6A. Neurologic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Stroke
Sudden interruption of oxygenated blood to the brain

• Focal necrosis of brain tissue
– Motor \_\_\_\_ 
– Speech impairment 
– \_\_\_\_
– Death
• \_\_\_\_ etiology 
• \_\_\_\_(80%)
– Mortality rate of approx. 8%
• \_\_\_\_(20%)
– Mortality rate of approx. 45%
A
dysfunction
paralysis
vascular
ischemia
hemorrhage
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2
Q

Epidemiology

• 3rd most common cause of death in the U.S.
• 700,000 new or recurrent strokes / year – 1 stroke / minute
• ____% of people survive their stroke / year
• ____ have a 38% greater risk of first stroke than Caucasians
– Risk of death is ____x greater than Caucasians
• Risk of stroke increases with ____
– 5% of the population over age 65 has had at least one stroke

A

75
AA
2-4
age

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3
Q

Ischemic Strokes
• Most commonly caused by: – ____ thrombi
– Emboli of ____ origin

• Extent of infarction determined by: 
– \_\_\_\_ of occlusion
– \_\_\_\_ of the occluded vessel
– \_\_\_\_ of the occlusion
– Presence of \_\_\_\_ circulation
A

atherosclerotic
cardiac

site
size
duration
collateral

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4
Q

As an example, the red circle on slide shows an area of clot at ____ cerebral artery (PCA). The change in color (purple) shows that later supply of PCA is cut off, causing an area of ischemia to this posterior part of brain, including ____ area (for speech production) as well as visual and tactile senses.

Part of the reason this clot area would be so devastating is because there is no ____ circulation here. So if we clot the only supply to that area, there will be NO blood supply or ability to get oxygen here, leading to loss of oxygen and loss of function over time.

A

posterior
broca’s
collateral

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5
Q

Types of ischemic stroke syndromes
- Large Vessel Stroke

• Thrombotic occlusion of a major vessel

• ____ artery
– Most common
• Vertebral artery
• Intracranial arteries

• Often results in extensive ____ damage

A

carotid

cerebral

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6
Q

ypes of ischemic stroke syndromes
- Small Vessel Stroke

  • AKA “____ stroke”
  • Refers to size (
A

lacunar
15
small
high

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7
Q

High Risk Conditions for Cardioembolism Development

  • ____ valve(s)
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • ____ stenosis with atrial fibrillation
  • Recent MI (
A

mechanical
mitral
4
cardiomyopathy

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8
Q

Intracerebral Hemorrhage
• Most common cause is ____
– Microaneurysms of the arterioles

• Rupture leads to:
– Extravasation of ____
– Displaces brain tissue
– Increased ____

This is MRI of brain showing intracerebral hemorrhage. It is ____ bc its liquid and it is filling the space that otherwise brain tissue would occupy.

A

hypertensive atherosclerosis
blood
intracranial volume
bright

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9
Q

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
• Rupture of a ____ aneurysm at the bifurcation of a major ____ artery or in the ____

This MRA angiogram shows aneurysm within major vessel with extravasated blood by too much pressure trying to get into division into smaller arterioles.
Too much pressure causes weakness in vessel wall and additional area (aneurysm). As increased pressure continues, unless there’s anything that allows it to go back to normal pressure, this can eventually rupture causing a ____.

A

berry
cerebral
circle of willis

hemorrhage

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10
Q

This shows a subarachnoid hemorrhage. We have more ____ between brain tissue and skull itself all filled with blood which is compressing the area that brain tissue can take up.

This in turn compresses the ability of brain tissue to function the way it should bc it has less room for all the neurons and microglia and other tissue.

This post-mortem specimen shows the aftereffects of displacement of brain tissue after hemorrhage. This is a localized one with increased amount of blood/blood products.
We can see how a brain is usually symmetrical becomes ____ from the extravasation and compression of brain tissue.

