid properties occur in a very thin section of converging - diverging nozzle under supersonic flow conditions, creating ___
A. sound wave
B. tidal wave
C. shock wave
D. none of these
shock wave
43
The flow through the nozzle is ___
A. isentropic
B. isobaric
C. polytropic
D. isovolumic
isentropic
44
If the reservoir is sufficiently large, the nozzle inlet velocity is ___
A. maximum
B. positive
C. negative
D. zero
zero
45
Generally steam turbines in power station operate at ___
A. 3000 rpm
B. 4000 rpm
C. 1000 rpm
D. 575 rpm
3000 rpm
46
Which of the following shows the relationship of the steam consumption and the load of steam turbine-generator?
A. Dalton's line
B. Willan's line
C. Jonval's line
D. Rankine line
Willan's line
47
Mechanism designed to lower the temperature of air passing through it __
A. Air cooler
B. Air spill over
C. Air defense
D. Air cycle
Air cooler
48
A liquid boils when its vapor pressure equals
A. the gage pressure
B. the critical pressure
C. the ambient pressure
D. one standard atmosphere
the ambient pressure
49
The lowest permissible water level of a boiler without internal furnace is __ the height of the shell.
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/5
1/3
50
In case of steam engine the cut off ratio is the ratio of ___
A. pressure at cut off to supply pressure
B. pressure at cut off to exhaust pressure
C. pressure at cut off to mean effective pressure
D. fraction of piston stroke which the piston has traveled when cut off occurs
fraction of piston stroke which the piston has traveled when cut off occurs
51
The isentropic efficiency of a turbine is given by ____
A. the ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted
B. the ratio of actual to ideal energy inputted
C. the ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted
D. none of the above
the ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted
52
Regardless of the type of fuel oil used the fuel oil must be ____ before it enters the boilers furnace.
A. pressurized
B. treated
C. atomized
D. measured
atomized
53
Excess fuel oil in the fuel oil system returns to the ____
A. combustion chamber
B. fuel oil tank
C. burner
D. suction line
fuel oil tank
54
Which of the following boiler does not use tubes?
A. cast iron sectional
B. water tube
C. scotch marine
D. firebox
cast iron sectional
55
Which of the following will make a boiler work more efficiently?
A. more fuel is added
B. fire tubes are decrease in size
C. the heating surface is increased
D. all of the above
the heating surface is increased
56
When the o s & y (outside screw & yoke) valve is open the stem is in the ____ position.
A. floating
B. up
C. locked
D. down
up
57
The MAWP on a low pressure steam boiler is ___ psi.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 30
15
58
The ASME code states that boilers with over ____ square feet heating surface must have two or more safety valve.
A. 200
B. 400
C. 400
D. 500
500
59
The range of the pressure gauge should be ____ times the MAWP (Maximum Allowable Working Pressure) of the boiler.
A. 1 to 2
B. 2 to 3
C. 1 1/2 to 2
D. 2 1/2 to 3
1 1/2 to 2
60
The thermostatic steam trap opens and closes by a(n) ____
A. float
B. electric sensor
C. inverted bucket
D. flexible bellows
flexible bellows
61
The ASME code only allows _____ safety valve on boiler.
A. deadweight
B. spring-loaded pop-type
C. lever
D. none of the above
spring-loaded pop-type
62
Live steam is prevented from entering the Bourdon tube of the pressure gauge by which of the following?
A. automatic nonreturn valve
B. os&y valve
C. inspector's test clock
D. siphon
siphon
63
The ______ regulates the high and low fire of the burner.
A. aquastat
B. pressure control
C. vaporstat
D. modulating pressure control
modulating pressure control
64
What causes false water level readings in the gauge glass ?
A. Priming
B. Foaming
C. Carryover
D. Blowing down
Foaming
65
The operating range of the boiler is controlled by
A. aquastat
B. pressure control
C. vaporstat
D. modulating pressure control
pressure control
66
The boiler bottom blowdown line should discharge to a(n) ____
A. sewer
B. atmospheric tank
C. blowdown tank
D. return tank or open sump
blowdown tank
67
What pressure gauge that reads more pressure than is actually in the boiler.
A. broken
B. uncalibrated
C. slow
D. fast
fast
68
Which of the following is added to boiler so that water changes scale-forming salts into a non-adhering sludge?
A. Oxygen
B. Slag
C. Minerals
D. Chemicals
Chemicals
69
The feedwater ___ valve opens and closes automatically.
