Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 CK UW > 7/27/16 > Flashcards

7/27/16 Flashcards

1
Q

all children with juvenile idiopathic arthritis should get what test?

A

slit-lamp eye exams to look for anterior uveitis (can lead to blindness if not treated with steroids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is blount disease?

A

bowing of unilateral/bilateral tibia that persists beyond 2 years of age, needs to be corrected by bracing or it will lead to permanent growth disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what substance withdrawal or intoxication: hypertension, cherry red skin, diaphoresis, arrhythmia

A

hydrogen cyanide poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what substance withdrawal or intoxication: constricted pupils, bradycardia, muscle fasciculations, diaphoresis, diarrhea, excessive salivation

A

organophosphate poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

beyond what age is strabismus concerning?

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a child with recurrent otitis media, some with perforation, who presents with a discrete, whitish polyp that extends through the tympanic membrane

A

cholesteatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what substance withdrawal or intoxication: CNS depression, respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils

A

opioid (i.e., heroin, methadone, morphine) intoxication (tx with naloxone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

name the deficiency: redness and blebs or blisters on skin that exfoliate leaving large areas of denuded epithelium, diarrhea, tongue is erythematous and smooth with loss of papillae, abnormal gait

A

niacin (pellagra = dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IUGR, low-pitched cry, confluent eyebrows, long curly eyelashes, limb defects (micromelia), undescended testes

A

cornelia de lange syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

VACTERL associaton

A

Vertebral defect, Anal atresia, Cardiac defects, TracheoEsophageal fistua, Renal/Radial defect (or both), Limb abnormalities (intelligence is normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what substance withdrawal or intoxication: vomiting, tinnitus, fever, anion gap metabolic acidosis = what is the treatment?

A

salicylate (aspirin) toxicity (tx with sodium bicarbonate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sx of malaria

A

high spiking PAROXYSMS of fever, headache, myalgia, back pain with SPLENOMEGALY, and pallor after traveling in Central America

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

dx and tx: nonbloody diarrhea and low grade fever after eating “bad raspberries”

A

cyclospora cayetanensis; TMP/SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tx for diphyllobothrium latum

A

praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the teratogen: renal dysgenesis, oligohydramnios, skull ossification defects

A

ACE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

extremely pruritic serpiginous rash on foot after walking barefoot on a beach = dx and tx?

A

ancylostoma duodenale (cutaneous larva migrans); albendazole or pyrantel pamoate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

6 month old infant with a harsh blowing holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border that radiates over the precodium

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what should you consider when you see diarrhea, cracked lips, glossitis, and pallor in a pt treated for seizures?

A

phenytoin leading to folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what vitamin is used for tx of measles?

A

vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when is intradermal skin test using candida albicans used?

A

when you suspect DiGeorge syndrome (children with low calcium, frequent infections, seizures, wide-set down-slanting eyes, small jaw, murmur); will show no response due to lack of T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what antipsychotic can cause irreversible retinal pigmentation?

A

thioridazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what antipsychotic can cause deposits in lens and cornea

A

chlorpromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what antipsychotic can cause obstructive jaundice?

A

chlorpromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what antipsychotic can cause sialorrhea (production of large amount of saliva)?

A

clozapine (tx with clonidine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

tx for extrapyramidal sx (dytonia, parkinsonism) caused by antipsychotics

A

benztropine, diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

tx for akathisia caused by antipsychotics

A

reduce dose as much as possible, if it persists, propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what antidepressant can cause seizures in anorexic/bulimic pts?

A

bupropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what labs need to be checked before starting lithium?