A

volume

asymmetrical

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11
Q

Neurologic phenomena associated with stroke

• Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
– “____”

• Temporary disturbance in blood supply to a localized area of the brain
– ____
– Weakness
– ____ / numbness

  • May last approximately ____ minutes
  • Major stroke is preceded by TIAs within several ____ of the first episode
A
stroke
hemiplegia
tingling
10
days
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12
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Acute Stroke

  • ____
  • Aphasia
  • ____ loss
  • Numbness
  • ____
  • Double Vision
  • ____
  • Incoordination
A

weakness
visual

vertigo
imbalance

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13
Q

In a stroke, ____ is brain tissue (MOST IMPORTANT TAKEAWAY FROM THIS LECTURE)

A

time

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14
Q

Acute Stroke Management

• Activate EMS
– \_\_\_\_ as indicated
• Transport to \_\_\_\_
• Administration of \_\_\_\_ within 4.5 hours of stroke
– Prevent further thrombosis
– Lyse existing thrombi or emboli
  • stabilize with ____ medications
    • Surgery
    • Rehabilitation
A

BLS/ALCS
hospital
IV tPA
anticoagulant

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15
Q
Laboratory Evaluation 
• Routine lab tests
• Lumbar puncture
– Check for \_\_\_\_ in CSF 
– Altered \_\_\_\_ pressure
• Imaging 
– \_\_\_\_
– MRI 
– \_\_\_\_
A

blood/protein
CSF
CT
MRA

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16
Q
Medical Management
• Prevention
• Modification of risk factors
– Screening for \_\_\_\_
• \_\_\_\_ agents
• \_\_\_\_ agents
A

co-morbidities
anticoagulant
antiplatelet

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17
Q

Prevention: Risk Factor Modification

• Non-Modifiable 
– \_\_\_\_
– Sex
– \_\_\_\_ 
– Heredity
• Modifiable
– \_\_\_\_
– Cardiac disease (AFib) 
– \_\_\_\_
– Hypercholesterolemia 
– \_\_\_\_ smoking
– Excessive alcohol
– \_\_\_\_ Inactivity
A

age
race-ethnicity

hypertension
diabetes
cigarette
physical

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18
Q

Prevention: Anti-thrombotics

• Consider risk of recurrent stroke and hemorrhage in acute setting

• Anticoagulation
– ____ stroke
– ____ states

• Antiplatelet agents
– ____ vessel disease
– ____ vessel disease

A

cardioembolic
hypercoagulable

large
small

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19
Q
Prevention: Anticoagulation
• Warfarin (Coumadin): \_\_\_\_ antagonist
 – Goal INR \_\_\_\_, dosage individualized 
– Reversible by \_\_\_\_
– Requires close \_\_\_\_
• Dabigatran (Pradaxa): direct \_\_\_\_ inhibitor 
• Apixaban (Eliquis): \_\_\_\_ inhibitor
• Rivaroxaban (Xarelto): \_\_\_\_ inhibitor
– No pharmacologic \_\_\_\_ agent available 
– Does not require \_\_\_\_
A

vitamin K
2.0 to 3.0
vitamin K
monitoring

thrombin
factor Xa
factor Xa
reversal
monitoring
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20
Q
Prevention: Antiplatelet agents
• \_\_\_\_
• Clopidogrel (Plavix)
• \_\_\_\_ (Ticlid)
• Dipyrimadole (Persantine)
• \_\_\_\_/Dipyramidole (Aggrenox)

• Enoxaparin (Lovenox) – LMWH

A

aspirin
ticlopidine
ASA

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21
Q

Prevention: surgical options
• Carotid endarterectomy
Physically go in and remove plaque from carotid artery
-usually at ____ of carotid artery bc its where blood flow splits up, so more plaque occurs here.
Plaque is removed physically and vessel is stitched up afterwards. Allow normal flow to the brain again. However, plaques can ____ bc although we’re removing what has been built up, we still need to change the ____ of the plaque (diet, physical activity, smoking etc)

• Carotid stenting
imilar goal of opening up area so blood can flow through. Physically place a ____ (medicational or physical) to compress the plaques that’s already been built up to restore a normal size for normal blood flow to happen again.

• Cardiac surgery for valve replacement

A

bifurcation
reform
cause

stent

22
Q
Dental Management
• Identification of Risk Factors – \_\_\_\_
– DM
– \_\_\_\_
– Cigarette smoking
– \_\_\_\_ / previous stroke
– Advancing age

• Neurology consult – if appropriate

A

hypertension
coronary atherosclerosis
TIA

23
Q

• Patients with a history of stroke
– Increased risk of having another ____
– First 6 months s/p event – ____ dental care only

