7 Perioperative Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

A patient presents for a total thyroidectomy.

a) Name any five specific investigations that are indicated in the
preoperative assessment and explain why they are indicated.

A

1 ● Full blood count —
to rule out the adverse effects of antithyroid medications such as thrombocytopenia;
to measure baseline haemoglobin as total thyroidectomies can have significant blood loss.

2 ● Thyroid function tests —
the patient should be euthyroid prior to
elective surgery to avoid the risk of a
perioperative thyroid storm or
myxoedema coma.

3 ● Electrolytes and corrected calcium levels
— to obtain baseline levels
and rule out any calcium abnormalities.

4 ● Chest X-ray:
- to assess the size of the goitre;
- to identify tracheal deviation/compression;
- lateral thoracic inlet views to rule out retrosternal extension.

5 ● CT scan of the airway —
to delineate the extent of tracheal
narrowing/invasion.

● Nasendoscopy —
to record any pre-existing vocal cord dysfunction
and/or laryngeal displacement.

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2
Q

b) What factors in a euthyroid patient must the anaesthetist consider during the induction and maintenance phases of a total thyroidectomy?
.

A

Considerations during anaesthetic induction:

● Adequate preoxygenation and
check the ability to ventilate prior to
muscle relaxation.

● Consider spraying the vocal cords
with lidocaine prior to intubation to
reduce coughing on emergence.

● Avoid overinflating the tube cuff to minimise vocal
cord/tracheal damage.

● If there are any concerns regarding the airway in the preoperative assessment, consider the following options:

  • inhalational induction with sevoflurane;
  • awake fibreoptic intubation;
  • tracheostomy under local anaesthetic performed by a surgeon;
  • ventilation through a rigid bronchoscope

___________________________

Considerations during the maintenance phase:

● Intravenous/inhalational maintenance with the use of a remifentanil infusion reduces the need for muscle relaxation and allows intraoperative electrophysiological monitoring of the recurrent laryngeal nerve,
if required in complicated cases.
It also provides a bloodless surgical field.

● Positioning with the head extended and sandbag under the shoulders for optimal surgical access.

● Eyes should be adequately padded especially in patients with
exophthalmos.

● Avoid neck ties and maintain a head-up tilt to aid venous drainage.

Maintain good access to an intravenous drip in the hands via long
extensions.

Analgesia with local infiltration by the surgeon and simple analgesia
plus weak opioids.
● Multimodal antiemetics.

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3
Q

c) During extubation, what factors must be considered post-total
thyroidectomy?

A

RLN palsy - fibreoptic check for palys
tracheomalacia - may become evident afte extubation
deflate cuff and ensure leak - may be airway oedema

ensure airway suctioned / free blood secretions

want to avoid hypertensive response to laryngoscopy
consider deep or remi extubation

● Assess haemostasis before wound closure by performing a Valsalva
manoeuvre in a head-down position.

● If there are any concerns regarding the integrity of the recurrent laryngeal nerve, visualise the vocal cords with a laryngoscope or fibreoptic scope.

Fully reverse neuromuscular blockade.

● Deflate the endotracheal tube cuff and ensure there is a leak around the tube prior to extubation, especially in large/longstanding goitres.

● Extubate the patient when awake and sitting upright.

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4
Q

d) List any four important postoperative complications following this surgery and how you would manage them

A

● Laryngeal oedema —
may occur as a result of traumatic intubation or
with complex surgery. This is managed with corticosteroid therapy and humidified oxygen.

● Tracheomalacia —
may occur in patients with large goitres/tumours;
it requires immediate reintubation.

● Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy — may occur due to ischaemia, traction, entrapment or transection of the nerve during surgery and may be unilateral or bilateral.

● Hypocalcaemia — temporary hypocalcaemia occurs in up to 20% of patients but permanent hypocalcaemia is rare. Calcium replacement (oral/intravenous) should be instituted immediately.

Thyroid storm — less commonly seen as all patients are rendered euthyroid prior to elective surgery. Management is supportive with active cooling, hydration, beta-blockers and antithyroid drugs.
Dantrolene has also been used successfully.

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5
Q

Q2 — Diabetes and anaesthesia
You are assessing a 63-year-old female for an elective laparotomy in the pre-anaesthetic assessment clinic. She has type I diabetes which is under control.

a) In a patient with diabetes mellitus, what clinical features may
indicate autonomic involvement?

A

● Cardiac autonomic neuropathy:
- resting tachycardia and reduced heart rate variation;
- orthostatic hypotension;
- delayed recognition of ischaemic chest pain.

● Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy:
- oesophageal dysfunction leading to heartburn and dysphagia;
- delayed gastric emptying leading to early satiety, anorexia, nausea and vomiting;
- small bowel dysfunction leading to alternating diarrhoea and
constipation;
- anal and rectal neuropathy;
- gallbladder atony and enlargement.

● Genitourinary autonomic neuropathy:
- neurogenic bladder;
- sexual dysfunction.

● Hypoglycaemia unawareness.

● Anaemia due to reduced sympathetic stimulation of erythropoietin
production.

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6
Q

b) What are the other microvascular and macrovascular
complications of diabetes mellitus?

A

Microvascular complications (due to tissue exposure to chronic
hyperglycaemia):

● Nephropathy —
commonest cause of renal failure in the developed world.

● Retinopathy —
increased risk of retinal detachment, vitreous
haemorrhage and macular oedema.

● Neuropathy —
most common is a mixed sensory and motor
polyneuropathy.

● Autonomic neuropathy.

● Focal neuropathies —
carpal tunnel syndrome, third cranial nerve
palsies, diabetic amyotrophy.

_______________________________________

Macrovascular complications:
● Hypertension.

● Coronary artery disease.

● Cerebrovascular disease.

● Peripheral arterial disease.

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7
Q

c) List any five classes of oral hypoglycaemic agents that are
available with an example.
Describe the mechanism of action for each

A

● Sulphonylureas —
gliclazide.
stimulate insulin release from the pancreas and decrease insulin resistance in peripheral tissues (muscle and fat).

● Biguanides —
metformin.
Decrease hepatic glucose output and increase insulin
sensitivity at hepatic and peripheral tissues.

● Thiazolidinediones —
improve peripheral uptake and utilisation of glucose in muscle and fat and also decrease liver glucose production.

● DPP-4 inhibitors —
stimulate insulin secretion, inhibit glucagon
secretion and preserve beta-cell mass in the pancreas.

● Incretin agonists —
bind to glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptors, stimulate glucose-dependent insulin secretion, suppress glucagon secretion, slow gastric emptying and reduce food intake.

● Meglitinides — stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreatic beta cells.

● Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors — inhibit alpha-glucosidase, which converts complex carbohydrates into monosaccharides, thus, slowing and limiting the absorption of glucose.

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8
Q

Q3 — Enhanced recovery programme
A 74-year-old patient is scheduled for a primary total hip replacement.

a) What are the advantages of an enhanced recovery programme (ERP) for this type of surgery?

A
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9
Q

b) What preoperative measures can be included in the ERP for this patient?

A
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10
Q

c) List the intraoperative measures that can be included as part of the ERP in this case.

A
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11
Q

c) List any five classes of oral hypoglycaemic agents that are
available with an example.
Describe the mechanism of action for each

A

● Sulphonylureas —
gliclazide.
stimulate insulin release from the pancreas and decrease insulin resistance in peripheral tissues (muscle and fat).

● Biguanides —
metformin.
Decrease hepatic glucose output and increase insulin
sensitivity at hepatic and peripheral tissues.

● Thiazolidinediones —
improve peripheral uptake and utilisation of glucose in muscle and fat and also decrease liver glucose production.

● DPP-4 inhibitors —
stimulate insulin secretion, inhibit glucagon
secretion and preserve beta-cell mass in the pancreas.

● Incretin agonists —
bind to glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptors, stimulate glucose-dependent insulin secretion, suppress glucagon secretion, slow gastric emptying and reduce food intake.

● Meglitinides — stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreatic
beta cells.
● Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors — inhibit alpha-glucosidase, which converts complex carbohydrates into monosaccharides, thus, slowing and limiting the absorption of glucose.

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12
Q

Q3 — Enhanced recovery programme
A 74-year-old patient is scheduled for a primary total hip replacement.

a) What are the advantages of an enhanced recovery programme (ERP) for this type of surgery?

A

● Early mobilisation (operative day if possible).

● Reduced postoperative complications, especially cardiopulmonary.

● Earlier discharge.

● Theatre efficiency.

● Standardised care.

● Increased patient satisfaction

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13
Q

b) What preoperative measures can be included in the ERP for this patient?

A

● Patient education and engagement.

● Optimisation of comorbidities.

● Admission on the morning of surgery.

● Minimising fasting times and maintaining nutrition.

● Premedication to reduce the stress response, opioid requirements and improve analgesia.

A combination of NSAIDs, gabapentin,
paracetamol, clonidine and dexamethasone can be used.

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14
Q

c) List the intraoperative measures that can be
included as part of the ERP in this case.

A

● Judicious fluid management.

● Intraoperative use of tranexamic acid.

● Prevention of PONV, e.g. avoidance of nitrous oxide, use of TIVA, multimodal antiemetics.

● Regional anaesthesia — central neuraxial blocks without long-acting opioids.

● Local anaesthetic infiltration by surgeons
with or without a nerve block.

● If using a general anaesthetic technique,
the use of short-acting agents to quicken recovery times.

● Maintenance of normothermia.

● Surgical technique —
minimise operative time, avoidance of drains.

● Avoidance of urinary catheters.

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15
Q

d) What postoperative measures can be included as part of the
ERP for this patient?

A

● Multimodal analgesia/oral opioids (avoid PCA).

● Encourage early oral intake (energy drinks).

● Planned early mobilisation and physiotherapy.

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16
Q

Q4 — Anaemia and anaesthesia
A 76-year-old patient who is scheduled for an elective primary total knee replacement is found to be anaemic, with a haemoglobin level of 90g/L.

a) List the perioperative consequences associated with preoperative anaemia.

A

● Increased risk of 30-day postoperative mortality.

● Increased risk of cardiac events.

● Increased risk of major non-cardiac complications
(respiratory,
urinary, wound, septic and thromboembolic).

● Poor functional recovery/quality of life postoperatively.

● Increased length of hospital stay.

● Receipt of autologous red blood cells increases
mortality and morbidity

17
Q

b) Name some physiological adaptations that can occur to offset
the effects of anaemia.

A

● Increased oxygen extraction by tissues such as the kidney, skeletal
muscle and skin leading to an increased total oxygen extraction and
reduced mixed venous oxygen saturation.
● Redistribution of cardiac output to organs with a high demand, i.e.
brain and heart.
● Reduced blood viscosity leading to a decreased systemic vascular
resistance and increased cardiac output.
● Rightward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve (due to a decrease in
2,3-DPG and hydrogen ions) causes a reduced affinity of haemoglobin
for oxygen and favours its release at higher partial pressures.
● Reduced oxygen tension triggers the transcription of hypoxiaresponse
genes, such as erythropoietin and vascular endothelium
growth factor.

18
Q

c) List any five perioperative events that may worsen the effects
of anaemia.

A

Increased oxygen demand:
● Pain.
● Fever.
● Shivering.
● Stress response.

Reduced oxygen supply:
● Atelectasis, pneumonia, thromboembolic events.
● Hypovolaemia.
● Cardiac depression by anaesthetic agents.
● Haemorrhage.
● Hypothermia leading to a left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve.

19
Q

d) List further blood tests that may help to classify this anaemia

A

● Reticulocyte count.
● Mean corpuscular volume.
● Ferritin level.
● Transferrin saturation.
● Urea and electrolytes.
● Liver function tests.
● Inflammatory markers.
● Vitamin B12 levels.
● Folate levels.
● LDH.
● Serum iron.
● Free plasma haemoglobin.
● Haptoglobin.

20
Q

Q5 — CPET testing

a) List the main measures of fitness obtained by CPET testing and
explain what it is.

A

The main measures of fitness obtained by CPET testing are:

1 ● Peak oxygen uptake (VO2 peak):
- measure of maximal exercise capacity for the patient;

  • defined as the highest oxygen uptake at
    end-exercise on a rapid incremental test;
  • measured in ml/min or ml/kg/min.

2 ● Anaerobic threshold (AT):

  • oxygen consumption for a patient at which anaerobic
    metabolism starts supplementing the aerobic metabolism;
  • measured in ml/min or ml/kg/min.

3 ● Ventilatory equivalents (VE/VECO2):
- ratio of minute ventilation to CO2 output;
- measure of ventilatory efficiency.

21
Q

b) List any four abnormalities on CPET testing that indicate
cardiorespiratory disease with the values.

A

● Anaerobic threshold </= 11ml/kg/min.

● Peak oxygen uptake </=15ml/kg/min.

● VO2 max or peak <84% predicted.

● Anaerobic threshold <40% VO2 max predicted.

● Vitals range — heart rate, BP, respiratory rate.

● Ventilatory reserve (VR) = MVV-VEmax <11L/min.

● VE/VCO2 >34.

● PaO2 <80mmHg.

● P(A-a)O2 >35mmHg.

22
Q

c) What are the indications for CPET testing?

&&

A

● To estimate perioperative mortality and morbidity and
contribute to the preoperative risk assessment.

● To contribute towards multidisciplinary shared
decision-making and consent.

● To predict the most appropriate level of care postoperatively.

23
Q

d) List other tests to assess the patient’s functional capacity.

A

● Incremental shuttle walk test.

● 6-minute walk test.

● Stair climb test.

24
Q

e) What scoring systems can help to predict perioperative risk
before major non-cardiac surgery?

A

● P-POSSUM.

● Surgical Outcome Risk Tool (SORT).

● American College of Surgeons National Surgical Quality Improvement
Program (ACS NSQIP) risk calculator score.

● Surgical Risk Scale (SRS).

● Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation (APACHE 2) score.

● American Society of Anesthesiologists Physical Status (ASA-PS) score.

25
Q

a) What is prehabilitation in perioperative medicine?

A

Prehabilitation is the practice of enhancing a
patient’s functional capacity
before surgery,
with the aim of improving postoperative outcomes.

26
Q

b) What are the outcome benefits of a prehabilitation
programme?

A

● Improvement in length of hospital stay.

● Reduced postoperative pain.

● Improvement in postoperative outcomes

27
Q

c) Which specific issues are addressed as part of medical
optimisation in a prehabilitation programme?

A

● Preoperative smoking cessation.

● Reduced alcohol intake.

● Weight optimisation.

● Management of anaemia.

● Control of blood glucose.

● Optimisation of pharmacological therapy.

28
Q

d) How would a prehabilitation exercise program improve a
patient’s cardiorespiratory reserve?

A

The response to exercise training causes:
● Increased cardiac output, arteriovenous oxygen difference and VO2
max.

● Skeletal muscle adaptations — increased mitochondrial content and
oxygen uptake capacity.

● Overall functional reserve increases to meet the increased metabolic
demands of surgery and the postoperative period

29
Q

e) What are the benefits of carbohydrate preloading **

and nutritional optimisation?

A

The benefits of carbohydrate preloading:
1 ● Reduces insulin resistance.

2 ● Promotes an anabolic state.

3 ● Minimises the loss of protein, lean body mass and muscle function.

Nutritional optimisation with
immunonutrition,
ingestion of amino acids,
omega 3 fatty acids and nucleotides:

● Counteracts hyperinflammation and immune impairment.

● Promotes wound healing.

● Reduces infection rates.

● Shortens hospital length of stay.

30
Q

f) What psychologically supportive interventions may be used in
prehabilitation?

A

● Providing sensory information
(what the perioperative experience
will feel like).

● Cognitive intervention such as the
development of a positive attitude.

● Behavioural instruction.

● Relaxation techniques such as
hypnosis and muscle relaxation
techniques.

● Providing procedural information.

● Emotion-focused intervention.

31
Q

a) Describe the risk assessment tools commonly used in
anaesthesia.

A

● ASA Physical Status (ASA-PS) score.

● Cardiac Risk Index.

● Respiratory risk scores.

● POSSUM, P-POSSUM.

● NELA calculator.

● EuroSCORE.

32
Q

b) Name and describe a risk score for cardiac complications.

A

● Lee’s Revised Cardiac Risk Index (RCRI).

● This is the most commonly used risk score
for cardiac complications
after major non-cardiac surgeries.

● There are six independent predictors —

1 high-risk surgery,

2 ischaemic heart disease,

3 CCF,

4 CVA,

5 insulin therapy,

6 creatinine >176μmol/L.

● There are four classes— class 1 has a 0.1% risk
but class 4 has an 11% risk.

33
Q

c) Name and detail a risk score for postoperative pulmonary
complications.

A

● Assess Respiratory risk In Surgical patients in CATalonia (ARIS-CAT)
score.

● This is a seven-variable risk model —

age,
SpO2,
respiratory infection in the last month,
preop Hb <100g/L,
surgical incision site,
duration of surgery,
emergency procedure.

34
Q

d) What are the components of the POSSUM and P-POSSUM risk
prediction models?

A

● POSSUM — Physiological and Operative Severity Score for the
enUmeration of Mortality and morbidity.

● There are 12 physiological variables and six surgical variables.

● Calculates the 30-day mortality after surgery.

● The physiological variables are —
age, cardiac signs, respiratory rate,
systolic BP, heart rate, GCS, Hb,
WBC, urea, sodium, potassium, ECG.

● Operative variables are —
severity, multiple procedures, blood loss,
peritoneal soiling, malignancy, urgency of surgery.

● P-POSSUM —
Portsmouth POSSUM.

● P-POSSUM uses alternative risk equations, but the same variables.

● Comprehensive and well validated.

35
Q

e) What is the NELA calculator and what does it estimate?

A

National Emergency Laparotomy Audit

● It estimates 30-day mortality after emergency bowel surgery.

● The P-POSSUM model is used to predict mortality,
but it is overestimated if the risk is >15%.

● The NELA calculator is accurate and specific for emergency
laparotomies.

● It is time consuming, requires intraoperative findings, and does not
give morbidity

36
Q

f) The NCEPOD enquiry in 2011 produced the SORT tool; list any
four variables that are used in this tool.

A

● SORT tool — Surgical Outcome Risk Tool.

● There are six preoperative variables —
ASA-PS, urgency, specialty,
severity, cancer, age.

● It predicts 30-day mortality in non-cardiac,
non-neurological inpatient surgery.

37
Q

g) Outline the difference between risk scores and risk prediction
models.

A

● Risk assessment tools can be divided into risk scores and risk
prediction models; both are developed with multivariable analysis of
risk factors leading to a specific outcome.

● Risk scores assign a weighting to factors identified as independent
predictors of an outcome;
this allows comparison with other patients
on a scale. They are simple to use.

● Risk prediction models estimate the individual probability of risk by
entering the patient’s data into the model.
They are more accurate in
predicting, but are more complex for routine use.