A

BUN, Cr (baseline kidney function), thyroid studies (lithium inhibits synthesis of thyroid hormone and its release from thyroid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what dementia: emotional and social appropriateness are lost first, memory deteriorates later

A

frontotemporal dementia (Pick disease, caused by silver-staining tau protein aggregates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what dementia: initially dementia and hallucinations , followed by parkinsonian features

A

lewy body dementia (haLewycinations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe sx of Wernicke encephalopathy and Korsakoff syndrome

A

Wernicke encephalopathy: bilateral abducens nerve (CN6) palsy, horizontal nystagmus, ataxia, and global confusion
Korsakoff syndrome: anterograde amnesia caused by chronic thiamine deficiency, confabulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

describe CT/MRI findings of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

A

periventricular hemorrhage and necrosis of mammillary bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

alzheimer disease = decreased ______, treated with _____

A

acetylcholine; acetylcholinesterase inhibitors like donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine, tacrine, or memantine (NMDA receptor antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

describe the function of the dopamine pathways in schizophrenia: tuberoinfundibular, nigrostriatal, mesolimbic, prefrontal cortical

A

tuberoinfundibular: blocking dopamine in this pathway = hyperprolactinemia
nigrostriatal: blocking dopamine in this pathway = extrapyramidal side effects
mesolimbic: blocking dopamine in this pathway = controls positive sx of schizophrenia (hallucinations, delusions)
prefrontal cortical: inadequate dopamine in this pathway causes the negative sx of schizophrenia (flat affect, social withdrawal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ddx for dilated pupils

A

cocaine, amphetamine, or LSD intoxication or opioid (i.e., methadone, heroin, morphine) withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

tx for opioid withdrawal

A

clonidine (immediate), buprenorphine (first-line for detox), methadone (long-term)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what substance withdrawal or intoxication: belligerence, vertical nystagmus, fever, homocidality; what is the treatment?

A

PCP intoxication; place pt in a quiet, dark, low stimulation room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

tx for restless leg syndrome

A

levodopa or dopamine agonist (pramipexole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which sleep disorder occurs during REM sleep? which occurs during slow-wave sleep (stage 3-4)?

A

REM: nightmare disorder (no confusion or disorientation upon wakening, vivid recall)
stage 3-4: sleep terror disorder (confused and disoriented upon wakening, amnesic about episode)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is REM sleep behavior disorder and what is the tx?

A

muscle atonia during REM sleep and complex motor activity associated with dream mentation (sleep talking, yelling, walking, running, punching or other violent behaviors); tx with clonazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

tx for hypoactive sexual desire disorder

A

testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

tx for premature ejaculation

A

SSRIs (fluoxetine), TCAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

describe Rett disorder

A

only in GIRLS, normal development during first 5 months after birth, followed by DECREASING RATE OF HEAD GROWTH and loss of previously learned purposeful hand skills; STEREOTYPED HAND MOVEMENTS (hand wringing, washing), impaired language and psychomotor retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

tx for tourette disorder

A

clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

child who avoids social interactions but does well in school, talks like he is reading a monologue

A

asperger disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

children understand irreversibility of death by what age?

A

7-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is an alternate therapy for bulimic pts who have failed 2 trials of SSRIs?

A

topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is catatonia?

A

“waxy flexibility,” “pt exhibits posturing and resists your motions with strength proportional to what you exert”; sx of schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

tx for nightmares in PTSD

A

prazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

recommended length of tx for major depressive disorder

A

at least 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

tx for bipolar depression

A

lithium, quetiapine, or lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

tx for acute mania

A

antipsychotic and benzodiazepine (mood stabilizers such as lithium and carbamazepine take about 1 week to show effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the consequence of a pregnant pt taking SSRIs?

A

persistent pulmonary hypertension of newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

medication to decrease agitation in delirious ELDERLY pts

A

risperidone (if IV or IM medication needs to be given, use haloperidol)

55
Q

what is conversion disorder?

A

at least one neurological sx that cannot be explained by a medical disorder, “la belle indifference” when describing their sx

56
Q

positive Coombs test, microspherocytes on smear

A

autoimmune (warm or IgG) hemolysis

57
Q

most common buzz words associated with acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3 subtype of AML)

A

Auer rods, DIC, treat with all-trans-retinoic acid (vitamin A)

58
Q

what should be added to chemotherapy for pts with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)?

A

intrathecal methotrexate to prevent relapse in CNS

59
Q

persistently high WBC count that is all neutrophils, pruritus after hot showers, splenomegaly = dx and tx

A

CML; treat with tyrosine kinase inhibitors (IMATINIB)

60
Q

what is the most accurate test for CML?