• Patients with active TIAs
– ____ dental care only with proper monitoring

  • Monitoring of blood pressure
  • Judicious use of local anesthetic with ____
  • Physical limitations may require ____ of oral hygiene techniques
A
stroke
emergency
emergency
epinephrine
modifications
24
Q
Oral Considerations
• Loss of \_\_\_\_ of oral tissues
• Unilateral paralysis of oro-facial structures 
• Inability to manage oral \_\_\_\_
• Inability to maintain gag reflex
• Tongue \_\_\_\_
• Dysphagia
• \_\_\_\_ secondary to medications
A

sensation
secretions
hypermobility
xerostomia

25
Q

Periodontal disease and Stroke
• Multiple studies support association of chronic periodontal disease and ____ inflammation
• Positive association of poor dental health with increased incidence of cerebrovascular disease
– Benefit of dental prophylaxis to decrease risk of ____ stroke
• Possible result of etiologic factors common to both disease processes
– ____ smoking
• Further clinical trials needed to substantiate association

A

cardiovascular
ischemic
cigarette

26
Q

Occult vascular disease
• 71 patients were found to have ____ calcifications on routine panoramic films
• 23 (34%) reached an ____ - stroke, MI, or death
• Average time to reach an endpoint = ____years
• Dental implications:
• If carotid calcifications are seen on panoramic films, refer patient to ____ to
address vascular risk factors!

A

carotid
endpoint
2.7
physician

27
Q

Example of carotid calcifications on panoramic X-ray. Smaller on Right and Larger on Left. (WHERE ARROWS POINT) Correlation between how significant a calcification looks, could be more worried about ____ endpoint. But still not worth to tell patient they’re going to have stroke right away. But rather take them to appropriate care/monitoring by physician to monitor risk factors in carotid artery/buildup.

A

carotid

28
Q

Antiplatelet agents / Anticoagulants
• ____ and ____ agents are commonly used to prevent stroke in patients at risk
• Should anticoagulation be ____ prior to invasive dental procedures?

A

anticoagulants
antiplatelet
discontinued

29
Q

Anticoagulants Warfarin (Coumadin)

• INR of < 3.5–4.0
– Ok for ____ and non-invasive dental procedures – Manage with ____ hemostatic measures

• INR of > 4.0
– Consult physician for dosage ____ of medication prior to invasive
dental procedures

A

invasive
local
alteration

30
Q

Anticoagulants Warfarin (Coumadin)

  • drug interactions!

• ____, tetracycline, ____ all decrease coumadin metabolism
– Causes ____ INR, higher ____ risk
– Make sure patient arranges for close INR ____ when these medications are prescribed

A
erythromycin
metronidazole
higher
bleeding
monitoring
31
Q

Anticoagulants New Oral Anticoagulants
• No definitive guidelines for management of dental patients on these agents
• Consider stopping ____ hours prior to procedures where bleeding may be anticipated (as per manufacturer)
• Consult with physician as needed

A

24-48

32
Q

Antiplatelet Agents
• Antiplatelet agents have ____ bleeding risk than anticoagulants
• Antiplatelet agents should not be ____ prior to invasive dental treatment
– Single and dual therapy

A

lower

discontinued

33
Q

Risk of Infective Endocarditis
High-risk conditions associated with cardioembolic stroke:

Mitral stenosis or atrial fibrillation –> ____ heart valve

  • antibiotic prophylaxis
    • current AHA guidelines
A

mechanical

34
Q

Epilepsy

►Group of disorders characterized by chronic, recurrent, paroxysmal changes in \_\_\_\_ function caused by abnormal and spontaneous electrical activity in the \_\_\_\_
►Major manifestation of epilepsy is the occurrence of \_\_\_\_
►Seizures do not imply \_\_\_\_ 
– Stress
– \_\_\_\_ deprivation
– Fever
– \_\_\_\_ / Drug withdrawal 
– Syncope
A
neurologic
brain
seizures
epilepsy
sleep
alcohol
35
Q

► I. Partial (focal, local)
– ____ partial seizures
– ____ partial seizures
– Partial seizures evolving to secondarily ____ seizures

►II. Generalized (convulsive or non-convulsive) 
– \_\_\_\_ seizures (petit mal)
– \_\_\_\_ seizures
– \_\_\_\_ seizures (grand mal)
– \_\_\_\_ Seizures – Atonic Seizures

►III. ____ epileptic seizures

A

simple
complex
generalized

absence
myoclonic
tonic-clonic
atonic

unclassified

36
Q
Epidemiology
►10% of the population will have at least one \_\_\_\_ in a lifetime
►Most common in \_\_\_\_
– Between \_\_\_\_ years of age
– Peak incidence between \_\_\_\_ months
►Common in the elderly
– 130 / 100,000 per year
– Most commonly due to \_\_\_\_ disease
A
seizure
childhood
3 months and 5 years
18 and 24
cerebrovascular
37
Q