A. return
B. check
C. bypass
D. equalizing
check
70
The range of pressure on the vacuum switch is usually:
A. 2 to 6 psi
B. 2" to 8"
C. 6 to 12 psi
D. 8" to 12"
2" to 8"
71
According to the ASME code, safety valves on low pressure boilers should be tested by hand at least:
A. once a month
B. once a year
C. once a shift
D. twice a year
once a month
72
When open the os&y valve offers ___ to the flow of steam.
A. no resistance
B. velocity
C. throttling action
D. full resistance
no resistance
73
The safety valve on a low pressure boiler opens when pressure in the boiler exceeds how many psi?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 10
D. 30
15
74
Condensate in the steam lines can result in ____
A. carryover
B. foaming
C. priming
D. water hammer
water hammer
75
In the float the thermostatic trap the float rises to discharge ___
A. condensate
B. feedwater chemicals
C. steam
D. water and steam
condensate
76
What valve should be used for throttling flow of material?
A. Gate
B. Check
C. Globe
D. Non-return
Globe
77
The _______ steam trap is the most common steam trap used.
A. thermostatic
B. inverted bucket
C. return
D. nonreturn; float
thermostatic
78
To prevent a vacuum from forming when taking the boiler off-line, which of the following must be opened when pressure is still on the boiler?
A. safety valve
B. boiler vent
C. main steam stop valve
D. man hole cover
boiler vent
79
As the steam pressure increases the steam temperature ______
A. decreased
B. remains the same
C. increases
D. fluctuates
increases
80
What pressure gauge that can read whether vacuum pressure or not.
A. compound
B. suction
C. duplex
D. vacuum
compound
81
Safety valves are designed to pop open and stay until there is a _____ psi drop in pressure.
A. 0 to 1
B. 5 to 15
C. 2 to 4
D. over 15
2 to 4
82
When steams gives up its heat in a heat exchanger it turns to _____
A. low pressure steam
B. makeup water
C. condensate
D. exhaust steam
condensate
83
The feedwater ______ valve should be located as close to the shell of the boiler as practical.
A. check
B. nonreturn
C. stop
D. regulating
stop
84
Steam header valves should be ______ valves.
A. globe
B. check
C. gate
D. o s & y gate
gate
85
The purpose of the safety valve is prevent the pressure in the boiler from:
A. exceeding its MAWP (max allowable working pressure)
B. causing a boiler explosion
C. dropping below its MAWP(max allowable working pressure)
D. relieving water pressure
exceeding its MAWP (max allowable working pressure)
86
The term applied when a safety valve opens and closes rapidly.
A. Feathering
B. Chattering
C. Pressuring
D. Huddling
Chattering
87
The best time to blow down the boiler to remove sludge and sediment is when the boiler is at ________
A. its highest load
B. half its load
C. its lightest load
D. anytime
its lightest load
88
After the total force of the steam has lifted the safety valve off its seat, the steam enters the ____
A. huddling chamber
B. steam holding tank
C. combustion chamber
D. main steam line
huddling chamber
89
The water column is located at the NOWL(Normal Operating Water Level) so the lowest visible part of the gauge glass is _____ above the highest surface.
A. 2" to 3"
B. just
C. 4" to 5"
D. never
2" to 3"
90
Blowback of a safety valve is to prevent _____
A. burner cycling
B. premature popping
C. chattering
D. feathering
chattering
91
The water in the boiler is heated, turns to steam, and leaves the boiler through the ____
A. feedwater line
B. main steam line
C. main header
D. main branch line
main steam line
92
A ______ valve should be located between the boiler and the valve on the feedwater line.
A. stop; check
B. stop; regulator
C. check; stop
D. check; regulator
stop; check
93
Top test the vacuum pump, the operator puts the selector switch in the _____ position.
A. float
B. float or vacuum
C. vacuum
D. continuous
continuous
94
The __________ shuts off the burner in the event of low water.
A. low water alarm
B. low water fuel cut-off
C. feedwater regulator
D. automatic low water feeder
low water fuel cut-off
95
Water is supplied to the condensate return tank by the ______ pump.
A. vacuum
B. feedwater
C. condensate
D. return
vacuum
96
What maintains a constant water level in the boiler?
A. gauge glass
B. automatic city water makeup feeder
C. water column
D. feedwater regulator
feedwater regulator
97
The low water fuel cut-off should be tested:
A. daily
B. semiannually
C. monthly
D. annually
daily
98
The burner should be ______ when the low water fuel cut-off is blown down.
A. off
B. tagged out
C. firing
D. tested
firing
99
Which of the following valves must be used as boiler main steam stop valve?
A. globe
B. check
C. gate
D. OS & Y gate (outside screw & yoke)
OS & Y gate (outside screw & yoke)
100
The moment of inertia of a rectangle whose base is "b" and height "h" about its base it:
A. bh^3/12
B. bh^3/3
C. bh/36
D. bh^2/4
bh^3/3
101
The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to alternating or repeated loading without causing failure.
A. elastic limit
B. rupture strength
C. proportional limit
D. endurance limit
endurance limit
102
The total deformation measured in the direction of the line of stress.
A. axial deformation
B. strain
C. elongation
D. unit stress
strain
103
The maximum stress to which a material can be subjected without a trace of any permanent set remaining upon a complete withdrawal of stress.
A. ultimate limit
B. endurance limit
C. proportional limit
D. elastic limit
elastic limit
104
A total resistance that a material offers to an applied load.
A. flexure
B. elasticity
C. stress
D. rigidity
stress
105
The Column Formulas is applicable to cast iron column is ___
A. Euler's formula
B. Secant formula
C. J.B. Johnson's formula
D. Straight line formula
Straight line formula
106
A property of material which relates the lateral strains to the longitudinal strain.
A. Rigidity
B. Poisson's ratio
C. Elasticity
D. Deflection
Poisson's ratio
107
The maximum stress to which a material can be subjected without a trace of any permanent set remaining upon a complete withdrawal of the stress.
A. ultimate stress
B. elastic limit
C. rupture stress
D. proportional limit
elastic limit
108
The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed is:
A. Compressive strength
B. Torsional strength
C. Fatigue strength
D. Bending strength
Compressive strength
109
Rankine formula is valid up to slenderness ratio of:
A. 60
B. 120
C. 80
D. 150
120
110
In flange coupling, the weakest element should be:
A. flange
B. bolts
C. key
D. shaft
key
111
A total deformation measured in the direction of the line of stress.
A. strain
B. elongation
C. elasticity
D. contraction
strain
112
The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to alternating or repeated loading without causing failure.
A. ultimate strength
B. endurance limit
C. yield strength
D. rupture strength
endurance limit
113
The ability of metal to withstand loads without breaking down.
A. strength
B. rigidity
C. elasticity
D. deformation
strength
114
A property of material which relates the lateral strain to the longitudinal strain.
A. stress
B. Poisson's ratio
C. modulus of Elasticity
D. Deformation
Poisson's ratio
115
The ability of metal to withstand forces thus following a number of twist.
A. shear strength
B. endurance limit
C. bearing strength
D. deformation
shear strength
116
Fatigue failure occurs when a part is subjected to:
A. compressive stress
B. torsional stress
C. tensile stress
D. fluctuating stress
fluctuating stress
117
The compression members tend to buckle in the direction of _____
A. axis of load
B. minimum cross-section
C. least radius of gyration
D. perpendicular to the axis of load
least radius of gyration
118
It is the ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed elastically and to return it when unloaded.
A. creep
B. fatigue strength
C. resilience
D. toughness
resilience
119
Which of the following will best describe sunk key?
A. the keyway is helical along shaft
B. the keyway is cut in shaft only
C. the keyway is cut in hub only
D. the key is cut in both shaft and hub
the key is cut in both shaft and hub
120
In general, the design stress and factor of safety are related as follows:
A. Design Stress = ultimate stress times factor of safety.
B. Design Stress = ultimate stress divided by factor of safety.
C. Factor of Safety = design stress divided by ultimate stress.
D. Ultimate Stress = factor of safety divided by design stress.
Design Stress = ultimate stress divided by factor of safety
121
The property of a material which resist forces action to pull the material apart.
A. shear strength
B. compressive strength
C. tensile strength
D. bearing strength
tensile strength
122
The property of steel which resist indention or penetration.
A. hardness
B. ductility
C. elasticity
D. none of these
hardness
123
A type of coupling that alloys slight amount of torsional angular flexibility due to introduction with some elastic material cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in the flange
A. simple elastic bonded coupling
B. elastic material bushed coupling
C. elastic material bonded coupling
D. all of the above
elastic material bushed coupling
124
The phenomenon of continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less than the yield point:
A. elasticity
B. plasticity
C. ductility
D. creep
creep
125
A flange coupling is _____
A. used for collinear shaft
B. used for non-collinear shafts
C. rigid coupling
D. flexible
used for collinear shaft
126
Universal coupling is ________
A. used for collinear shafts
B. used for non-collinear shafts
C. type of flange coupling
D. rigid coupling
used for non-collinear shafts
127
How do you call the ratio of the volumetric stress to volumetric strain?
A. modulus in Shear
B. Stress to Strain ratio
C. Volumetric Ratio
D. Bulk Modulus
Bulk Modulus
128
The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect to velocity is:
A. power
B. momentum
C. acceleration
D. none of these
momentum
129
A thin walled pressurized vessel consists of a right circular cylinder with flat ends. Midway between the ends the stress is greatest in what direction?
A. Longitudinal
B. Radial
C. Circumferential
D. At an angle of 45 degrees to the longitudinal and circumferential direction
Circumferential
130
It is a low cost bearing used world wide for automobile or low horsepower motor applications. It is made of thin coating of over flat metal strip.
A. babbitt
B. lead
C. cadmium brass
D. thin
babbitt
131
To avoid scoring in the bearing surface and the shaft due to contamination/absorption of the fine dirt in the bearing during operation/lubrication the bearing material to apply should have good _____ properties.
A. anti-scoring
B. corrosion resistance
C. resistance conformability
D. embeddability
embeddability
132
What is the approximate length-to-diameter ratio of hydrodynamic bearings?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
1
133
Which of the following considers the 200 series of bearing?
A. heavy
B. light
C. medium
D. all of these
light
134
Which of the following considers the 300 series of bearing?
A. heavy
B. light
C. medium
D. all of these
medium
135
Which of the following is not a type of ball bearing?
A. shallow groove ball bearing
B. filling-slot ball bearing
C. self-aligning ball bearing
D. deep-groove ball bearing
shallow groove ball bearing
136
A conclusion repeatedly verified by experiment is that the smoother surface:
A. has the greater load capacity of the bearing
B. has the lesser capacity of the bearing
C. has constant load
D. none of these
has the greater load capacity of the bearing
137
The most known lubricants being utilized in whatever category of load and speed are oil, air, grease and dry lubricants like
A. Bronze
B. Lead
C. Graphite
D. Silicon
Graphite
138
What are the two principal parts of a Journal Bearing?
A. bearing and journal
B. shaft and babbit
C. clearance and fitted
D. shaft and cylinder
bearing and journal
139
A type of roller bearing in which the balls are assembled the eccentric displacement of the inner ring.
A. shallow groove ball bearing
B. filling-slot ball bearing
C. self-aligning ball bearing
D. deep-groove ball bearing
deep-groove ball bearing
140
What is the usual factor of safety for a pressure vessel?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1.5
D. 5
5
141
Steel balls for ball bearings are manufactured by ___
A. cold heading
B. rolling
C. casting
D. turning
cold heading
142
The purpose of these parts In application are to have better bearings to seal the guard against marring, etc.
A. bearing journal
B. Washer
C. metallic seal
D. shaft seal
Washer
143
To hold to minimum, the axial direction of deflection/movement, a separate thrust bearing or pre-loaded bearing capable of absorbing considerable load is required. The type of bearing to use is a _______ bearing.
A. deep groove ball
B. tapered roller bearing
C. double row angular contract
D. wide type self-aligning
double row angular contract
144
It is a low cost bearing used world wide for automobile or low horsepower motor applications. It is made of thin coating of over flat metal strip.
A. babbitt
B. lead
C. cadmium brass
D. thin
babbitt
145
Special bearing used with high deflection.
A. Babbitt
B. Roller
C. Ball
D. Self aligning
Self aligning
146
A kind of braking systems such that if the band wraps partly around the brake drum, and the braking action is obtained by pulling the band tight into the wheel.
A. block brake
B. band brake
C. clutch
D. centrifugal brake
band brake
147
Which of the following clutches that has a disadvantage of heavier rotating masses.
A. Multiple disc clutch
B. Disc clutch
C. Cone clutch
D. Twin Clutching
Multiple disc clutch
148
What friction devices that are used to connect shafts?
A. clutches
B. brakes
C. spring
D. holders
clutches
149
What is the function clutch in the machine tool?
A. alignment of drive
B. lowering of drive
C. to insure that two shafts line up at high speed
D. to connect shaft so that the driven shaft will rotate with the driving shaft and to disconnect them at all
to connect shaft so that the driven shaft will rotate with the driving shaft and to disconnect them at all
150
Clutch slippage while clutch is engaged is especially noticeable:
A. during idling
B. during acceleration
C. a low speed
D. during braking
during acceleration
151
Piston compression rings are made of what material?
A. steel
B. aluminum
C. bronze
D. cast iron
bronze
152
The function of clutch in the machine tools is ____
A. lowering the drive
B. alignment of drive shaft
C. to disconnect or connect at will the drive
D. to insure that two shafts line up at high speed
to disconnect or connect at will the drive
153
Which of the following pairs is formed if shaft is revolving in a bearing?
A. lower pair
B. sliding pair
C. turning pair
D. cylindrical pair
lower pair
154
The operating temperature of oil films in the bearing must approximately:
A. 140F to 150F
B. 140F to 160F
C. 120F to 190F
D. 120F to 190F
140F to 160F