A

BCR-ABL (9:22 translocation = Philadelphia chromosome is found in 95% of cases) via PCR or FISH

61
Q

pancytopenia despite hypercellular bone marrow

A

myelodysplastic syndrome

62
Q

CBC and smear results for myelodysplastic syndrome

A

increased MCV, nucleated red cells, ringed sideroblasts

63
Q

tx for myelodysplastic syndrome with 5q deletion

A

lenalidomide

64
Q

tx for mild cases of CLL vs advanced-stage

A

mild: chlorambucil

advanced-stage: fludarabine, CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE, and rituximab

65
Q

tx for autoimmune thrombocytopenia or anemia that occurs in CLL (CLL B-lymphocytes are abnormal in that they attack normal red cells and platelets instead of making antibodies for infection)

A

prednisone

66
Q

smudge cells in peripheral smear

A

CLL

67
Q

many basophils in peripheral smear

A

CML

68
Q

“dry tap” marrow, stains tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) positive = dx and tx

A

hairy cell leukemia; cladribine or pentostatin

69
Q

best initial test in lymphoma

A

EXCISIONAL biopsy (NOT needle aspiration biopsy!)

70
Q

tx for advanced-stage non-hodgkins lymphoma

A

CHOP (Cyclophosphamide, Hydroxydaunorubici=adriamycin=doxorubicin, Oncovin=vincristine, Prednisone) and rituximab

71
Q

differences in presentation between non hodgkins and hodgkins lymphoma

A

hodgkin lymphoma has Reed-Sternberg cells and has lymphadenopathy centering around cervical area, whereas in non-hodgkins lympgoma lymphadenopathy is disseminated

72
Q

tx for advanced-stage hodgkins lymphoma

A

ABVD (Adriamycin=doxorubicin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, Dacarbazine)

73
Q

blurry vision, ENGORGED BLOOD VESSELS IN THE EYE, mucosal bleeding, and Raynauds = dx and tx

A

waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (overproduction of IgM leading to hyperviscosity); tx with PLASMAPHERESIS

74
Q

isolated thrombocytopenia and NORMAL SIZED SPLEEN

A

immune thrombocytopenic purpura

75
Q

how can you distinguish between platelet or clotting factor problem causing bleeding?

A

platelet-related bleeding is more superficial (epistaxis, gingival, petechiae, mucosal bleeding, vaginal), whereas clotting-factor-related bleeding is deep, such as hemarthroses and bleeding in muscles

76
Q

bleeding related to platelets (epistaxis, gingival, gums) with normal platelet count, bleeding problems in family members = dx and tx

A

von willebrand disease; tx is DDAVP (desmopressin) which releases endthelial stores of VWF

77
Q

what is the ristocetin cofactor assay?

A

tests von willebrand factor activity, von willebrand disease pts will have reduced ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation

78
Q

hemarthrosis, intracranial bleeding, intramuscular hematomas, retroperitoneal hematomas, hematuria in a male child

A

hemophilia (deficiency of clotting factor 8 or 9)

79
Q

after stopping heparin in pts with HIT, what should you give?

A

direct thrombin inhibitors (FABuLous): Fondaparinux, Argatroban, Bivalirudin, Lepirudin

80
Q

tx for esophageal spasms

A

calcium channel blockers and nitrates

81
Q

tx for esophageal candidiasis in HIV pts

A

oral fluconazole (oral nystatin swish and swallow only treats ORAL candidiasis)

82
Q

what is the course of action if fluconazole does not improve odynophagia in an HIV pt?

A

endoscopy.
if small ulcers, HSV = tx with acyclovir.
if large ulcers, CMV = tx with ganciclovir or foscarnet

83
Q

what are the differences between Schatzki ring and Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A

Schatzki ring is often from acid reflux, is associated with hiatal hernia, and is in the distal esophagus, whereas Plummer-Vinson syndrome is associated with iron deficiency anemia, is more proximal, and can transform into SQUAMOUS CELL CANCER

84
Q

dx for epigastric pain better with food vs worse with food

A

better with food: duodenal ulcer

worse with food: gastric ulcer

85
Q

tenderness in epigastrium

A

pancreatitis

86
Q

tx for GERD (drug class and examples)

A

PPIs (omeprazole, lansoprazole, pantoprazole, etc.)