Etiology

►Head ____
►Intracranial neoplasm ►____ / Encephalitis ►Metabolic disturbances ►____ effects
►Idiopathic / Primary Epilepsy
– ____ cause
– Seizures may be evoked by specific stimuli

A

trauma
meningitis
drug
unknown

38
Q
Pathophysiology
►Excessive focal neuronal discharge that may spread to areas throughout the brain
– Altered neuronal membrane \_\_\_\_ 
– Altered synaptic \_\_\_\_
– Increased neuronal \_\_\_\_

►____ of brain lesion does not correlate with seizures

A

potentials
transmission
excitability
type

39
Q
► Tonic – clonic (grand mal) seizures 
► Aura
► “Epileptic cry”
► Tonic phase
– Muscle \_\_\_\_
– Pupil \_\_\_\_
– \_\_\_\_ movement
– Loss of \_\_\_\_
► Clonic phase
– \_\_\_\_ movements
► Post – ictal phase (post neuronal firing) 
– \_\_\_\_
– Confusion
– \_\_\_\_
► Status epilepticus
A

rigidity
dilation
eye
consciousness

uncoordinated
headache
sleep

40
Q
►Absence (petit mal)
– \_\_\_\_ of unconsciousness
– No loss of \_\_\_\_
– \_\_\_\_ twitching
– “\_\_\_\_ dreaming”
– Can resume \_\_\_\_ activity
A
seconds
body tone
facial
day
normal
41
Q

Laboratory Findings

► Diagnosis
► History of seizures
► Blood tests 
– \_\_\_\_
– Electrolytes
– \_\_\_\_
► Electroencephalogram (EEG)
– Abnormal electrical activity
►\_\_\_\_ patterns
►\_\_\_\_

►CT
– Intracranial ____
– Skull ____

►MRI
– ____ malformations
– Tumors
– Acquired ____ damage

A

CBC
glucose

spike and wave
interictal epileptiform discharges (IEDs)

calcification
fractures
vascular
cortical

42
Q

Seizure Activity on EEG

Goes from normal amplification to more ____ and more common when seizure begins

A

amplified

43
Q
Medical Management
 ►Drug therapy
– \_\_\_\_ risk patients
►Goal
– Single drug with minimal side effects
►Discontinue medications after seizure-free interval of at least \_\_\_\_ years 
►Up to \_\_\_\_ % of patients achieve complete control
– Drug compliance
– Adverse effects / toxicity
A

high
2
80

44
Q
►Classic Drugs
►\_\_\_\_ 
►Phenytoin 
►\_\_\_\_ 
►Phenobarbital
►Recent Drugs
►\_\_\_\_ 
►Lamotrigine 
►\_\_\_\_ 
►Topirimate
A

carbamazepine
valproic acid

gabapentin
oxcarbazepine

45
Q

Take a look at the drug therapy table!

A

yes!

46
Q

Side effects of these seizure meds can be ____, redness of lips. This can also have a similar clinical look if there is an ____ to medications.
Look if they get this shortly after starting a new seizure med

A

erythema multiforme

allergy

47
Q

Other treatment modalities . . . ►20% of patients are ____ to drugs
►Surgery
– Removal of the ____ and amygdala, temporal lobectomy, or
hemisperectomy
►Vagus nerve stimulation
– Increases seizure ____

A

resistant
hippocampus
threshold

48
Q

Dental / Oral Conditions in Seizure Patients
►____ rate of dental and facial trauma compared to general population
►____ oral health and dental status compared to age-matched healthy subjects
►____
►Glossitis
►Mucosal ____

A

higher
poor
stomatitis
ulcerations

49
Q

Oral conditions associated with seizure medications

ØGingival overgrowth
– Rinses
►____
►____

►Surgical excision
– ____
– ____

A

chlorhexidine
folic acid

scalpel
laser

50
Q
►Xerostomia
– Topical \_\_\_\_
– Systemic agents
– Topical \_\_\_\_
– Monitor for candidiasis
A

moisturizers

fluoride

51
Q
Dental Management
►Pre-treatment evaluation 
– \_\_\_\_ history
– Seizure history
– \_\_\_\_ history
– Laboratory evaluation – if indicated 
– Medication levels – if indicated
– Neurology consultation – if indicated
A

medical

medication

52
Q
►Treatment management
►Consideration of venue
– Dental office
– Hospital outpatient dental facility 
– Operating room
►Modifications
– Mouth prop with \_\_\_\_ system 
– \_\_\_\_ agents
►Electrical equipment and VNS 
– Avoid with \_\_\_\_ 1
A

retrieval
hemostatic

diathermy