7. Musculoskeletal Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What is radiology?

A

The medical discipline that uses medical imaging to diagnose and treat diseases within the bodies of humans.

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2
Q

What are the different imaging technologies in current clinical use?

A
  • X-rays
  • Computer tomography (CT)
  • Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  • Radiographic contrast agents -> Barium radiology + Angiography
  • Ultrasound
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3
Q

What are some radiology safety measures?

A
  • Dose should be kept as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA)
  • Radiation techniques should be avoided in pregnancy
  • Non-radiation techniques should be used where possible and appropriate
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4
Q

In radiology, what is the dose measured in?

A

mSv

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5
Q

Describe the principle on which radiography works.

A
  • High energy EM waves (usually x-rays) are absorbed by different materials to varying extents.
  • This means that the detector or film receives different intensities of the waves depening on what they pass through.
  • The creation of 2D images using this technique is called projection radiography.
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6
Q

What are some advantages and disadvantages of plain x-rays?

A

ADV:

  • Quick
  • Cheap
  • Great detail
  • Widely availabke

DIS:

  • 2D image only
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7
Q

How are x-rays produced?

A

High energy electrons striking a tungsten target within a vacuum tube.

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8
Q

Is it acceptable to call the image produced by an x-ray an x-ray?

A

No, it is better to call it a radiograph, image or film.

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9
Q

What colour will the following appear on a x-ray/CT image:

  • Air
  • Fat
  • Bone
  • Metal
  • Calcium
  • Organs, Muscles, Soft tissues
A
  • Air -> Black
  • Fat -> Black
  • Bone -> White
  • Metal -> White
  • Calcium -> White
  • Organs, Muscles, Soft tissues -> Shades of grey
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10
Q

In radiography, how are the different views of the image named?

A

It is named according to the direction of the x-rays, such as the anterposterior, posteroanterior, oblique and lateral views.

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11
Q

What are some applications of x-rays?

A
  • Bone fractures
  • Basic anatomy checks -> e.g. Dextrocardia of the heart, lung collapse, soft tissues
  • Detecting abnormalities, such as tumours
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12
Q

Describe the principle on which ultrasound imaging works.

A
  • High frequency ultrasound is passed into the tissue
  • At every boundary where there is a change in density, part of the signal is reflected, which is picked up by the detector at the surface and used to produce an image
  • The greater the difference in density, the more of the signal is reflected at that boundary.
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13
Q

What is the frequency of ultrasound typically used in imaging?

A

2-15 MHz

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14
Q

What are some advantages and disadvantages of ultrasound imaging?

A

ADV:

  • High quality information about soft tissue
  • No ionising radiation
  • Inexpensive
  • Flow information

DIS:

  • Gas and bone block US beam
  • Obesity degrades image quality
  • Operator dependent
  • Pixel brightness is not quantitive
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15
Q

Check how to interpret an ultrasound scan!!!

A

Not sure if it detects densities - more likely just differences between them.

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16
Q

What are some applications of ultrasound imaging?

A
  • Obstetrics (pre-natal scan)
  • Pediatric brain
  • Testicle and prostate
  • Female pelvis
  • Abdomen (liver, kidneys, pancreas, gall bladder) -> Variable appearance can show infection, cancers, etc.
  • Vascular disease
  • Rotator cuff of the shoulder
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17
Q

What is a Doppler ultrasound?

A
  • A form of ultrasound that employs the Doppler effect to generate imaging of the movement of tissues and body fluids (usually blood), and their relative velocity to the probe.
  • A colour scale can be used to represent the direction of blood flow.
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18
Q

What is another name often used for ultrasound imaging?

A

Ultrasonography

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19
Q

Describe the principles of nuclear imaging.

(Note: This is not core material)

A

Nuclear imaging involves the use of a radioactive tracer within the body that emits usually gamma radiation. This can be detected by a detector and used to understand internal body structure.

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20
Q

What is the most common radionuclide used in nuclear medicine imaging studies?

(Note: This is not core material)

A

99mTc -> Half-life of 6 hours and a gamma emitter.

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21
Q

What are some of the scan types used in nuclear medicine imaging?

A
  • 2D scintigraphy -> Bone, renal
  • 3D -> PET
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22
Q

What is a PET CT scan?

A

A nuclear medicine imaging technique that uses both PET and CT scanning simultaneously. The images are superimposed.

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23
Q

What does CT stand for?

A

Computer tomography

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24
Q

Describe the principle on which CT works.

A
  • An x-ray tube rotates around a patient, on the other side of which are multiple rows of detectors. This is used to assemble a cross-section of the patient.
  • A CT can take multiple slices per rotation (up to 64).
  • In spiral CT, the patient may move past the x-ray tube so that a multi-layer image is formed.
  • The detector works by converting the x-rays to a flow of electrons, which is digitised to Hounsfield units (HU).
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25
Q

What are the colours on a CT scan homologous to?

A

The colours on an x-ray, since a CT is essentially just a series of x-ray images.

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26
Q

Describe the Hounsfield scale for CT scans.

A

The scale assigns the following values:

  • +1000HU = Bone
  • 0HU = Water
  • -1000HU = Air
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27
Q

What are some advantages and disadvantages of multislice CT?

A

ADV:

  • Static or movie images
  • Noninvasive
  • Rapid filming gives few motion artifacts
  • Good spatial resolution

DIS:

  • Expensive
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28
Q

What are some applications for CT?

A
  • Trauma
  • Intercranial haemorrhage
  • Abdominal injury (especially to organs)
  • Fractures
  • Spinal alignment
  • Diagnosis and staging of cancers
  • Detection of foreign bodies in joints
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29
Q

What are radiographic contrast agents and how do they work?

A
  • Chemicals that absorb radiation in a CT or x-ray scan, so that the tissue of interest can be ssen more clearly
  • They work by changing the density of the tissue, changing its opacity to x-rays
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30
Q

Are radiographic contrast agents the same as radionuclides?

A

No, radiographic contrast agents do not emit radiation (like radionuclides used in nuclear medicine imaging), but change the opacity of the tissues of interest.

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31
Q

Name some radiographic contrast agents and their uses.

A
  • Barium sulphate -> Gastrointestinal imaging
  • Iodinated contrasts -> Vascular snd lymphatic imaging, Contrast CTs, Cavities
  • Air -> Used alongside other contrast to provide double contrast, since the air is less opaque than the contrast tissue
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32
Q

What is an angiograph and how is it done?

A
  • Imaging technique used to study blood vessels.
  • Radiographic contrast (iodine) is injected into the blood vessels, which are then imaged using an x-ray based technique.
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33
Q

What is an arthrogram and how is it done?

(Note: This is not core information)

A
  • An x-ray image or CT scan of a joint after a contrast has been injected into it
  • The soft tissue is made clearer, so that injuries can be diagnosed more easily
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34
Q

What does MRI stand for?

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

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35
Q

Describe the principle on which MRI works, including the parts of the machine.

A

The machine is a tunnel consisting of:

  • High strength magnets -> Apply a magnetic field to the patient, polarising the sample
  • Shim coils -> Correct the magnetic field
  • Gradient coils -> Localise the region to be scanned
  • Radiofrequency coils -> Excite the sample and detect the resulting NMR signal

The time for each proton to stop resonating determines the type of tissue. The de-excitation of protons occurs in two phases (T1 and T2), each of which releases energy that can be detected.

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36
Q

What contrast agents are used in MRI?

A

Magnetically active agents, such as gadolinium.

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37
Q

What are some advantages and disadvantages of MRI?

A

ADV:

  • Static or movie images
  • Multiple plane images
  • Good contrast
  • No known health hazards
  • Good for soft tissue injuries

DIS:

  • More expensive than CT
  • Long scans are not pleasant for those with claustrophobia
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38
Q

Whereas CT and x-ray imaging look at tissue density, what does MRI look at?

A

Proton energy

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39
Q

What colour will the following appear in an MRI scan:

  • Air
  • Fat
  • Bone
  • Bone Marrow
  • Organs, Muscles, Soft tissues
  • Gadolinium
  • Water
A
  • Air -> Black
  • Fat -> White (or grey in T2)
  • Bone -> Dark
  • Bone Marrow -> White (or grey in T2)
  • Organs, Muscles, Soft tissues -> Shades of grey
  • Gadolinium -> White
  • Water -> Dark (but WHITE in T2)
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40
Q

Describe how a T1 and T2 MRI scan can be differentiated.

A

Although fat will appear darker in T2, water will appear much brighter, so that, for example, fluids will be much lighter. Overall, T2 scans frequently seen lighter in general.

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41
Q

What are some safety precautions taken with MRI?

A

Aside from no metal being allowed in the room, these are some contraindications:

  • Pacemakers
  • Inner ear implants
  • Cerebral aneurysms clipped by ferromagentic clips
  • Metallic foreign bodies in and around the eyes
  • Pregnancy (especially in the 1st trimester)
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42
Q

What are some applications of MRI?

A
  • Neuroimaging -> Detection of tumours (better than CT because it separates grey and white matter
  • Cardiac
  • Musculoskeletal -> Spinal, joints and tumours
  • Liver and gastrointestinal
  • Angiography
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43
Q

Remember to practise differentiating between an MRI and CT scan, which can look similar.

A

Do it.

This website is very very useful: https://www.embodi3d.com/blogs/entry/373-how-to-easily-tell-the-difference-between-mri-and-ct-scan/

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44
Q
A

CT

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45
Q
A

MRI

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46
Q
A

Ultrasound

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47
Q
A

X-ray

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48
Q

What type of tissue is bone?

A

Connective tissue

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49
Q

Give an example of a disease which causes the conversion of one organ systemm to another.

A

Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva (FOP) is a very rare condition where muscle tissue and connective tissue such as tendons and ligaments are gradually replaced by bone (ossified), forming bone outside the skeleton (extra-skeletal or heterotopic bone) that constrains movement.

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50
Q

What is the average number of bones in the human skeleton?

A

206

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51
Q

What can alter the number of rib or digits in a human skeleton?

A

Homeotic mutations

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52
Q

What is sesamoid bone? Give an example.

A

A bone embedded in tendon (or muscle). An example is the patella.

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53
Q

Give some examples of variable human skeletal anatomy and how this is useful.

A

The human skeleton varies by age and geographic variation. Humans are moderately sexually dimorphic so on average female bones are smaller than those of males. This has an importance in forensic medicine.

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54
Q

Describe the divisions of the skeleton.

A
  • Axial skeleton -> Head, Neck, Trunk
  • Appendicular skeleton -> Upper and lower extremities (including the pectoral and pelvis girdle)
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55
Q

What are the pectoral and pelvic girdles?

A

The skeletal frameworks which provides attachment for the upper and lower limbs respectively. They consist of:

  • Pectoral girdle = Scapulas + Clavicles
  • Pelvic girdle = Hip bones, Sacrum + Coccyx
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56
Q

Describe some of the functions of the human skeleton.

A
  • Providing a rigid framework
  • Protection of soft tissues
  • Facilitation of movement
  • Resistance to forces (e.g. gravity)
  • Surface for muscular attachment
  • Maintenance of blood calcium
  • Red marrow is important in blood cell formation
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57
Q

Describe the basic structure of bone as a tissue.

A

It is connective tissues so it contains cells embedded within a composite ECM containing:

  • Organic matrix -> Mostly collagen, which provides tensile strength and some flexibility
  • Inorganic material -> Hydroxyapatite (mostly calcium phosphate) that gives hardness and rigidity (the crystals impregnate the collagen matrix)
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58
Q

What are the two main materials in bone? Describe how the properties of both can be deduced experimentally.

A
  • Collagen -> Heat can be used to disrupt the peptide bonds, which makes the bone brittle -> This shows that collagen provides elasticity and tensile strength
  • Hydroxyapatite -> Acid can be used to remove the Ca2+ ions, which makes the bone curl up and be soft -> This shows that hydroxyapatite provides hardness and rigidity
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59
Q
A
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60
Q

Give an example of a bone disease caused by abnormal collagen.