87
Q

management of Barrett esophagus vs low-grade dysplasia

A 
barrett alone (columnar metaplasia): PPIs and rescope every 2-3 YEARS
metaplasia: PPIs and rescope every 6-12 MONTHS
88
Q

tx for H. pylori PUD in pts with penicillin allergy

A

clarithromycin and METRONIDAZOLE (not amoxicillin)

89
Q

management of duodenal ulcer vs gastric ulcer that does not respond to initial therapy

A

duodenal ulcer: confirm persistent H. pylori and switch abx to metronidazole and tetracycline
gastric ulcer: repeat endoscopy to EXCLUDE CANCER

90
Q

when should endoscopy be performed on a pt with unexplained epigastric pain?

A

if they are over 55 (to exclude cancer) OR there are “alarm” sx like dysphagia, weight loss, anemia

91
Q

multiple large peptic ulcers in distal duodenum, recur after H. pylori eradication, diarrhea

A

gastrinoma (zollinger-ellison syndrome). gastrinomaa causes diarrhea because acid inactivates pancreatic enzymes like lipase

92
Q

most accurate test to confirm gastrinoma (zollinger-ellison syndrome)

A

persistently high gastrin levels despite secretin administration

93
Q

hypercalcemia and multiple duodenal ulcers

A

MEN1 (pituitary, parathyroid, pancreas)

94
Q

what tests should you do if pt with gastrinoma (zollinger-ellison syndrome) has a normal CT and MRI of abdomen (performed to look for metastatic disease)?

A

SOMATOSTATIN RECEPTOR SCINTIGRAPHY (nuclear octreotide scan) combined with ENDOSCOPIC ULTRASOUND. gastrinoma is associated with a massive increase in the number of somatostatin receptors in the abdomen

95
Q

what are the indications for packed RBCs in GI bleeding?

A

if hematocrit is below 30 in an OLDER PT or suffer from CORONARY ARTERY DISEASE

96
Q

tx for active variceal bleeding vs tx for prevention of subsequent episodes of bleeding

A

active: octreotide (somatostatin) decreases portal pressure
ppx: propranolol

97
Q

management of C. difficile diarrhea that did not respond to metronidazole

A

switch to oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin

98
Q

distinguishing features of whipple disease from celiac disease

A

Whipped cream in a CAN: Cardiac sx, Arthalgias, Neurologic sx (also ocular findings, fever, lymphadenopathy)

99
Q

tx for whipple disease vs tx of tropical sprue

A

whipple disease: ceftriaxone followed by TMP/SMX

tropical sprue: TMP/SMX, tetracycline

100
Q

what is the most accurate test for chronic pancreatitis?

A

secretin stimulation testing. place an NG tube, an unaffected pt will release a large volume of bicarbonate-rich fluids after IV injection of secretin

101
Q

best test and tx of carcinoid syndrome

A

test: urinary 5-HIAA
tx: octreotide

102
Q

major difference between malabsorption of chronic pancreatitis vs celiac disease

A

in celiac disease there is iron deficiency (iron does not need pancreatic enzymes to be absorbed, whereas fat-soluble vitamins do)

103
Q

tx options for irritable bowel syndrome

A

fiber in the diet, antispasmodic agents such as HYOSCYAMINE or DICYCLOMINE, TRICYCLIC ANTIDEPRESSANTS

104
Q

distinguishing features of crohn disease (from ulcerative colitis)

A

skip lesions, TRANSMURAL GRANULOMAS, fistulas, abscesses, perianal disease, masses and obstruction

105
Q

antibodies found in ulcerative colitis vs crohn

A

UC: ANCA
crohn: ASCA (antisaccharomyces cerevesiae)

106
Q

best initial test in a pt with sx of diverticulitis

A

CT SCAN (barium enema and colonoscopy are DANGEROUS in diverticulitis because of increased risk of perforation)

107
Q

empiric tx of diverticulitis

A

CIPROFLOXACIN and METRONIDAZOLE

108
Q

colonoscopy frequency in a pt with a single family member with colon cancer

A

begin 10 years earlier than the age at which family member developed cancer or age 40, whichever is younger. repeat every 5 years if family member is under age 60

