8: The control of Gene expression & Gene Tech Flashcards

1
Q

Explain how cells produced from stem cells can have the same genes yet be of different types.

A
  • {not all / different} genes are switched {on / off} /active / activated ;
  • correct and appropriate reference to factors /mechanisms for gene switching ;
  • e.g. reference to promoters / transcription factors
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2
Q

Explain what is meant by the terms totipotent and pluripotent.

A
  • totipotent cells can give rise to a complete human/**all cell types **;
  • pluripotent can only give some cell types;
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3
Q

Define epigenetics

A
  • Heritable phenotype changes (gene function) that do not involve alterations in the DNA sequence/mutation.
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4
Q

State two mutagenic agents.

A

Physical:
* high energy radiation /ionising particles e.g. named particles/α, β, γ & X-rays;
* x rays/cosmic rays;
* UV (light);
Chemical
* benzene;
* Carcinogen / named carcinogen;
* mustard gas / phenols / tar (qualified)
Biological:
* Named virus (HPV, HBV)
* Named bacterium (H. pylori, S. bovis)

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5
Q

Describe how a deletion mutation alters the structure of a gene. [2]

A
  • removal of one or more bases/nucleotide;
  • frameshift/(from point of mutation) base sequence change;
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6
Q

Describe how altered DNA may lead to cancer. [5]

A
  • (DNA altered by) mutation;
  • (mutation) changes base sequence;
  • of gene controlling cell growth / oncogene / that monitors cell division;
  • of tumour suppressor gene;
  • change protein structure / non-functional protein / protein not formed;
  • (tumour suppressor genes) produce proteins that inhibit cell division;
  • mitosis;
  • uncontrolled / rapid / abnormal (cell division);
  • malignant tumour;
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7
Q

Describe what is meant by a malignant tumour. [4]

A
  • mass of undifferentiated / unspecialised / totipotent cells;
  • uncontrolled cell division;
  • metastasis / (cells break off and) form new tumours /
  • spread to other parts of body;
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8
Q

Explain why fragments of DNA from cancer cells may be present in blood plasma.

A

*Cancer cells die / break open releasing DNA;

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9
Q

Explain how the methylation of tumour suppressor genes can lead to cancer. [3]

A
  • Methylation (of DNA) prevents transcription of gene;
  • Protein not produced that prevents cell division / causes cell death / apoptosis;
  • No control of mitosis.
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10
Q

Describe how alterations to tumour suppressor genes can lead to the development of tumours. (4)

A
  • (Increased) methylation (of tumour suppressor genes);
  • Mutation (in tumour suppressor genes);
  • Tumour suppressor genes are not transcribed / expressed
    **OR **
  • Amino acid sequence/primary/ tertiary structure altered;
  • (Results in) rapid/uncontrollable cell division;
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11
Q

Describe the mechanism by which a signal protein causes the synthesis of mRNA. [6]

A
  • signal protein {binds to / joins to / interacts with / activates}
  • receptor on surface membrane;
  • messenger molecule moves from cytoplasm and enters nucleus;
  • {produces / activates} transcription factor;
  • binds to promoter region;
  • RNA polymerase transcribes target gene;
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12
Q

Explain how oestrogen enables RNA polymerase to transcribe its target gene. [6]

A
  • Oestrogen diffuses through the cell surface membrane and nuclear envolope (lipid soluble);
  • attaches to ERα receptor;
  • ERα receptor changes shape;
  • ERα receptor leaves protein complex which inhibited it’s action;
  • oestrogen receptor binds to promoter region;
  • enables RNA polymerase to transcribe target gene.
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13
Q

Compare the structure of dsRNA and DNA. [4]

A

Similarities; 2 max
* Polynucleotides/polymer of nucleotides;
* Contain Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine;
* Have pentose sugar/5 carbon sugar;
* Double stranded/hydrogen bonds/base pairs.

Differences; 2 max
* dsRNA contains uracil, DNA contains thymine;
* dsRNA contains ribose DNA contains Deoxyribose;
* dsRNA is Shorter than DNA; fewer base pairs in length;

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14
Q

Describe how DNA is replicated in a cell. [6]

A
  • DNA strands separate / hydrogen bonds broken (Helicase);
  • Parent strand acts as a template / copied / semi-conservative replication;
  • Nucleotides line up by complementary base pairing; (Adenine & Thymine etc)
  • Role of DNA polymerase: joins adjacent nucleotides on the developing strand via condensation and formation of phosphodiester bond;
  • 5’ to 3’ direction
  • Each new DNA molecule has 1 template and 1 new strand
    Formed by semi-conservative replication.
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15
Q

Describe a plasmid. [3]

A
  • circular DNA;
  • separate from main bacterial DNA;
  • contains only a few genes;
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16
Q

Explain what is meant by a vector.

A
  • Carrier of DNA / gene; (context of foreign DNA)
  • Into cell/other organism/host;
  • E.g.,: Plasmid, Virus, liposome and gene gun.
17
Q

mRNA may be described as a polymer. Explain why.

A
  • Made up of many (similar) molecules/monomers/nucleotides/units
18
Q

Suggest why the restriction enzyme has cut the human DNA in many places but has cut the plasmid DNA only once. [3]

A
  • Enzymes only cut DNA at specific base sequence/recognition site/specific point;
  • sequence of bases/recognition site/specific point (on which enzyme acts)
  • occurs once in plasmid and many times in human DNA;
  • (max 1 if no reference to base sequence or recognition site)
19
Q

What is a restriction endonuclease enzyme?

A
  • Cuts DNA by hydrolysing the phosphodiester bonds;
  • at specific ‘recognition sites’ on both strands of the DNA molecule;
  • to form fragments of DNA with either;
  • Sticky or Blunt ends
20
Q

State 3 techniques to ISOLATE a gene.

A
  1. mRNA to cDNA using reverse transcriptase.
  2. Restriction enzymes to cut gene from nuclear DNA
  3. Use the Gene Machine
21
Q

State the 5 stages involved in Recombinant DNA technology (in vivo)

A
  1. ISOLATION
  2. INSERTION (into a vector= recombinant plasmid)
  3. TRANSFORMATION (recombinant plasmid taken up by Bacteria)
  4. IDENTIFICATION (use of marker genes to easily identify which bacteria have successfully been transformed / GMO / Transgenic)
  5. CLONING
22
Q

Explain how modified plasmids are made by genetic engineering and how the use of markers enable bacteria containing these plasmids to be detected. [6]

A
  • Isolate TARGET gene / DNA from another organism / mRNA from cell/organism;
  • Using restriction endonuclease/restriction enzyme/reverse transcriptase to get DNA;
  • Produce sticky ends;
  • Use DNA ligase to join TARGET gene and MARKER gene to plasmid; example of marker e.g. antibiotic resistance / GFP;
  • Add plasmid to bacteria to grow (colonies);
  • Plate onto medium where the marker gene is expressed;
  • Bacteria/colonies not killed have antibiotic resistance gene and (probably) the TARGET gene;
  • Bacteria/colonies expressing the marker gene have the TARGET gene as well;
23
Q

Describe the roles of two named types of enzymes used to insert DNA fragments into plasmids.

A
  • Restriction endonucleases/enzymes cuts plasmid; OR Restriction endonucleases/enzymes produces ‘sticky ends’;

** Reject restriction enzymes cuts the gene.*

*Ligase joins gene/DNA and plasmid OR Ligase joins ‘sticky ends’;

24
Q

Describe the Polymerase Chain Reaction. (5)

A

Denaturation
* Heat DNA; (95 deg C)
* Breaks hydrogen bonds/separates strands;
* Add primers;
* Add nucleotides;
Annealing
* Cool (to approx 50 deg C)
* (to allow) binding / annealing of nucleotides/primers;
Synthesis / Extension
* Reheat to approx 70-72 deg C
* Role of heat stable Taq DNA polymerase;

Repeat cycle many times;

25
Q

Describe how STRs could be removed from a sample of DNA.

A
  • Restriction endonucleases/enzymes;
  • (Cut DNA) at specific base sequences/pairs OR (Cut DNA) at recognition/restriction sites;
26
Q

What is a DNA probe?

A
  • (Short) single strand of DNA;
  • Bases complementary (with DNA/allele/gene);
27
Q

What is the use of labelled DNA probes?

A

Used to screen patients for:

  • Heritable conditions
  • Drug responses
  • Health risks
28
Q

Name three techniques used by scientists to compare DNA sequences.

A
  1. Polymerase Chain Reaction
  2. DNA fingerprinting
  3. Gel electrophoresis
  4. DNA sequencing
29
Q

Describe and explain how the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify a DNA fragment. [4]

A
  • (Requires DNA fragment) (Taq) DNA polymerase, (DNA) nucleotides and primers;
  • Heat to 95 °C to break hydrogen bonds (and separate strands);
  • Reduce temperature (40-65°C) so primers bind to DNA/strands;
  • Increase temperature (70 to 75 °C), DNA polymerase joins nucleotides (and repeat method);
30
Q

Why is the DNA heat to 95°C during PCR? [2]

A
  • Produce single stranded DNA
  • Breaks WEAK hydrogen bonds between strands
31
Q

Why do you add primers during PCR?

A
  • Attaches to / complementary to start of the gene / end of fragment;
  • Replication of base sequence from here;
  • Prevents strands annealing
32
Q

Explain why ‘base-pairs’ is a suitable unit for measuring the length of a piece of DNA. [3]

A
  • DNA = 2 chains / joined by linking of 2 bases / A with T and G with C/ purine pairs with pyrimidine;
  • Bases are a constant distance apart / nucleotides occupy constant distance/
  • each base-pair is same length / sugar-phosphate is a constant distance;
33
Q

Suggest one reason why DNA replication stops in the polymerase chain reaction.

A
  • Limited number of primers/nucleotides; /
    Primers / nucleotides ‘used up’.
  • DNA polymerase (eventually) denatures
34
Q

What name is used for the non-coding sections of a gene?

35
Q

Name 6 types of mutation.

A
  1. Addition
  2. Deleltion
  3. Substitution
  4. Duplication
  5. Inversion
  6. Translation
  7. Non-disjunction
36
Q

Name 5 classes of animal stem cell

A

TOTIPOTENT
PLURIPOTENT
MULTIPOTENT
UNIPOTENT
Induced Pluripotent

37
Q

Epigenetic gene silencing involves…..

A

Methylation of DNA
Deacetylation of Histones

38
Q

Epigenetic gene activation involves….

A

Demethylation of DNA
Acetylation of Histones