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta (“brittle bone disease”)

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61
Q

What are the different morphological types of bone?

A
  • Flat bones
  • Long bones
  • Short bones
  • Irregular bones
  • Sesamoid bones
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62
Q

Where are flat bones found?

A
  • Cranial vault
  • Thoracic cage
  • Scapula
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63
Q

Where are long bones found?

A
  • Limbs
  • Hands
  • Feet
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64
Q

Where are short bones found?

A
  • Wrist
  • Ankle

(Tend to be cuboidal)

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65
Q

Where are irregular bones found?

A
  • Facial skeleton
  • Pelvis
  • Vertebral column
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66
Q

What is the function of sesamoid bones?

A

Act as pulleys and protect the tendons from excessive wear.

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67
Q

Describe the histological divisions of bone.

A
  • Bone is divided into woven (immature) and lammellar (mature)
  • Woven (or immature) bone is the first bone to develop when the skeleton forms, and it is also found in bone repair and tumours
  • Lammellar (or mature) bone is what makes up all normal adult bones, and is divided into compact and spongy/trabecular bone
    • Compact bone -> Dense bone found around the external surfaces of the bone, including the shaft
    • Trabecular bone -> Lightweight bone found in the ends of long bones, short bones and in the bodies of vertebrae
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68
Q

What are the different names for roughened areas for the attachments of muscle tendons or ligaments?

A
  • Tuberosities
  • Trochanters
  • Tubercles
  • Ridge
  • Line
  • Epicondyle
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69
Q

What is the purpose of grooves on bones?

A

They are usually where blood vessels, nerves and tendons lay close to the bone.

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70
Q

What are holes in bone called? What is the purpose of these?

A

Foramina - these are usually the site of passage of nerves or blood vessels through the bone.

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71
Q

What is the name for a concave depression in a bone?

A

Fossa

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72
Q

What are condyles and epicondyles?

A
  • Condyles -> Smooth round surfaces at the ends of bones, usually acting as articulating surfaces
  • Epicondyles -> Rough projections on the condyle that act as attachment
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73
Q

What two types of bone are adult bones composed of? Describe the location and appearance of each.

A
  1. Compact (a.k.a cortical) bone -> Dense form of bone with a Haversian canal structure. Found on the external surfaces of the bone, including the shaft.
  2. Trabecular (a.k.a. spongy or cancellous) bone -> Lightweight form of bone with honeycomb structure. Found in the ends of long bones, short bones and in the bodies of vertebrae.
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74
Q

Describe the histological structure and parts of adult bone.

A
  • Compact (a.k.a cortical) bone -> Dense form of bone with a Haversian canal structure. Found on the outside of the bone, including the shaft.
  • Trabecular (a.k.a. spongy or cancellous) bone -> Lightweight form of bone with honeycomb structure. Found in the ends of long bones, short bones and in the bodies of vertebrae.
  • Red bone marrow may be found within trabecular bone.
  • Medullary cavity (a.k.a. marrow cavity) is in the centre of long bone shafts -> Contains yellow marrow, which contains fat cells
  • The periosteum is a layer of dense irregular tissue that covers the entire outside of bones (except the joint surfaces)
  • The endosteum is like the periosteum, except it lines the inside of the medullary cavity
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75
Q

Where is red bone marrow found in bones and what is its function?

A
  • In trabecular bone.
  • It contains stem cells that ultimately give rise to RBCs, WBCs and platelets.
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76
Q

What is the name for the production of blood cells and platelets in the bone marrow?

A

Haemotopoiesis

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77
Q

Where is yellow bone marrow found, what is it made of and how does it change over time?

A
  • In the medullary cavity of long bones
  • It is made of fat cells
  • Over time, red bone marrow is converted to yellow bone marrow
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78
Q

What are the different areas of a long bone?

A
  • Diaphysis -> Shaft, which develops from the primary ossification centre
  • Epiphyses -> Ends,which develop from secondary ossification centres
  • Metaphyses -> Expanded areas of the bone shafts, to which the epiphyses fuse in bone growth
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79
Q

Describe the structure of compact bone.

A
  • Consists of units called osteons (or Haversian systems).
  • Osteons are cylindrical structures that contain a mineral matrix and living osteocytes.
  • Each osteon consists of lamellae, which are layers of compact matrix that surround a central canal called the Haversian canal. The Haversian canal (osteonic canal) contains the bone’s blood vessels and nerve fibers.
  • The lamellae are joined by caniculi (microscopic canals).
  • Osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned in the same direction along lines of stress and help the bone resist bending or fracturing. Therefore, compact bone tissue is prominent in areas of bone at which stresses are applied in only a few directions.
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80
Q

Describe the structure of spongy bone.

A
  • Consists of trabeculae, which are lamellae that are arranged as rods or plates.
  • Red bone marrow is found between the trabuculae.
  • Blood vessels within this tissue deliver nutrients to osteocytes and remove waste.
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81
Q

Describe how bone is adapted for strength and force transmission.

A
  • Compact bone around the outside
  • Trabecular bone is present in parts of the bone where forces may be exerted in various directions
  • Trabeculae are also largely arranged in the direction of stress and tension lines
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82
Q

Define ossification.

A

The laying down of bone material by osteoblasts (i.e. bone formation).

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83
Q

What are the two types of ossification and where does each occur?

A

Intramembranous ossfication (rapid):

  • Bone is deposited directly onto an embryonic connective tissue membrane.
  • This occurs in parts of the crania, mandible and most of the clavicle.

Endochondral ossification (slow):

  • Hyaline cartilage model of the bone is formed, which is gradually replaced by bone.
  • This occurs in the rest of the skeleton.
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84
Q

Draw a diagram showing where each type of ossification occurs.

A
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85
Q

What are the embryonic derivatives of bone and what does each form?

A
  • Neural crest cells -> Form the skull, mandible and clavicle (by intramembranous ossification)
  • Somites (sclerotome) -> Rest of the axial skeleton (by endochondral ossification)
  • Lateral plate mesoderm -> Long bones (by endochondral ossification)
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86
Q

How can you remember which type of ossification occurs where in the body?

A
  • Intramembranous ossification is required to form strong bone where it is necessary for protection from early-on, such as in the skull
  • Endochondral ossification is required for growth over time
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87
Q

Describe the process of intramembranous ossification.

A
  • Neural crest derived mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts and group into ossification centers
  • Osteoblasts become entrapped by the osteoid they secrete, transforming them to osteocytes
  • Trabecular bone forms
  • Mesenchymal cells on the surface form a membrane called the periosteum
  • Cells on the inner surface of the periosteum differentiate into osteoblasts and secrete osteoid parallel to that of the existing matrix, thus forming layers of cortical bone
  • Blood vessels in the centre form the red marrow
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88
Q

Describe the process of endochondral ossification.

A
  • Mesoderm-derived mesenchymal cells differentiate into chondrocytes and form the cartilage model for bone
  • Chondrocytes near the center of the cartilage model undergo hypertrophy and alter the contents of the matrix they secrete, enabling mineralization
  • Chondrocytes undergo apoptosis due to decreased nutrient availability
  • Blood vessels invade and bring osteogenic cells
  • Primary ossification center forms in the diaphyseal region of the bone -> This occurs where the major blood vessel enters
  • Secondary ossification centers develop in the epiphyseal region after birth
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89
Q

What are the two types of growth in a long bone and how does each occur?

A
  • Appositional growth -> Thickens the bone -> Bone is reabsorbed at the endosteal surface and added at the periosteal surface
  • Interstitial growth -> Makes the bone longer -> At the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows towards the extremity of the bone and is replaced by bone
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90
Q

When do the primary and secondary ossification centres form?

A
  • Primary -> Before birth
  • Secondary -> After birth (EXCEPT the distal femur and proximal tibia i.e. near the knee)
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91
Q
A
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92
Q

What is the name for the site of lengthening of long bones?

A

Epiphyseal plate (a.k.a. growth plate)

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93
Q

What is the metaphysis?

A

The section of the bone that is next to the epiphyseal plate, on the side of the diaphysis. It marks the growth of the bone.

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94
Q

How many ossification centres do bones have?

A
  • Long bones -> Two secondary, one primary
  • Short bones -> Form from just primary osssification (and may have many primary ossification centres)
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95
Q

When does the lengthening of the bone stop and what happens when this goes wrong?

A
  • When the epiphyseal plate stops dividing and the epiphysis fuses with the metaphysis
  • Premature ossification leads to premature interruption of limb extension
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96
Q

Can epiphyseal plates be seen on an x-ray?

A

They are seen as empty spaces that look sort of like a big fracture, but aren’t!

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97
Q

Name the divisions of the upper limb.

A
  • Arm
  • Forearm
  • Wrist
  • Hand
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98
Q

What bone is in the arm and what does it articulate with?

A
  • Humerus
  • Articulates with: Scapula, Radius, Ulna
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99
Q

What is it worth noting about the upper and lower limb in the anatomical position?

A

They are rotated differently so that the big toe and thumb are on opposite sides.

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100
Q

State some functional differences between the upper and lower limb.

A
  • Glenohumeral joint is capable of a wider range of movement than the hip joint due to joint depth
  • Forearm bones are capable of pronation and supination, which cannot happen in the leg
  • Thumb allows opposition, which cannot happen in the foot
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101
Q

What are the bones in the wrist and hand what do they articulate with?

A
  • Carpals, Metacarpals, Phalanges (proximal, intermediate, distal)
  • Carpals articulate with the radius at the wrist
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102
Q

What is the proper name for the shoulder joint?

A

Glenohumeral joint

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103
Q

What are all of the bones of the upper limb?

A

(Shoulder = Scapula + Clavicle)

  • Humerus
  • Radius
  • Ulna
  • Carpals
  • Metacarpals
  • Phalanges (x3)
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104
Q

What is the pectoral girdle composed of?

A
  • Clavicle
  • Scapula
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105
Q

What does the clavicle articulate with and what are the names of these joints?

A
  • Medially -> With manubrium of the sternum (sternoclavicular joint)
  • Laterally -> With acromion of scapula (acromioclavicular joint a.k.a. AC joint)
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106
Q

What are the main landmarks and attachments of the clavicle?

A

Landmarks:

  • Acromial facet (laterally)
  • Sternal facet (medially)
  • Conoid tubercle (for coracoclavicular ligament)

Muscle attachments:

  • Trapezius (insertion)
  • Deltoid (origin)
  • Pectoralis major (origin)
  • Subclavius muscle (insertion)
  • Sternocleidomastoid (origin)

Ligment attachments:

  • Acromioclavicular ligament (laterally)
  • Coracoclavicular ligament (laterally)
  • Sternoclavicular ligament (medially)
  • Costoclavicular ligament (medially)
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107
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the clavicle?

A

The clavicle is a very frequent site of fracture, with fractures most commonly occuring in the middle third of the bone.

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108
Q

Is this the anterior or posterior view of the scapula?

A

Posterior

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109
Q

What does the scapula articulate with and what are the names of these joints?

A
  • Humerus -> Glenohumeral joint
  • Clavicle -> Acromioclavicular joint
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110
Q

What are the main landmarks and attachments of the scapula?

A

Landmarks:

  • Subscapular fossa -> Subscapularis origin
  • Coracoid process ->
    • Muscles - Pectoralis minor (attachment), coracobrachialis (origin) and short head of biceps brachii (origin)
    • Ligaments - Coracoclavicular, coracoacromial, coracohumeral
  • Glenoid fossa -> Site of glenohumeral joint (glenohumeral ligaments)
  • Supraglenoid tubercle -> Long head of biceps brachii
  • Infraglenoid tubercle -> Long head of triceps brachii
  • Spine -> Deltoid, Trapezius
  • Acromion (at end of spine) -> Site of AC joint (AC ligaments), Coracoacromial ligament
  • Infraspinous fossa -> Infraspinatus muscle
  • Supraspinous fossa -> Supraspinatus muscle

Other muscle attachments:

  • Latissimus dorsi
  • Serratus anterior
  • Teres minor
  • Teres major
  • Levator scapulae
  • Rhomboideus major
  • Rhomboideus minor

Other ligment attachments:

  • Suprascapular ligament
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111
Q

What are the major palpable landmarks of the shoulder? Where are they found?

A
  • Acromion (palpable above shoulder)
  • Coracoid process (palpable below lateral clavicle)
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112
Q

Label this.

A
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113
Q

What is some clinical relevance related to the appearance of the scapula?

A
  • The scapula may be winged when pushing with the arm
  • This usually indicates damage to the long thoracic nerve, which innervates the serratus anterior muscle
  • The serratus anterior muscle is responsible for holding the scapula close to the ribcage
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114
Q

What does the humerus articulate with?

A
  • Scapula (glenohumeral joint)
  • Head of radius + Trochlear notch of ulna (elbow joint)
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115
Q

What are the main landmarks and attachments of the humerus?

A

Landmarks:

  • Head -> Glenohumeral joint
  • Greater tuberosity (lateral) -> Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor
  • Lesser tuberosity (anterior) -> Subscapularis
  • Bicipital groove (a.k.a. intertubercular groove) -> Tendon of long head of biceps passes through this, Latissimus dorsi, Pectoralis major and Teres major attaches here
  • Deltoid tuberosity (lateral side of shaft) -> Deltoid
  • Radial groove (diagnal on posterior surface) -> Radial nerve and profunda brachii artery run through this
  • Medial and lateral supracondylar ridge -> Lateral is rough and provides attachment for forearm extensor muscles
  • Medial and lateral epicondyles -> Medial is larger and features a groove where the ulnar nerve passes through
  • Trochlea (more medial) -> Articulates with trochlear notch of ulna
  • Capitulum (more lateral) -> Articulates with head of radius
  • Radial and coronoid fossa -> Receive forearm bones during flexion
  • Olecranon fossa -> Receives olecranon of ulna during extension

Other muscle attachments along shaft:

  • Anteriorly: Coracobrachialis, deltoid, brachialis, brachioradialis.
  • Posteriorly: Medial and lateral heads of triceps

Ligaments:

  • Medial collateral
  • Lateral collateral
  • Glenohumeral ligaments
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116
Q

Describe the position of the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus. What attaches to each?

A

Greater tubercle:

  • Lateral, with both posterior and anterior surfaces
  • Supraspinatus attaches to superior facet
  • Infraspinatus attaches to middle facet
  • Teres minor attaches to inferior facet

Lesser tubercle:

  • More medial, with anterior surface only
  • Subscapularis attaches here
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117
Q

How can you remember the attachments of at the lips of the bicipital groove (intertubercular groove)?

A

“A lady between two majors”

The latissimus dorsi muscle attaches between the pectoralis major and teres major.

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118
Q

What are the two necks of the humerus? What is the significance of each?

A
  • Anatomical neck -> Just below the head
  • Surgical neck -> Further down the humerus -> It is a frequent point of fracture
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119
Q

Why might a knock to the elbow elicit a tingling feeling?

A

The ulnar nerve passes posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, where it is very superficial and can easily be stimulated.

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120
Q

What is often seen with a fracture at:

  • Surgical neck of the humerus
  • Shaft of the humerus
A
  • Surgical neck of humerus -> Damage to the axillary nerve
  • Shaft of humerus -> Radial nerve
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121
Q

Label this:

A
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122
Q

Label this:

A
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123
Q

What does the radius articulate with?

A

Proximally:

  • With capitulum of humerus (elbow joint)
  • With radial notch of ulna (proximal radioulnar joint)

Distally:

  • With head of ulna (distal radioulnar joint)
  • With scaphoid and lunate (radiocarpal / wrist joint)
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124
Q

What does the ulna articulate with?

A

Proximally:

  • Trochlea of humerus (elbow joint)
  • Head of radius (proximal radioulnar joint)

Distally:

  • Ulnar notch of radius (distal radioulnar joint)
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125
Q

What are the main landmarks and attachments of the radius?

A

Landmarks:

  • Head -> Site of elbow joint (with capitulum of humerus)
  • Radial tuberosity -> Biceps brachii
  • Shaft
  • Styloid process (lateral) -> Radial collateral ligament of the wrist + Site of radiocarpal joint
  • Ulnar notch -> Site of distal radioulnar joint (with head of ulna)

Other muscles:

  • Pronator teres
  • Pronator quardatus
  • Supinator teres
  • Finger and thumb flexors and extensors
  • Brachioradialis

Other ligaments:

  • Radial collateral ligament (at elbow)
  • Radial collateral ligament (at wrist)
  • Radiocarpal ligaments

Note the intraosseous membrane between the radius and ulna.

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126
Q

What are the main landmarks and attachments of the ulna?

A

Landmarks:

  • Trochlear notch - Site of elbow joint (with trochlea of humerus)
  • Olecranon - Triceps brachii
  • Coronoid process - Brachialis + Ulnar collateral ligament of elbow
  • Ulnar tuberosity - Brachialis
  • Radial notch - Site of proximal radioulnar joint + Annular ligament
  • Styloid process - Ulnar collateral ligament of wrist
  • Head - Site of distal radioulnar joint (with ulnar notch of radius)

Other muscles:

  • Supinator
  • Anconeus
  • Finger and thumb flexors and extensors

Other ligaments:

  • Radiocarpal ligaments
  • Ulnar collateral ligament (wrist)
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127
Q

Does the head of ulna articulate with the bones of the wrist?

A

No, it is prevented from doing so by a cartilaginous articular disc.

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128
Q

Give some clinical relevance of the radius.

A
  • Colles’ fracture
    • Most common type of radial fracture
    • Caused by fall on outstretched hands
    • Fracture at distal end, so that the wrist area is dislocated posteriorly -> Gives dinner fork appearance
  • Smith’s fracture
    • Opposite of Colles’ fracture
    • Caused by fall on back of hands
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129
Q

Label this image.

A
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130
Q

What must you remember exists between the radius and ulna?

A

Interosseous membrane

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131
Q

Which way does the palm face in pronation and supination of the forearm?

A
  • Pronation -> Down
  • Supination -> Up
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132
Q

During pronation and supination of the forearm, which bone rotates?

A

Radius

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133
Q

Describe all of the types of bones in the hand, starting from the tip of a finger.

A
  • Distal phalanges
  • Middle phalanges
  • Proximal phalanges
  • Metacarpals
  • Carpals
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134
Q

Describe all of the joint in the hand, starting from the tip of a finger.

A
  • Distal interphalangeal joint (DIP)
  • Proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP)
  • Metacarpophalangeal joint
  • Carpometacarpal joints
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135
Q

Describe the bones in the thumb.

A

There is one metacarpal (as with the other fingers), but only two phalanges (there are 3 in the other fingers).

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136
Q

Label this.

A
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137
Q

How many carpals are there?

A

8

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138
Q

Name all of the carpals, starting from the side of the thumb.

A

Distal: Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate
Proximal: Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform

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139
Q

Give a good mnemonic for remembering the carpals.

A

Some lovers try positions that they can’t handle.

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140
Q

Out of the triquetrum and pisiform, which is on the palmar side of the hand?

A

Pisiform

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141
Q

Describe how a scaphoid fracture might occur, symptoms and why it is dangerous.

A
  • Occurs when falling onto outstretched hand
  • Characterised by pain in the anatomical snuffbox
  • In many people the blood supply to the scaphoid is only in the distal to proximal direction, so a fracture can cause avascular necrosis of the proximal portion of the scaphoid
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142
Q

What stops the ulna articulating with the carpals?

A

An articular disc.

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143
Q

What is the wrist joint?

A

Articulation between the lower end of the radius and the articular disc covering the distal ulna, with the scaphoid, lunate and triquetrum.

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144
Q

Describe how the fingers are numbered.

A

From 1 to 5, with the thumb being number 1.

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145
Q

What are the divisions of the lower limb? What are the bones in each?

A
  • Thigh -> Femur
  • Leg -> Tibia, patella and fibula
  • Ankle
  • Foot -> Tarsals, metatarsals and phalanges
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146
Q

What are some adaptations of the lower limb that make it different to the upper limb?

A
  • Hip joint is deeper than shoulder joint, which allows for greater stability + Rigid pelvic girdle
  • Bicondylar angle of the femur allows for the centre of gravity to be directly above the knee, so that walking can happen
  • Knee joint reinforced by internal ligaments
  • Leg bones do not rotate around each other like the forearm bones do
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147
Q

What is another name for the hip bone?

A

Os coxae or innominate bone

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148
Q

What bones make up the hip bone? What is the position of each?

A
  • Ilium -> Top
  • Ischium -> Bottom, Back
  • Pubis -> Bottom, Front
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149
Q

Describe the structure of the pelvis.

A
  • Made up of two hip bones and the sacrum
  • Each hip bone consists of the ilium, ischium and pubis, while the sacrum fits between the ilium of each hip bone
  • The coccyx may be considered part of the pelvis too
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150
Q

Where are the three bones of the hip bone all united?

A

Acetabulum

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151
Q

Note that for the lower limbs I have not gone into as much detail about landmarks, ligaments and muscles as I have with the upper limb.

A

Ok.

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152
Q

What is the function of the pelvis?

A

It protects the lower abdominal and pelvic organs and forms points of articulation with the lower limbs.

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153
Q

Compare the pelvis and pelvic girdle.

A

The pelvis also includes the sacrum, while the pelvic girdle does not.

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154
Q

What does the pelvis girdle (two hip bones) articulate with?

A
  • Sacrum (sacroiliac joint)
  • Head of femur (hip joint

One hip bone also articulates with the other at the pubis symphysis.

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155
Q

Describe the development of the hip bone.

A

The three bones all have their own primary ossification centre and then eventually fuse together around the ages of 16 to 18.

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156
Q

What are the main landmarks of the hip bone?

A

Ilium:

  • Iliac crest (palpable)
  • Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) (palpable)
  • Posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) (palpable)
  • Anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)
  • Greater sciatic notch

Ischium:

  • Ischial spine
  • Ischial tuberosity (palpable)

Pubis:

  • Pubic tubercle (palpable)

All 3:

  • Acetabulum -> Articulates with head of femur
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157
Q

Name some important palpable landmarks of the hip bone.

A
  • Iliac crest
  • Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
  • Posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS)
  • Ischial tuberosity
  • Pubis tubercle
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158
Q

What is some clinical significance of the iliac crest?

A

A line drawn between the highest point on each iliac crest crosses at the level of the spine of the L4 vertebrae, which is useful when finding the spot to insert a lumbar puncture needle.

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159
Q

What is the significance of the ischial tuberosity?

A

The ischial tuberosities are what you sit on.

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160
Q

What is the acetabulum?

A

It is the point on the hip bone where the femur articulates.

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161
Q

What does the femur articulate with?

A
  • Acetabulum of hip bone (hip joint)
  • Tibia and patella (knee joint)
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162
Q

What are the main landmarks of the femur?

A
  • Head -> Articulates with acetabulum
  • Neck
  • Greater trochanter (lateral and slightly posterior) -> Gluteus medius and minimus
  • Lesser trochanter (medial and posterior, below neck) -> Powerful hip flexor iliopsoas
  • Linea aspera (posterior) -> Adductors
  • Lateral and medial epicondyles -> Articulate with tibia
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163
Q

What is the danger of a fracture of the neck of the femur?

A

If the fracture is inside the joint capsule, blood supply to the femoral head might be disrupted.

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164
Q

Name all of the articulations at the knee.

A
  • 2 x Femur with the tibia
  • 1 x Femur with the patella
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165
Q

Label this.

A
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166
Q

Is the fibula part of the knee joint?

A

No, it is sort of off to the side.

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167
Q

Name the surfaces that articulate between the femur and tibia.

A

The lateral and medial femoral condyles articulate with the lateral and medial tibial condyles. There is a raised intercondylar eminence on the tibia.

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168
Q

What type of bone is the patella?

A

Sesamoid

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169
Q

Give an interesting piece of information about the sesamoid bones near the knee.

A

A small fraction of people have a very small sesamoid bone that exists in the calf muscle tendon. It is called the fabella (small bean).

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170
Q

What is a name for the top of the tibia?

A

The tibial plateau

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171
Q

What does the tibia articulate with?

A
  • Femur (tibiofemoral / knee joint)
  • Fibula (x2) (proximal and distal tibiofibular joints)
  • Talus (ankle joint)

Note that there is also an interosseous membrane between the tibia and fibula.

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172
Q

What are the main landmarks of the tibia?

A
  • Tibial plateau -> Articulates with femur
    • Intercondylar eminence -> ACL and PCL, Menisci of tibia
  • Medial and lateral tibial condyles
  • Tibial tuberosity (anterior) -> Quadriceps
  • Tibial shaft
  • Medial malleolus -> Articulates with talus
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173
Q

What does the fibula articulate with?

A
  • Tibia (x2) (proximal and distal tibiofibular joints)
  • Talus (ankle joint)
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174
Q

What are the main landmarks of the fibula?

A
  • Head of fibula -> Articulates with tibia
  • Fibula shaft
  • Lateral malleolus -> Articulates with talus
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175
Q

Compare the main functions of the tibia and fibula.

A
  • Tibia -> Weight bearing
  • Fibula -> Muscle attachments
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176
Q

Label this.

A
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177
Q

Describe the articulations at the ankle joint.

A

The medial malleolus of the tibia and the lateral malleolus of the fibula “grip” the talus (a tarsal) bone.

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178
Q

Describe the bones in the foot.

A
  • 7 tarsals -> Talus, Calcaneus, Cuboid, Navicular, Cuneiforms (x3)
  • 5 metatarsals
  • 14 phalanges (only 2 in the hallux)

Therefore the structure is homologous to the hand.

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179
Q

Name all of the tarsals.

A
  • Calcaneus (forms the mass of the heel, very large)
  • Talus (forms ankle joint)
  • Cuboid
  • Navicular
  • Cuneiforms x 3 (Medial, intermediate, lateral)
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180
Q

Give the clinical relevance of the tubersity on the 5th metatarsal.

A

It is prone to an aversion fracture when the foot is everted excessively.

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181
Q

What is the technical name for the big toe?

A

Hallux

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182
Q

Do inversion and eversion of the foot happen at the ankle joint?

A

No, it is a hinge joint. Inversion and eversion happen at the joints between the tarsals.

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183
Q

Label this.

A
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184
Q
A
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185
Q

What are the three bones in the shoulder girdle?

A

Clavicle, scapula and humerus

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186
Q

Label this.

A
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187
Q

What are some features of the clavicle?

A
  • First bone to ossify
  • Among the last the fuse
  • Most commonly fractured bone
  • Only bony attachment of the upper extremity is via the sternoclavicular joint
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188
Q

* What component affects the direction of a break in the clavicle?

A
  • Ligament action pulls the fragments in specific directions (medial fragment drawn upwards)
  • These breaks aren’t overly benign as close to lung and brachial plexus - has been shown that fixing them surgically is a better treatment than just leaving them to recover
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189
Q

What type of joint is the sternoclavicular joint?

A

Synovial - with articular disc

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190
Q

Which ligament tears in a medial clavicle dislocation?

A

The ligament between the sternum and the clavicle No operating on this kind of dislocation, just try and reduce it

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191
Q

What is the AC joint?

A

The acromioclavicular joint - between the clavicle and the acromium process

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192
Q

How many ligaments are there that attach to the coracoid process and what are they?

A

There are 3:

  • Coracoacromial ligament, between acromium and coracoid processes (both on scapula)
  • Coracoclavicular ligament -> Trapezoid and conoid ligaments, attach the clavicle to the coracoid process
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193
Q

How can you remember the order of the coracoclavicular ligaments?

A

Medial to lateral: “CT” scan to diagnose (conoid then trapezium)

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194
Q

What is an acromioclavicular separation?

A

This is where the coracoclavicular ligaments tear, but the AC joint is only partially damaged

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195
Q

What happens in an AC dislocation?

A

Both the AC and coracoclavicular ligaments tear, resulting in full dislocation of the distal end of the clavicle

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196
Q

What type of joint is the AC joint?

A

Synovial, but with little movement

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197
Q

* What is a good indication for the side to which a scapula belongs?

A

The direction in which the coracoid process is pointing - it will always be pointing towards the arm and is on the front/anterior side of the bone

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198
Q

* How are humeral head fractures treated?

A

Conservative management is disproportionately successful (length/alignment/rotation), use a collar and cuff. Alternatively, surgical intervention can be used.

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199
Q

Where is and what are some characteristics of the glenohumeral joint?

A

The joint between the humeral head and the glenoid fossa/cavity Shallow joint, stability improved by the glenoid labrum and the ligaments Manipulated by the rotator cuff muscles amongst others Synovial joint, ball and socket

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200
Q

What are the three ligaments in the glenohumeral joint?

A
  • SGHL: superior glenoid-humeral ligament
  • MGHL: medial glenoid-humeral ligament
  • IGHL: inferior glenoid-humeral ligament
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201
Q

How do the shoulder and hip joints compare? (In one sentence)

A

They are opposites - hip has a more restricted range of movement but is more stable, shoulder has a larger range of movement but is less stable. Shoulder is likened to a golfball on a golf tee

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202
Q

Which ribs articulate with the scapula?

A

Ribs 2-7 Major contributors to shoulder motion - bursas are present

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203
Q

What is a bursa?

A

Small fluid-filled sac contained within synovial joints - act as a cushion

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204
Q

How many muscles attach the upper limb to the axial skeleton?

A

17

Ones we need to know are:

  • Deltoid
  • Rotator cuff muscles (x4)
  • Biceps/attachment of the biceps tendon
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205
Q

What is innervated by the axillary nerve?

A

Deltoid and teres minor (amongst others)

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206
Q

What happens if the axillary nerve is damaged?

A

Shoulder is weakened, ability to abduct is severely lessened

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207
Q

What are the four rotator cuff muscles?

A

Subscapularis, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, teres minor

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208
Q

What innervates supraspinatus and infraspinatus?

A

The suprascapular nerve

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209
Q

What innervates teres minor?

A

The axillary nerve

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210
Q

What innervates subscapularis?

A

The subscapular nerve

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211
Q

What acronym can be used to remember the four rotator cuff muscles/tendons?

A

SITS:

  • Supraspinatus
  • Infraspinatus
  • Teres minor
  • Subscapularis
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212
Q

Where do the rotator cuff muscles attach?

A
  • Supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor attach to the greater tuberosity of the humerus
  • Subscapularis attaches to the lesser tuberosity of the humerus (only one)

The other ends of the muscles attach to the scapula.

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213
Q

What is the function of the rotator cuff muscles?

A
  • Move shoulder joint
  • Provides stability (stops dislocation)
  • Keeps deltoid from pulling humeral head up
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214
Q

Why is the biceps muscle called the biceps?

A

Bi - two Ceps - cephalus, means ‘head’ The biceps has two ‘heads’, the long head and the short head - long head goes over the humeral head, short goes anteriorly, both attach to the scapula.

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215
Q

Where are the origins and insertions of the biceps muscle?

A

Origins:

  • Long head: Supraglenoid tuberosity (of scapula)
  • Short head: Coracoid process

Insertions:

  • Distal biceps tendon: Radius (at radial tuberosity)
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216
Q

What are the origins and insertions of the brachialis muscle?

A

Origins:

  • Halfway up the humerus

Insertions:

  • Coronoid process and tuberosity of the ulna.
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217
Q

* What is the failsafe mechanism of the biceps?

A

There are two heads, so if one ruptured the muscle is still functional as the other remains attached - contraction still results in movement of the bone. Results in ‘popeye’ muscle

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218
Q

* What are some of the problems that can occur within the shoulder?

A
  • Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)
  • Impingement syndrome
  • Rotator cuff tears
  • Dislocation
  • Arthritis
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219
Q

* How can age affect outcome of shoulder dislocations?

A
  • Younger patients have a higher dislocation rate
  • Older patients have a higher rate of rotator cuff tears
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220
Q

* How should you manage a dislocated shoulder?

A
  • Best to reduce the dislocation at time of accident, then short period of immobilisation (though external rotation splint or simple sling)
  • Can be managed surgically, usually after recurrent dislocations (labrum can tear and will need to be repaired).
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221
Q

What is the most commonly dislocated joint?

A

The shoulder - inherently unstable (shallow joint)

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222
Q

* What is adhesive capsulitis?

A

Aka frozen shoulder, inflammation and thickening of the shoulder capsule eventually results in hugely reduced range of movement (especially external rotation). Associated with diabetes, but often idiopathic (arises spontaneously with unknown cause). Not self limiting (so won’t resolve itself without treatment), just stops hurting over time, doesn’t really improve.

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223
Q

* How can you treat adhesive capsulitis?

A
  • Used to be conservative treatment/‘wait and see’
  • Now can have glenohumeral injections
  • More and more commonly manipulated under anaesthesia - only in stiff phase, and these is a slight risk of humeral fracture
  • Generally resolved with time (1-2 years), residual stiffness is expected. But can only get it once in each shoulder!
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224
Q

What is shoulder impingement?

A

This is where the rotator cuff tendons within the coracoacromial arch are impinged - trapped or limited mobility of tendons, or inflamed bursa within the shoulder. This affects nearby nerves and causes pain. Association with ‘hooked’ acromion (specific shape, morphologically hooked around joint therefore increases risk of impingement)

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225
Q

What are the risk factors for shoulder impingement?

A
  • Can occur at any age
  • Classically involves anterior 1/3 of acromion
  • Incidence does occur with age
226
Q

What is the treatment for shoulder impingement?

A
  • Usually conservative - subacromial injections and physio
  • 2/3 resolve (but only 1/2 in over 60s)
  • Can also have surgical decompression
227
Q

What happens if a rotator cuff tendon is torn?

A

The patient will be unable to elevate their arm fully as only deltoid is able to work on the humerus - other abductors are compromised. Incidence increases with age, and management is hotly debated.

228
Q

What is another word for arthroscopic surgery?

A

Keyhole surgery

229
Q

What is current treatment for damaged rotator cuff muscles?

A

Therapy to strengthen the remaining cuff, traditional open or mini-open repair (both arthroscopic)

230
Q

How common is glenohumeral arthritis?

A

Least common of the major joints

231
Q

What is glenohumeral arthritis?

A

This is joint inflammation of the shoulder, where the space between the glenoid fossa and the humeral head is greatly reduced, causing pain. Can be secondary to trauma, chronic rotator cuff deficiency and necrosis of the humeral head (this can occur when a fracture cuts off blood supply)

232
Q

How can a massive rotator cuff tear cause glenohumeral arthritis?

A

The rotator cuff muscles help to hold the humerus down/oppose the action of the deltoid muscle - when the rotator cuff tears, the deltoid can draw up the humerus, reducing joint space and therefore causing arthritis

233
Q

What are the treatments for glenohumeral arthritis?

A

Conservative: injections Operative: replacement

234
Q

What position is the humeral head in relation to the transepicondylar axis of the distal humerus?

A

Humeral head is retroverted (tilted backwards) relative to the transepicondylar axis - joint is most unstable anteriorly, to by turning shoulder back by ~30 degrees improves stability

235
Q

Where does pectoralis major insert?

A

To the bicipital groove and the deltoid tuberosity on the humerus (lateral to the intertubercular groove)

236
Q

Where does latissimus dorsi insert?

A

Floor of the intertubercular groove

237
Q

Where does teres major insert?

A

The medial lip of the intertubercular groove

238
Q

How can the order of the insertions of pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi and teres major be remembered?

A

‘A lady between two majors’, pectoralis is the most lateral, latissimus is in the middle, teres major the most medial

239
Q

What attaches to the greater tuberosity of the humerus?

A

Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor (C5-C6)

240
Q

What attaches to the lesser tuberosity humerus?

A
  • Subscapularis - allows for internal/medial rotation and adduction
  • Upper (C5) and lower (C6) subscapular nerve ???
241
Q

Patient with a subscapularis rupture would have what findings?

A
  • Positive Gerber lift off test (arrange hand so that it is behind the back, back of hand touching back of the person. Ask the patient to try and lift their hand from their back - if positive, patient should be unable to do this with either inability or pain as a limiting factor).
  • Weak internal rotation
  • Increased passive external rotation
242
Q

What is the triangular space in the shoulder?

A

The space formed between the teres minor (superiorly), teres major (inferiorly) and long head of triceps (laterally). The scapula circumflex vessels pass through here (axillary, subscapular and scapular circumflex arteries).

243
Q

What is the quadrangular space in the shoulder?

A

The space formed by the teres minor (superiorly), teres major (inferiorly), long head of triceps (medially) and neck of humerus (laterally). The axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery + vein pass through here EVERYTHING THROUGH THIS GAP EITHER HAS 4 SYLLABLES OR 4 WORDS

244
Q

What provides the blood supply to the humeral head?

A

Anterior circumflex humeral artery Posterior circumflex humeral artery

245
Q

On the upper limb, where is the relative position of the neurovascular bundle?

A

Medial

246
Q

What is flexion?

A

Movement that decreases the angle between two body parts

247
Q

What is extension?

A

Movement that increases the angle between two body parts

248
Q

What is dorsiflexion?

A

The action of moving the foot/toes upwards/towards the shin (remember this through the idea of creating a dorsal fin)

249
Q

What is plantarflexion?

A

The action of moving the foot/toes downwards/towards the ground if the foot was suspended (remember this through the idea of ‘planting’ your foot on the ground)

250
Q

To what body part are dorsi- and plantarflexion specific?

A

The ankle joint/foot

251
Q

What is abduction?

A

The action of moving a body part away from the midline/laterally (remember this through the idea of abduction as stealing a human)

252
Q

What is adduction?

A

The action of moving a body part towards the midline/medially (remember this through a-d-duction, ‘adding’)

253
Q

What is eversion?

A

Movement of the foot so that the sole is facing outwards/has been moved away from the midline

254
Q

What is inversion?

A

Movement of the foot so that the sole is facing inwards/has been moved inwards - this is what happens when you twist your ankle

255
Q

Why are inversion and eversion useful?

A

Important for walking across uneven ground

256
Q

What is lateral flexion?

A

This is the bending of the neck or body away from the midline, i.e. to the left or right

257
Q

What is medial rotation?

A

The rotating of a joint so that it faces more internally

258
Q

What is lateral rotation?

A

The rotating of a joint so that it faces more externally

259
Q

What is rotation?

A

Movements made about the longitudinal axis and in the transverse plane

260
Q

What is pronation?

A

The act of rotating the forearm so that the palm is facing down (remember: the whip sequence)

261
Q

What is supination?

A

The act of rotating the forearm so that the palm is facing upwards (remember: lying down as if supine)

262
Q

What is circumduction?

A

The movement of a limb or extremity so that the distal end completes a circle whereas the proximal end remains in one place (performed best at ball and socket joint)

263
Q

What are the different movements of the scapula?

A
  • Elevation (moving upwards)
  • Depression (moving downwards)
  • Retraction (moving inwards)
  • Protraction (moving outwards)
  • Medial rotation
  • Lateral rotation
264
Q

What are the movements of the pollux/thumb?

A
  • Abduction (movement away from the hand along sagittal plane)
  • Adduction (movement towards the hand along sagittal plane)
  • Extension (movement away from the hand along the coronal plane)
  • Flexion (movement towards and across the hand along the coronal plane)
  • Opposition (UNIQUE, ability to touch little finger with thumb)
  • Reposition (UNIQUE, ability to return hand to normal shape after opposition)
265
Q

What are the three types of joint and all their subtypes?

A
  • Fibrous
    • Suture (flat bones)
    • Syndesmosis (long bones)
  • Cartilaginous
    • Synchondrosis (primary)
    • Symphysis (secondary)
  • Synovial
    • Uniaxial
    • Biaxial
    • Multiaxial
266
Q

What are the movements of the fingers?

A
  • Abduction - splaying the fingers
  • Adduction - closing the fingers
267
Q

What are the different types of fibrous joint, where are they made of and where are they found?

A
  • Suture
    • Join together flat bones
    • Made of dense connective tissue
  • Syndesmosis
    • Between long bones
    • Made of dense connective tissue
268
Q

What are the different types of joint that are lined with hyaline cartilage?

A
  • Plane joint (small gliding movement e.g. between cuneiform bones of foot)
  • Saddle joint (e.g. interphalangeal)
  • Hinge joint (e.g. knee)
  • Pivot joint (e.g. wrist)
  • Ball and socket joint (e.g. shoulder, hip)
  • Ellipsoid/condylar joint (e.g. where the radius and ulna meet the wrist)
269
Q

What is the function of a fibrous joint?

A

Hold bones very tightly together, allowing very little movement.

270
Q

What are the different types of cartilaginous joint, where are they found and what are they made of?

A
  • Primary cartilaginous (synchondroses)
    • In developing bone, seen in epiphyseal plates
    • Made of hyaline cartilage
  • Secondary cartilaginous (symphyses)
    • Midline joints/intervertebral discs (annulus fibrosus)
    • Made of hyaline cartilage AND fibrocartilage composite
271
Q

Describe the general structure of a secondary fibrocartilaginous joint.

A

It is a composite fibrocartilaginous and hyaline joint:

  • Articulating bones covered with hyaline cartilage
  • Thick, fairly-compressible pad of fibrocartilage between them
272
Q

What defines a synovial joint?

A

The presence of synovial fluid within the joint capsule.

273
Q

What tends to strengthen a hinge joint?

A

Collateral ligaments

274
Q

What are the ligaments involved in the pectoral girdle?

A
  • Coracoacromial ligaments
  • Acromioclavicular ligaments (AC)
  • Coracoclavicular ligaments
  • Glenohumeral ligaments
275
Q

* Where does osteoarthritis usually occur? What are the risk factors?

A

In weight bearing joints Risk factors: - Age - Bodyweight

276
Q

* What causes osteoarthritis?

A

Destruction of articular cartilage (and/or bone) at a joint, presents as a severely reduced joint space in imaging and pain/reduced mobility of the joint

277
Q

* Where does rheumatoid arthritis usually occur?

A

In smaller joints, is also usually symmetrical

278
Q

* What causes rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Autoimmune of synovial membrane, articular cartilage and bone

279
Q

What is the purpose of the coracoacromial ligament?

A

To prevent superior dislocation of the humerus, connects the acromion process of the scapula to the coracoid process of the scapula.

280
Q

How is the scapula held in place?

A

By muscles - its only attachment to the axial skeleton is through the clavicle, it has no real attachment to the thorax.

281
Q

What are the two components of the coracoclavicular ligament?

A

From medial to lateral:

  • Conoid
  • Trapezoid

(Remember, diagnose using a CT scan)

282
Q

* How can the coracoclavicular ligaments be disrupted?

A

Through dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint

283
Q

What is the purpose of the coracoclavicular ligament?

A
  • Helps to suspend a lot of the weight of the limb from the clavicle
  • Stabilises the acromioclavicular (AC) joint
284
Q

What is the general function of the pectoral girdle?

A
  • To give the upper limb a greater range of movement, allowing it to carry out roles of grasping and manipulating objects now that it has been freed from locomotion
  • Alters the position of the glenoid fossa of the scapula and suspends it away from the thorax to allow greater movement
285
Q

What deepens the glenoid fossa?

A

The glenoid labrum -> Fibrocartilaginous ring that is around the fossa, adding stability to the joint

286
Q

* How can you tell that a clavicle has been broken rather than dislocated?

A

Both will show deformities, but length of clavicle should be equal on both sides - if lengths are unequal, then there is likely to have been a break. Ligaments attached to a clavicle can draw it upwards if it is broken

287
Q

What are the glenohumeral ligaments?

A
  • Superior, medial and inferior glenohumeral ligaments
  • Pass from the margins of the glenoid cavity to the humerus and support the joint anteriorly
288
Q

What is the should joint at great risk of?

A

Dislocation - joint is relatively lax which makes it prone to this

289
Q

How is the lower part of the glenohumeral joint capsule adapted to improve movement?

A

Lower part is lax and folded

290
Q

What is the most common direction for a shoulder dislocation and why?

A

Anteriorly, due to lack of joint support in this region

291
Q

How can a shoulder dislocation be identified?

A
  • Acromion will be prominent - Shoulder flattened - Bulge of humeral head seen
292
Q

What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint and what does this allow?

A

Multiaxial synovial ball and socket joint, allows a huge range of mobility

293
Q

What downside does the hypermobility of the shoulder joint have?

A

Causes the joint to be inherently weak and prone to dislocation (especially in comparison to the hip joint)

294
Q

What are bursae?

A

Sacs filled with synovial fluid that act as cushions to reduce friction where tendons and muscles lie close to the bone

295
Q

What is the most important bursa near the glenohumeral joint?

A

The subacromial (subdeltoid) bursa that separates the coracoacromial arch from the tendon of supraspinatus and the glenohumeral joint

296
Q

What are the four rotator cuff muscles?

A
  • Supraspinatus
  • Infraspinatus
  • Teres minor
  • Subscapularis
297
Q

Where do the four rotator cuff muscles attach?

A
  • Supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor: Greater tuberosity of the humerus
  • Subscapularis: Lesser tuberosity of the humerus
298
Q

What are the main stabilising factors of the shoulder joint?

A

The rotator cuff muscles, they form a musculotendinous cuff that extends around the glenohumeral joint, stabilising it

299
Q

What movement does supraspinatus aid?

A

Assists with initial arm abduction

300
Q

What movement do infraspinatus and teres minor aid?

A

Lateral shoulder rotation

301
Q

What movement does subscapularis aid?

A

Medial shoulder rotation

302
Q

What type of capsule surrounds the elbow joint and where is it weakest?

A

Fibrous capsule, weakest anteriorly and posteriorly

303
Q

What are the proper names for the elbow joint?

A

Humeroulnar joint and humeroradial joint make up the elbow

304
Q

What are the ligaments in the elbow joint?

A
  • Lateral (radial) collateral ligament
  • Medial (ulnar) collateral ligament
  • Anular/annular ligament
305
Q

What other joint is also in the proximity of the elbow?

A

The proximal radioulnar joint

306
Q

What movement does the anular/annular ligament allow?

A

Allows the pivoting/rotation of pronation and supination - joint capsule is attached to this rather than directly to the radius, allowing the freedom of movement between the radius and ulna. Is also circular, wraps around the radial head to form a pivot joint.

307
Q

What type of joint is the elbow and what movements does it allow?

A

Synovial hinge joint, allows flexion and extension

308
Q

Where does the medial/ulnar collateral ligament run from and to?

A

From the medial epicondyle of the humerus to the ulna

309
Q

Where does the lateral/radial collateral ligament run from and to?

A

From the lateral epicondyle of the humerus to the radial notch of the ulna and the anular ligament, NOT the radius itself

310
Q

How is the elbow joint stabilised?

A
  • Stable shape of articulating surfaces - Strong collateral ligaments - Surrounding cuff of muscles (including triceps brachii, brachialis and biceps brachii)
311
Q

* In what position is the elbow joint at its most stable?

A

90 degrees flexion, in a position of mid pronation-supination

312
Q

What movement do the radioulnar joints permit?

A

Pronation and supination

313
Q

What type of joint is the interosseous membrane?

A

Fibrous joint

314
Q

What type of joint is the distal radioulnar joint?

A

Synovial pivot joint (allows pronation and supination)

315
Q

What type of joint is the radiocarpal/wrist joint?

A

Synovial ellipsoid joint

316
Q

What type of joint are the midcarpal joints?

A

Synovial plane joints, but are important for wrist flexion and extension

317
Q

* What is ‘nursemaid’s’ or ‘pulled elbow’?

A

Radial subluxation or dislocation, especially common in children due to ossification not being completely finished. Once fracture is excluded, can be easily reduced

318
Q

What happens to the radius during supination and pronation?

A

The radius rotates around the ulna - during supination they lie parallel, during pronation the radius crosses over the ulna

319
Q

How is the distal radioulnar joint separated from the radiocarpal (wrist) joint?

A

By a fibrocartilage articular disc

320
Q

What articulations occur in the proximal radiohumeral joint?

A

The radius articulates with the radial notch on the ulna, and is able to rotate within a fibrosseous ring formed by this notch and the anular ligament

321
Q

What articulations occur in the distal radiohumeral joint?

A

The head of the ulna articulates with the ulnar notch of the radius

322
Q

What is the interosseous membrane?

A
  • Extremely strong fibrous sheet between the two bones - Transmits forces from the hand onto the elbow joint/humerus - Site of attachment for deep muscles of forearm compartments
323
Q

What articulation in the radiocarpal/wrist joint?

A
  • Concave distal radius - Articular disc of ulna - Convexities of the scaphoid, lunate and triquetrum
324
Q

What movements are allowed by the radiocarpal/wrist joint?

A
  • Flexion - Extension - Radial deviation - Ulnar deviation (Last two are abduction and adduction, but different depending on which way the arm is facing so it is clearer to use these terms)
325
Q

Where are the midcarpal joints found?

A

Between the distal and proximal rows of carpal bones

326
Q

What type of joint is the first carpometacarpal joint (base of thumb) and what movement does this allow?

A

Synovial saddle joint, allows opposition and reposition

327
Q

What are the major differences between the hand and the foot?

A
  • Orientation of hallux (big toe) and pollux (thumb) differs greatly - Different shapes of joints (carpometacarpal joint is a completely different shape compared to the tarsometatarsal joint) These differences relate to function - big toe cannot carry out opposition and has no need to
328
Q

What movements does opposition include?

A
  • Flexion - Abduction - Rotation - Adduction
329
Q

What type of joint are the second, third, fourth and fifth carpometacarpal joints (between the wrist and the four fingers)?

A

Plane synovial joints

330
Q

What movement does the metacarpophalangeal joint of the thumb not allow?

A

Abduction/adduction - this is instead allowed by the first hypermobile carpometacarpal joint

331
Q

Draw the joints of the hand.

A
332
Q

What limits movements in the second to fifth carpometacarpal joints?

A

The action of the palmar and dorsal ligaments

333
Q

What type of joint are the second to fifth metacarpophalangeal joints and what movements does this allow?

A

Synovial ellipsoid joints, allow: - Flexion/extension - Abduction/adduction

334
Q

What stabilises the second to fifth metacarpophalangeal joints?

A

Collateral ligaments, muscles and tendons

335
Q

What joints exist between the phalanges of the fingers?

A
  • Distal interphalangeal joint (DIP) - Proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP)
336
Q

What type of joints are the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints and what stabilises them?

A

Synovial hinge joints, stabilised by collateral ligaments

337
Q

* What is a way to remember the name ‘acetabulum’?

A

Acetic acid = vinegar, acetabulum = vinegar cup, the romans used to drink vinegar from the acetabulum of a hip bone

338
Q

What is the hip joint?

A

The articulation between the acetabulum of the hip bone and the head of the femur

339
Q

What type of joint is the hip joint?

A

Synovial ball and socket

340
Q

What movements are permitted by the hip joint?

A
  • Flexion/extension - Abduction/adduction - Circumduction - Medial/lateral rotation
341
Q

What is the function of the hip joint?

A
  • Locomotion - Transmission of weight whilst standing and moving (therefore must be strong/stable and still allow movement)
342
Q

What bones form the acetabulum?

A

The three bones of the hip, the pubis, ilium and ischium

343
Q

What is the acetabular labrum?

A

A ring of fibrocartilage that deepens the acetabulum socket, attaches to the transverse acetabular ligament

344
Q

Compare the shoulder and the hip joint.

A
  • Features are shared, both synovial ball and socket joints with labrums deepening the socket - Both are supported by muscles, ligaments and (to only some extent in the shoulder) bone shape - Wider range of movement in shoulder is sacrificed for stability (shoulder is less stable than hip) - Hip combines motility and transmission of weight, arm only has to manage its own weight/is freely suspended
345
Q

What is the femoral head lined with?

A

Hyaline cartilage, except for a section which attaches to the femoral head ligament

346
Q

What ligament bridges the acetabular notch?

A

The transverse acetabular ligament (supports and stabilises joint)

347
Q

What is the lunate surface?

A

The articular surface of the acetabulum, lined with hyaline cartilage

348
Q

What are the main ligaments that stabilise the hip?

A
  • Iliofemoral ligament
  • Pubofemoral ligament
  • Ischiofemoral ligament
  • Transverse acetabular ligament
349
Q

Where does the iliofemoral ligament lie?

A

Lies interiorly between the ilium and the region between the greater and lesser trochanters of the femur (intertrochanteric line), this is allowed by the ligament’s Y or V shape

350
Q

Where does the pubofemoral ligament lie?

A

Between the pubis and the intertrochanteric line (between the greater and lesser trochanters of the femur)

351
Q

Where does the ischiofemoral ligament lie?

A

Between the ischium and the greater trochanter

352
Q

How do the ilio-, ischio- and pubofemoral ligaments responds to flexion and extension?

A
  • Flexion: relax/loosen - Extension: tighten In this way they limit the movement/extension of the hip joint
353
Q

Why is dislocation of the hip rare?

A
  • Deep acetabulum
  • Acetabular labrum
  • Three stabilising hip ligaments
  • Thick fibrous capsule (strengthened anteriorly by fused tendons of quadriceps and laterally by the iliotibial tract, a thick fibrous band)
354
Q

* Which direction of dislocation in the hip is most common and why?

A

Posteriorly, most likely to occur when hip is flexed/ligaments are lax, e.g. when passengers are seated in a high speed car accident

355
Q

What are and what is the function of the menisci?

A
  • Crescent-shaped pieces of fibrocartilage on the tibial condyles (in the knee joint)
  • Reduce friction, increase congruency and disperse weight
  • Both medial and lateral menisci are present
356
Q

What is the patella?

A
  • A sesamoid bone (in the quadriceps femoris tendon) that articulates with the femoral condyles at the patellofemoral joint. - Smooth oval facet on posterior is covered in hyaline cartilage for articulation
357
Q

What are the two ligaments that originate from the epicondyles of the femur?

A
  • Medial (tibial) collateral ligament, from medial epicondyle to the shaft of the tibia
  • Lateral (fibular) collateral ligament, from the lateral epicondyle to the head of the fibula, shaped like a rounded cord
358
Q

What ligament is the medial meniscus attached to?

A

Medial collateral ligament (this means that damage to the ligament can also damage the meniscus)

359
Q

Is the lateral meniscus attached to a ligament?

A

No, it is separate from the fibrous joint capsule by the tendon of the popliteus muscle

360
Q

What locks the knee during extension?

A

The medial femoral condyle

361
Q

What is ‘close packed’ position of the knee?

A

This is where the knee joint is fully extended, the ligaments of the knee are tightened and the knee is stabilised

362
Q

What muscle ‘unlocks’ the knee?

A

The popliteus muscle, laterally rotates the femur on the tibia when initiating flexion

363
Q

What are the two cruciate ligaments?

A
  • Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
  • Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)

(Cruciate means ‘crossing’)

364
Q

What are the ligments of the knee?

A
  • Collateral ligaments
  • Cruciate ligaments
365
Q

What is the function of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)?

A

Prevents excessive anterior movement of the tibia relative to the femur above

366
Q

Where does the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) lie?

A

From the anterior part of the intercondylar area of the tibia and attaches to the inner surface of the lateral condyle of the femur (lateral wall of the intercondylar fossa) Remember through putting ‘hands in pockets’ - lateral to medial, posterior to anterior, proximal to distal

367
Q

What is the function of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)?

A

Prevents excessive posterior movement of the tibia relative to the femur above

368
Q

Where does the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) lie?

A

Attaches to the posterior part of the intercondylar region of the tibia to the lateral surface of the medial medial condyle of the femur

369
Q

Are the cruciate ligaments prone to tears?

A

Yes, an ACL tear in particular is a common injury. They can tear in both contact and non-contact sports

370
Q

What is the talocrural joint?

A

Aka the ankle joint, between:

  • The distal ends of the tibia/fibula
  • The talus bone of the ankle
371
Q

What type of joint is the talocrural (ankle) joint and what movement does this allow?

A

Synovial hinge joint that allows:

  • Dorsiflexion
  • Plantarflexion
372
Q

How is the joint capsule of the talocrural (ankle) joint adapted to allow dorsi- and plantarflexion?

A
  • Thin and weak capsule posteriorly and anteriorly
  • Lined by a loose synovial membrane
373
Q

What are the joints between tarsal bones called and what movements are they important for?

A
  • Intertarsal joints
  • Important for inversion and eversion
374
Q

What is the subtalar joint?

A

The joint between the talus and the calcaneus.

375
Q

What is the midtarsal joint?

A

Complex articulations between the:

  • Talus, calcaneus and navicular bones
  • Calcaneus and cuboid
376
Q

How is the ankle joint strengthened medially and laterally?

A

By collateral ligaments (4 of them)

377
Q

What secretes the synovial fluid at a synovial joint?

A

Synovial membrane

378
Q

Describe the structure of a synovial joint.

A
  • Fibrous joint capsule (continuous with the periosteum)
  • Joint cavity containing synovial fluid
  • Articulating surfaces lined with hyaline cartilage
  • Synovial membrane lines the cavity (where hyaline cartilage is not present)
  • Ligaments are present within joint capsule (but can be around it)
379
Q

Draw the structure of the glenohumeral joint.

A
380
Q

Draw the structure of the elbow joint.

A
381
Q

What is the medial deltoid ligament?

A
  • A ligament formed from four bands - Radiates/reaches from the medial malleolus of the tibia to the talus, calcaneus and navicular bones
382
Q

What is the lateral collateral ligament of the ankle?

A
  • Made from three bands - Passes from the lateral malleolus of the fibula to the talus (x2 connections) and the calcaneus
383
Q

Draw the hip joint.

A

Note that there is also the transverse acetabular ligament.

384
Q

Draw the transverse acetabular ligament.

A
385
Q

Draw the knee joint (not including the cruciate ligaments).

A
386
Q

Draw the cruciate ligaments of the knee.

A
387
Q

Draw the bones involved in the joints in the foot.

A
388
Q

Draw all of the ligaments in the ankle and foot that you need to know about.

A
389
Q

Why are ankle sprains more likely to occur medially?

A

Because the medial deltoid ligament is stronger than the lateral collateral ligament Ankle sprains will usually involve the anterior talofibular part of the lateral collateral ligament

390
Q

Give some examples of fibrous joints.

A
  • Sutures
    • Sutures between flat bones of the skull
  • Syndesmoses
    • Inferior tibiofibular joint
    • Interosseous membrane between radius and ulna
391
Q

What are some examples of cartilaginous joints?

A
  • Primary (synchondroses)
    • Epiphyseal plates
  • Secondary (symphyses)
    • Manubriosternal joint
    • Intervertebral discs
    • Pubic symphysis
392
Q

Where are secondary cartilaginous (symphyses) joints usually found?

A

Along the midline of the body.

393
Q

What type of joint is theproximal radioulnar joint joint?

A

Pivot joint (synovial)

394
Q

How many interphalangeal joints does the thumb have?

A

Only one

395
Q

What are the different shapes of skeletal muscles?

A
  • Circular
  • Pennate -> Unipennate, Bipennate, Multipennate
  • Parallel
  • Fusiform
  • Convergent
396
Q

What are circular muscles? Give examples and their function.

A
  • Example: Orbicularis oris
  • Function: Sphincter muscles allowing opening and closing of an opening, in this case, the mouth.
397
Q

What are unipennate muscles? Give examples and their function.

A
  • Example: Extensor digitorum longus (unipennate)
  • Function: Allow for a significant amount of power to be generated across the joint, since the fibres are oriented at an angle to muscle’s line of action (high muscle fibre density) and rotate as they shorten.
398
Q

What are bipennate muscles? Give examples and their function.

A
  • Example: Rectus femoris
  • Function: Allow for a significant amount of power to be generated across the joint, since the fibres are oriented at an angle to muscle’s line of action (high muscle fibre density) and rotate as they shorten.
399
Q

What are multipennate muscles? Give examples and their function.

A
  • Example: Deltoid muscle
  • Function: Allow for a significant amount of power to be generated across the joint, since the fibres are oriented at an angle to muscle’s line of action (high muscle fibre density) and rotate as they shorten.
400
Q

What are parallel muscles? Give examples and their function.

A
  • Example: sartorius, sternocleidomastoid
  • Function: Fibres oriented parallel to the line of action of the muscle. Usually long muscles, bringing about large but typically weaker movements than pennate muscles.
401
Q

Compare parallel and pennate muscle functions.

A
  • In pennate muscles, the fibres are not arranged along the line of action of the muscle (and they may function around a joint), while in parallel muscles they are arranged along the line of action.
  • This means that parallel muscles produce LONGER but WEAKER movements
402
Q

What are fusiform muscles? Give examples and their function.

A
  • Example: Biceps brachii
  • Function: Spindle-shaped muscles containing a “muscle belly” that is wider than the points of origin and insertion. Provide large ranges of motion.
403
Q

What are convergent muscles? Give examples and their function.

A
  • Example: Pectoralis major
  • Function: Triangular/fan-shaped muscles with wide origins and narrow points of insertions. Wide variation in muscle fibre angles allow for multiple actions across joints.
404
Q

What are origins and insertions of muscles?

A
  • The origin is the attachment site that doesn’t move during contraction, while the insertion is the attachment site that does move when the muscle contracts.
  • The origin is usually proximal, while the insertion is usually distal.
405
Q

What is a bursa and what is the function?

A
  • A small fluid-filled sac lined by synovial membrane with an inner layer of synovial fluid
  • It provides a cushion between bones and tendons and/or muscles around a joint.
  • This helps to reduce friction between the bones and allows free movement. Bursae are found around most major joints of the body.
406
Q

Draw the structure of the bursa, bone and tendon at a joint.

A
407
Q

What is flexion?

A

A movement in the sagittal plane, causing a decrease in the anterior angle between the bones of the joint.

408
Q

What is extension?

A

A movement in the sagittal plane, causing an increase in the anterior angle between the bones of the joint.

409
Q

What is abduction?

A

A movement of a limb in the coronal plane, away from the midline of the body.

410
Q

What is adduction?

A

A movement of a limb in the coronal plane, towards the midline of the body.

411
Q

What is medial (internal) rotation?

A

Turning a limb inwardly, or towards the midline of the body.

412
Q

What is lateral (external) rotation?

A

Turning a limb outwardly, or away from the midline of the body.

413
Q

What is an agonist (in terms of muscles)?

A

The muscle that provides the primary force driving the joint to perform the movement in question.

414
Q

What is an antagonist (in terms of muscles)?

A

A muscle in opposition to the agonist, providing some resistance to the agonist muscle and may reverse the movement in question.

415
Q

What is a synergist (in terms of muscles)?

A

A muscle that assists the agonist muscle in performing the movement in question.

416
Q

In elbow flexion, what is the agonist, antagonist and synergist muscle?

A
  • Agonist: Biceps brachii
  • Antagonist: Triceps brachii
  • Synergist: Brachialis
417
Q

What movements are possible at the hip and what muscle groups enable these?

A
  • Flexion -> Quadriceps + Iliopsoas
  • Extension -> Hamstrings + Gluteus maximus
  • Abduction -> Abductors
  • Adduction -> Adductors
  • Medial rotation -> Medial rotators
  • Lateral rotation -> Lateral rotators
418
Q

Where do hip flexors insert?

A

Proximal femur

419
Q

Where do hip extensors insert?

A

Femur, tibia or fibula

420
Q

Where do hip abductors insert?

A

Femur

421
Q

Where do hip adductors insert?

A

Femur

422
Q

What muscle group flexes the knee?

A

Hamstrings

423
Q

What muscle group extends the knee?

A

Quadriceps

424
Q

What are the different compartments of the thigh and what are their functions?

A
  • Anterior -> Hip flexors and knee extensors
  • Posterior -> Hip extensors and knee flexors
  • Medial -> Hip adductors
425
Q

What are the different compartments of the leg and what are their functions?

A
  • Anterior -> Dorsiflexion of foot
  • Lateral -> Foot eversion
  • Superficial posterior -> Plantarflexion of foot
  • Deep posterior -> Plantarflexion of foot
426
Q

Compare the number of compartments in the thigh and the leg.

A
  • Thigh -> 3
  • Leg -> 4 (because there is a deep and superficial posterior compartment)
427
Q

What is compartment syndrome and how can it be treated?

A
  • The deep fascia surrounding the muscles of the lower limb encourages venous return, but can be problematic if the pressure within these muscle compartments increases.
  • Bleeding into or swelling of these tissues can cause compression of the deep veins, resulting in further oedema and raised compartmental pressure.
  • It can be treated by four compartment fasciotomy to release the pressure in each compartment.
428
Q

What movements are possible at the shoulder?

A
  • Flexion
  • Extension
  • Abduction
  • Adduction
  • Medial Rotation
  • Lateral Rotation
429
Q

Describe the position of shoulder flexors.

A

Muscles crossing the joint anteriorly to insert into the proximal humerus flex the shoulder joint.

430
Q

Describe the position of shoulder extensors.

A

Muscles passing posterior to the joint to insert into the humerus extend the shoulder joint.

431
Q

Describe the position of shoulder abductors.

A

Muscles crossing the joint to insert into the lateral proximal humerus abduct the shoulder joint.

432
Q

Check that you have flashcards on the rotator cuff muscles. Add some if not.

A

Do it.

433
Q

Give some examples of rotator cuff injuries. [EXTRA?]

A
434
Q

Describe the position of elbow flexors.

A

Muscles crossing the joint anteriorly to insert into the proximal radius.

435
Q

Describe the position of elbow extensors.

A

Muscles passing posterior to the joint to insert into the proximal radius and ulna.

436
Q

What are the compartments of the forearm and what is their function?

A
  • Anterior -> Flexion of the wrist and pronation of the forearm [CHECK]
  • Posterior -> Extension of the wrist and supination of the forearm
  • Mobile wad
437
Q

Label this.

A
438
Q

At what joint do pronation and supination of the forearm happen?

A

Proximal radioulnar joint

439
Q

What muscles bring about forearm pronation?

A

Pronator teres and pronator quadratus of the anterior compartment.

440
Q

What muscles bring about forearm supination?

A

Supinator of the posterior compartment.

441
Q

What is tennis elbow? [EXTRA]

A
442
Q

What is golfers’ elbow? [EXTRA]

A
443
Q

What structures hold tendons in place?

A
  • Retinaculum -> Band of thickened deep fascia around tendons that holds them in place.
  • Tendon sheath -> Layer of synovial membrane around a tendon. It permits the tendon to stretch and not adhere to the surrounding fascia.
444
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 (I-XII)

445
Q

How many spinal nerves are there and what are the divisions?

A

31:

  • 8 cervical nerves (C1-8)
  • 12 thoracic nerves (T1-12)
  • 5 lumbar nerves (L1-5)
  • 5 sacral nerves (S1-5)
  • 1 coccygeal nerve (Co)
446
Q

Draw the cross section of the spinal cord showing how it produces nerve roots.

A
447
Q

What happens to spinal nerves after they emerge from the spinal cord?

A

They split into primary rami: anterior and posterior rami.

448
Q

What do the anterior and posterior rami supply? [IMPORTANT]

A
  • Anterior -> Limbs and ventral trunk
  • Posterior -> Spinal extensors and overlying skin
449
Q

When spinal nerves divide into anterior and posterior rami, do the sensory and motor fibres divide also?

A

No, there are both sensory and motor fibres in each rami.

450
Q

Draw a diagram to show how a nerve root can supply a level of the thorax and connect with the sympathetic trunk.

A
451
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

Unilateral area of skin receiving innervation from a single spinal nerve.

452
Q

Draw a diagram to show the dermatomes of the human body.

A
453
Q

Are dermatomes precisely mapped?

A

No, they are overlapping and hard to map.

454
Q

Describe which way limbs rotate during development and how this is demonstrated by dermatomes.

A
  • UPPER LIMB rotates LATERALLY (dorsally)
  • LOWER LIMB rotates MEDIALLY (ventrally)

Growth and rotation distort the segmental dermatome pattern -> Particularly in lower limb.

455
Q

What is a myotome?

A

Unilateral portion of skeletal muscle receiving innervation from a single spinal nerve.

456
Q

Can a muscle receive innervation from more than one nerve root?

A

Yes.

457
Q

Name all of the nerve roots controlling the different upper limb movements.

A
458
Q

Name all of the nerve roots controlling the different lower limb movements.

A
459
Q

What nerve roots control shoulder abduction and adduction?

A
  • Abduction -> C5
  • Adduction -> C6, C7, C8
460
Q

What nerve roots control shoulder flexion and extension?

A
  • Flexion -> C5
  • Extension -> C6, C7, C8
461
Q

What nerve roots control elbow flexion and extension?

A
  • Flexion -> C5, C6
  • Extension -> C6, C7, C8
462
Q

What nerve roots control forearm pronation and supination?

A
  • Pronation -> C7, C8
  • Supination -> C6
463
Q

What nerve roots control wrist flexion and extension?

A
  • Flexion -> C6, C7
  • Extension -> C6, C7
464
Q

What nerve roots control finger flexion, extension, abduction and adduction?

A
  • Flexion -> C7, C8
  • Extension -> C7, C8
  • Abduction -> T1
  • Adduction -> T1
465
Q

What nerve roots control hip flexion and extension?

A
  • Flexion -> L2, L3
  • Extension -> L4, L5
466
Q

What nerve roots control hip abduction and adduction?

A
  • Abduction -> L5, S1
  • Adduction -> L2, L3
467
Q

What nerve roots control medial and lateral hip rotation?

A
  • Medial -> L2, L3
  • Lateral -> L5, S1
468
Q

What nerve roots control knee flexion and extension?

A
  • Flexion -> L5, S1
  • Extension -> L3, L4
469
Q

What nerve roots control plantarflexion and dorsiflexion?

A
  • Plantarflexion -> S1, S2
  • Dorsiflexion -> L4, L5
470
Q

What nerve roots control foot inversion and eversion?

A
  • Inversion -> L4, L5
  • Eversion -> L5, S1
471
Q

Draw the anatomical basis for the patellar tendon reflex.

A
472
Q

What spinal root does the biceps jerk reflex test? [IMPORTANT]

A

C5/C6

473
Q

What spinal root does the knee jerk reflex test? [IMPORTANT]

A

L3/L4

474
Q

Where do named peripheral nerves (e.g. obturator nerve) originate from?

A

They are formed by the joining of ventral rami (meaning that a peripheral nerve may have may spinal nerve roots).

475
Q

What are the two important nerve plexuses you need to know about?

A
  • Brachial plexus
  • Lumbosacral plexus
476
Q

What nerve roots form the brachial plexus?

A

C5-T1

477
Q

What nerve roots form the lumbosacral plexus?

A

L1-S3

478
Q

What are the main upper limb nerves?

A
  • Musculocutaneous
  • Median
  • Ulnar
  • Axillary
  • Radial
479
Q

What are the main lower limb nerves?

A
  • Femoral
  • Obturator
  • Sciatic
  • Tibial
  • Common, deep and superficial peroneal (fibular)
480
Q

Draw a diagram to show the innervation of the main body compartments [although you don’t need to know most of these probabaly].

A
481
Q

Draw the structure of the brachial plexus. [EXTRA]

A
482
Q

What are the nerves that supply the flexor and extensor compartments of the upper limb? Include nerve roots. [IMPORTANT]

A
  • Flexor -> Musculocutaneous (C5-C7)
  • Extensor -> Radial (C5-T1)
483
Q

What are the nerves that supply the flexor and extensor compartments of the lower limb? Include nerve roots. [IMPORTANT]

A
  • Flexor -> Sciatic (L4-S3)
  • Extensor -> Femoral (L2-L4)
484
Q

Do you need to know the innervation of the whole upper and lower limbs?

A

No, the spec doesn’t specify this. It only really specificies the innervation of the extensor and flexor compartments.

485
Q

Draw the sensory territories of the different upper limb nerves.

A
486
Q

For the musculocutaneous nerve, draw a diagram to show which muscles are innervated by it.

A
487
Q

For the median nerve, draw a diagram to show which muscles are innervated by it. [EXTRA?]

A
488
Q

For the ulnar nerve, draw a diagram to show which muscles are innervated by it. [EXTRA?]

A
489
Q

For the radial nerve, draw a diagram to show which muscles are innervated by it.

A
490
Q

For the femoral and obturator nerves, draw a diagram to show which muscles they innervate.

A
491
Q

For the sciatic nerve, draw a diagram to show which muscles it innervates.

A
492
Q

For the tibial nerve, draw a diagram to show which muscles it innervates. [EXTRA?]

A
493
Q

For the fibular (a.k.a. peroneal) nerves, draw a diagram to show which muscles they innervate.

A
494
Q

Draw the sensory territories of the lower limb.

A
495
Q

How many vertebrae are there?

A

33

496
Q

How many of each type of vertebrae are there?

A
  • Cervical -> 7
  • Thoracic -> 12
  • Lumbar -> 5
  • Sacral -> 5 (fused)
  • Coccygeal -> 4
497
Q

To what vertebral level does the spinal cord descend?

A

L1-L2

498
Q

Label this vertebra.

A
499
Q

What are the important structures of a typical vertebra?

A
  • Body
  • Pedicle
  • Canal
  • Lamina
  • Transverse and spinous processes
  • Articulation facets
500
Q

What is the body of a vertebra?

A

The thick oval segment of bone forming the front of the vertebra (also called the centrum).

501
Q

What is a pedicle of a vertebra?

A
  • The two pedicles are the two short columns of bone that connects the lamina to the vertebral body to form the vertebral arch.
  • They form a hollow archway that protects the spinal cord.
502
Q

What is the canal of a vertebra?

A

It is the opening through which the spinal cord passes. It is also known as the foramen.

503
Q

What is a lamina of a vertebra?

A

The lamina is the part of the vertebra that connects the spinous process and the transverse process. There are two laminae, located on either side of the spinous process.

504
Q

What are the two types of process on a vertebra?

A
  • Spinous
  • Transverse
505
Q

What is the spinous process of a vertebra and what is the function?

A
  • Spinous process is a bony projection off the posterior of each vertebra.
  • The spinous process protrudes where the laminae of the vertebral arch join and provides the point of attachment for muscles and ligaments of the spine.
506
Q

What are the transverse processes of vertebra and what is their function?

A
  • Small bony projections off the right and left side of each vertebrae.
  • The two transverse processes of each vertebrae function as the site of attachment for muscles and ligaments of the spine as well as the point of articulation of the ribs (in the thoracic spine).
507
Q

What are the articulation facets of a vertebra and what is their function?

A
  • Each vertebra has two sets of facet joints.
  • One pair faces upward (superior articular facet) and one downward (inferior articular facet).
  • There is one joint on each side (right and left). Facet joints are hinge–like and link vertebrae together.
508
Q

Describe the curvature of the different parts of the spine.

A
  • Cervical -> Lordosis
  • Thoracic -> Kyphosis
  • Lumbar -> Lordosis
  • Sacral -> Lordosis
509
Q

Describe how spinal curvature changes with age.

A
510
Q

What are some forms of abnormal curvature of the spine?

A
511
Q

What are the 3 different embryological origins of different parts of the skeleton?

A
  • Craniofacial -> Neural crest
  • Axial skeleton -> Somites
  • Limb skeleton -> Lateral plate mesoderm
512
Q

From what embryological origin does the axial skeleton develop?

A

Somites (a.k.a. paraxial mesoderm)

513
Q

What ossification process does the axial skeleton form by?

A

Endochondral ossification

514
Q

Describe what induces the axial skeleton to form. How does it form?

A
  • Notochord expresses Shh which induces medial somitic cells to form the sclerotome
  • Sclerotome cells then migrate to surround the neural tube and form vertebrae by endochondral ossification
515
Q

Describe in detail the formation of the vertebrae when the sclerotome surrounds the neural tube.

A

Notice how a fissure in each somite followed by fusion of adjacent segments leads to the inter-vertebral contents (e.g. the nucleus pulposus) existing between the vertebrae.

516
Q

What patterns the vertebrae in a cranio-caudal direction?

A

Hox genes

517
Q

What are the effects of Hox gene deletions on the axial skeleton?

A
  • Result in skeletal abnormalities
  • Mice in which Hox D4 has been knocked out show a transformation of the axis vertebra (C2) to an atlas-like (C1) structure
518
Q

What are some examples of conditions caused by abnormal spinal development?

A
  • Spina bifida
  • Hemivertebrae
  • Abnormal curvature (e.g. scoliosis)
519
Q

What causes spina bifida?

A
  • Failure of neural tube closure:
  • This occurs when the spines and arches of one or more vertebrae don’t fully develop
520
Q

What are some structural specialisations of cervical vertebrae?

A
  • Small bodies
  • Large vertebral foramina
  • Foramina transversaria -> Small foramina in the pedicles that allow passage of an artery and vein
521
Q

Which cervical vertebrae is most prominent?

A

C7

522
Q

What are some structural specialisations of thoracic vertebrae?

A
  • Small vertebral foramen
  • Long spines
  • Costal facets for rib articulation (on transverse processes)
523
Q

What are some structural specialisations of lumbar vertebrae?

A
  • Large bodies
524
Q

What are some structural specialisations of sacral vertebrae?

A
  • Fused
  • Large surface of articulation with the pelvis
525
Q

What are some structural specialisations of the coccygeal vertebrae?

A
  • Lower 3 are fused
526
Q

What type of vertebra is this?

A

Thoracic

527
Q

What type of vertebra is this?

A

Sacral

528
Q

What type of vertebra is this?

A

Coccygeal

529
Q

What type of vertebra is this?

A

Lumbar

530
Q

What type of vertebra is this?

A

Cervical

531
Q

What determines the directions of movement that are possible between different vertebrae?

A

The shapes of articulation facets on the superior and inferior side.

532
Q

Describe the movements that are possible at different regions of the spine. [IMPORTANT]

A
  • Cervical -> Flexion/Extension
  • Thoracic -> Rotation (and almost no flexion/extension)
  • Lumbar -> Flexion/Extension
533
Q

Which parts of the spine have a lordosis? [IMPORTANT]

A

Lumbar and sacral (these are the only ones mentioned in the spec)

534
Q

What is the name for the C1 and C2 vertebrae?

A
  • C1 -> Atlas
  • C2 -> Axis
535
Q

What does the atlas articulate with superiorly?

A

Occipital condyles

536
Q

What is the name of the process that points vertically upwards from the axis? What is its function?

A

Dens -> Allows rotation of the atlas on top of the axis.

537
Q

What is the most distinct feature of the atlas as a vertebra?

A

It has no spinous process and it has large facets for articulation with the condyles of the occipital bone.

538
Q

Draw the structure of the atlas.

A
539
Q

Draw the structure of the axis.

A
540
Q

Draw all of the ligaments that hold the dens of the axis in place.

A
541
Q

Describe how ribs articulate with the vertebrae.

A
  • Articulate with the thoracic vertebrae.
  • Each rib forms two joints:
    • Costotransverse joint -> Between the tubercle of the rib, and the transverse costal facet of the corresponding vertebrae.
    • Costovertebral joint -> Between the head of the rib, superior costal facet of the corresponding vertebrae, and the inferior costal facet of the vertebrae above.
542
Q

Where does the skull articulate with the vertebral column?

A

The occipital condyles articulate with the superior facets of the atlas.

543
Q

Where does the pelvis articulate with the vertebral column?

A

At the sacrum.

544
Q

What is the joint type of the atlanto-occipital joint? What movements are perimitted?

A
  • Synovial joints between occipital condyles and atlas
  • Movements: Flexion, Extension, Lateral flexion
545
Q

What is the joint type of the atlanto-axial joint? What movements are perimitted?

A
  • Synovial joints between odontoid process and lateral masses of axis and the atlas
  • Movements: Rotation
546
Q

What are the two joint types between vertebrae? What is the structural type of joint of each?

A
  • Synovial joints between articular processes
  • Secondary cartilaginous joints between bodies
547
Q

What is the joint type of intervertebral discs? Describe the structure.

A

Secondary cartilaginous:

  • Nucleus pulposus -> Gelatinous with high water content
  • Anulus fibrosus -> Fibrocartilage
548
Q

Describe the different ligaments stabilising the spine.

A
549
Q

What are some muscles that enable movement of the spine?

A
550
Q

At what points does the spinal cord enlarge?

A

Cervical and lumbar

551
Q

What is the name for the lower tip of the spinal cord?

A

Conus medullaris

552
Q

After the spinal cord ends, what do the nerve roots continue as?

A

Cauda equina

553
Q

At what vertebral level does the subarachnoid space end at?

A

S2

554
Q

How many nerve roots are there?

A

31

(There are C1-C8 nerve roots, even though there are only 7 cervical vertebrae, and there is only 1 coccygeal nerve. So there are 31 nerve roots and 33 vertebrae.)

555
Q

At what points do spinal nerves leave the vertebral canal?

A

Via the inter-vertebral foramina.

556
Q

What is the consequence of intervertebral disc prolapse?

A

The prolapsed discs may compress nerve roots.

557
Q

In which regions of the spine is a disc prolapse most common?

A
  • Lower lumbar
  • Lower cervical
558
Q

What intervertebral disc prolapse direction is most common?

A

Postero-lateral

559
Q

What is the site and direction for lumbar puncture?

A
  • L4/L5
  • Direction: From Lamina to Pedicle (Lumbar Puncture)
560
Q

Describe lumbar puncture.

A
561
Q

What is sciatica?

A

Any sort of pain caused by irritation or compression of the sciatic nerve, which runs from your hips to your feet.