109
Q

colonoscopy frequency in a pt with previous adenomatous polyp

A

every 3-5 years instead of 10 years

110
Q

colonoscopy frequency in a pt with suspicion for HNPCC (three family members, two generations, 1 before age 50)

A

start at 25 with colonoscopy every 1-2 years

111
Q

presentation of peutz-jeghers syndrome

A

multiple hamartomatous polpys in colon with MELANOTIC SPOTS ON LIPS and skin, increased frequency of breast, gonadal, and pancreatic cancer

112
Q

gardner syndrome vs turcot syndrome

A

Gardner: colon cancer with OSTEOMAS, desmoid tumors, other soft tissue tumors
Turcot: colon cancer with CNS MALIGNANCY

113
Q

drugs that cause acute pancreatitis

A

Drugs Causing A Violent Abdominal Distress: Didanosine, Corticosteroids, Azathioprine, Valproic acid, Alcohol, Diuretics (furosemide, thiazides)

114
Q

what lab finding is associated with worst prognosis in pancreatitis?

A

low calcium

115
Q

when should you add abx to management of acute pancreatitis?

A

if CT shows more than 30% necrosis, add impenem or meropenem and perform needle biopsy to determine presence of infection

116
Q

what is SAAG and when is it used?

A

SAAG = serum albumin - ascites albumin. if greater than 1.1 (as in, low albumin in ascitic fluid), more likely to be portal hypertension or CHF. if less than 1.1, infections (except SBP), cancer, and nephrotic syndrome are more likely

117
Q

most common cause of SBP, best initial test, and tx

A

E.coli; cell count of peritoneal fluid with MORE THAN 250 NEUTROPHILS; CEFOTAXIME or CEFTRIAXONE

118
Q

tx for ascites and edema caused by cirrhosis

A

spironolactone and other diuretics, serial paracenteses

119
Q

tx for hepatic encephalopathy

A

lactulose, rifaximin

120
Q

tx for hepatorenal syndrome

A

somatostatin (octreotide), midodrine

121
Q

what dx should be considered in a pt who develops hypoxia only when sitting upright?

A

hepatopulmonary syndrome (orthodeoxia)

122
Q

pathogenesis and sx of primary biliary cirrhosis

A

autoimmune destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts; presents with pruritus, normal bilirubin with an elevated alkaline phosphatase (cholestatic LFTs), XANTHELASMA (fatty deposition around eyelids), OSTEOPOROSIS

123
Q

antimitochondrial antibody

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

124
Q

most accurate blood test and tx for primary biliary cirrhosis

A

antimitochondrial antibody; ursodeoxycholic acid

125
Q

difference in tx of chronic hepB vs chronic hepC

A

chronic hepB is managed with ONE medication (lamivudine or interferon or tenofovir, etc.), whereas chronic hepC is managed with TWO medications (LEDIPASVIR and SOFOSBUVIR)

126
Q

tx of acute vs chronic hepC

A

acute: ribavirin, interferon
chronic: ledipasvir and sofosbuvir

127
Q

wilson disease presentation

A

sx of cirrhosis PLUS psychosis and delusions, COOMBS NEGATIVE hemolytic anemia, and renal tubular acidosis or kidney stones

128
Q

best initial test vs most accurate test for wilson disease

A

best initial test: slit-lamp exam

most accurate test: abnormally increased amount of copper excretion in urine after giving PENICILLAMINE

129
Q

tx for wilson disease

A

penicillamine, zinc (penicillamine will chelate copper and remove it from body, zinc interferes with intestinal copper absorption)

130
Q

anti-smooth muscle antibodies

A

autoimmune hepatitis

131
Q

management of pt with stroke who is already on aspirin

A

aDd DIPYRAMIDOLE or switCh to CLOPIDOGREL

132
Q

thrombolytics vs aspirin after likely ischemic stroke = how do you decide?

A

more than 3 hours since onset = aspirin

133
Q

what should every pt with a stroke be started on no matter what?

A

statin (along with aspirin or clopidogrel)

Step 2 CK UW (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions