6 Flashcards

1
Q

When checking Lower Extremities for Paralysis; Paramedics should ask the patient to

A

Wiggle their Toes

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2
Q

When doing a halo test; what are you looking for

A

CSF

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3
Q

When moving a patient by the Four Man Log Roll; the First step of the paramedic should be to

A

Stabilize C – Spine

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4
Q

When Palpating the Abdomen

A

Palpate Quadrant that Hurts Last

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5
Q

When starting a tourniquet; it is applied so

A

It occludes Venous return but allows arterial flow

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6
Q

When Triaging; the highest priority is

A

Sucking chest wound

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7
Q

When using a chair to carry the patient down the stairs; you must first

A

Test the chair to make sure it is strong

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8
Q

When ventilating a patient with a head injury; the ventilation rate should be

A

20 - 24 BPM

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9
Q

Which Drowning causes Hemodilution

A

Fresh Water

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10
Q

Which is Not a normal emotion for a patient at a MCI

A

Paranoia

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11
Q

Which of the following is the responsibility of the paramedic when Triaging MCI

A

Prioritizing Casualties

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12
Q

Which of the following would you expect Fattened Neck Veins

A

Hypovolemia

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13
Q

Which one of the following is the Responsibility of the Paramedic when Triaging Mass Casualty

A

Prioritizing Casualties

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14
Q

Which soft tissue injury causes the most bleeding

A

Avulsion

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15
Q

Which would you treat last

A

Spinal; Arterial hemorrhaging; Airway Obstruction; Sucking Chest Wound?

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16
Q

While on site of a plane crash with multiple casualties; the person that would Not receive a high priority is the person in

A

Cardiac Arrest

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17
Q

Who would be the one in charge of a medical MCI scene

A

Incident Commander

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18
Q

Why does spinal injury cause No Diaphoresis

A

Because it lost its stimulation of sympathetic

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19
Q

Worst critical patient at MCI

A

Amnesia; Crying; LOC

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20
Q

You find clear fluid coming out of patients ears; you suspect

A

Basilar Fracture

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21
Q

You have a patient with head trauma and signs of shock

A

You look elsewhere; Shock is Not due to head trauma

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22
Q

You have arrived on the scene of a building collapse involving at least 30 patients. One patient in cardiac arrest. The first paramedic on the scene should classify the patient as

A

Lowest Priority

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23
Q

You should Palpating the Abdomen

A

Area that hurts goes last

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24
Q

Your index of suspicion is based on mechanism of injury in regards to what

A

Extent of patient injuries

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25
Q

Your Job in Triage

A

To Prioritize patients

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26
Q

Re-entry may cause premature beats or Tachydysrhythmias

A

(PACs)

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27
Q

CHF

A

left ventricle damage

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28
Q

Drug that is a positive inotrope

A

increases the force of cardiac contractions; contractility

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29
Q

Maternal blood volume increases

A

0.4

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30
Q

On-line radio contact between medic and medical control DOC

A

direct medical control

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31
Q

Major complication of thrombolytic therapy

A

bleeding out

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32
Q

Pulmonary ventilation to remove excess CO2

A

normal balance

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33
Q

Hemoglobin

A

iron containing compound; transport O2

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34
Q

Civil wrong

A

tort

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35
Q

Epidural hematoma

A

LOC; regains consciousness then fades away towards AMS

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36
Q

Drugs go through a

A

mini-drip set

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37
Q

Syncope is associated with

A

heart blocks

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38
Q

P waves get wider until QRS drops

A

Mobitz II; wenkebach

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39
Q

GCS

A

eye opening4; verbal response5; motor response

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40
Q

Palpate ABD quadrant with

A

pain; injury last

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41
Q

Clear fluids from nose

A

poss. basilar skull fracture

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42
Q

Anaerobic

A

lactic acid

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43
Q

Chemical mediator for parasympathetic

A

acetylcholine

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44
Q

Near drowning

A

manage hypoxia/acidosis

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45
Q

Eyes don’t move in unison

A

dysconjugate gaze

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46
Q

Increased ICP

A

decreasesed pulse; increasesed BP; decreasesed respirations; Cushing’s reflex

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47
Q

Prolonged P-R interval

A

1st degree block

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48
Q

Reciprocity

A

agency recognizes certification/comparable standards from another agency

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49
Q

Burn victims lose

A

plasma; fluid

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50
Q

Adrenal glands secrete

A

EPI and NorEpi

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51
Q

Visceral pleura covers

A

the lungs

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52
Q

Acetycholine and oxytocin are secreted by the

A

pituitary gland

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53
Q

Elavil and Tofranil are two common

A

tricyclic antidepressants

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54
Q

Duplex system

A

simultaneous transmission and reception

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55
Q

Encourage coughing with a

A

partial airway obstruction in adults

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56
Q

Abruptio placenta

A

premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall

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57
Q

Cerebrum controls

A

Thought; personality; speech; motor control; learning; posture; memory

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58
Q

Glucagon releases/breaks down glycogen from the

A

liver

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59
Q

Droplets spread

A

measles; mumps; chicken pox

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60
Q

Excretory function of the blood is to remove

A

waste; lactic acid; from the cells

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61
Q

Pull EOA out when

A

the ET is in placed with the cuff inflated

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62
Q

Decerebrate posturing

A

extended extremities

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63
Q

Blood loss replacement

A

3 times the volume lost

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64
Q

Half-life

A

time it takes for half of a radioactive substance to lose its radioactivity

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65
Q

PaCO2 regulates

A

respiration (Partial pressure of CO2 in the blood)

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66
Q

Spontaneous pneumothorax S/S

A

sudden pain of short duration and SOB

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67
Q

Concussion

A

brief LOC followed by complete return of function

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68
Q

Do not stop bleeding from ears/nose due to head injury

A

because the bleeding relieves pressure

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69
Q

MVC patient with HR 120; BP 40 palp

A

hypovolemic shock

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70
Q

Frequent urination is NOT a sign of

A

kidney stones (UTI sign)

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71
Q

Deep regular respirations are NOT a sign of

A

shock

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72
Q

If you lose 300 mL of blood replace with

A

900mL or ringers

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73
Q

Abdominal muscle flexion on palp

A

guarding

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74
Q

IV complications

A

phlebitis and emboli

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75
Q

Contraindications for Verapamil

A

PE; Cardiogenic shock

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76
Q

Homeostasis

A

body’s tendency to stay constant

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77
Q

For an adult having an asthma attack the treatment is to

A

stop bronchial spasms

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78
Q

On-line DOC in charge unless on-scene DOC agrees to

A

accompany the patient

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79
Q

Seizure patient is a priority if

A

they do not respond between seizures

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80
Q

Adenosine is used for

A

PSVT

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81
Q

Durable power of attorney

A

someone else can make decisions for you

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82
Q

Patient in PE; IV started next you administer

A

0.4mg of nitroglycerine

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83
Q

Asthma is NOT a contraindication for

A

Verapamil

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84
Q

MCI first to go

A

thirsty and anxious

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85
Q

MCI last to go

A

spinal injury

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86
Q

Ascites

A

fluid in the abdomen

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87
Q

The Good Samaritan Law protects the

A

Paramedic off-duty

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88
Q

Responsibility of a paramedic is the

A

Duty to Act

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89
Q

Intent NOT required to prove

A

negligence

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90
Q

Elements of negligence

A

duty; breech; cause; and damage

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91
Q

Pulse is the quickest way to check

A

circulation

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92
Q

Kussmauls respirations

A

rapid deep gasping breathing associated with DKA

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93
Q

Battle’s signs

A

Ecchymosis over the mastoid process

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94
Q

Cerebral hypoxia SX

A

bilateral dilated pupils

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95
Q

Central venous pressure

A

right arterial pressure

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96
Q

Baby delivers in a “bag of water”

A

puncture the bag with your fingers and uncover the baby’s face

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97
Q

Fluid bolus for a neonate

A

10-20mL per kg

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98
Q

COPD patient with hypoxia drive’s breathing is triggered by

A

decreasing O2 in the blood

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99
Q

2nd stage of labor begins with

A

the dilation of the cervix and ends with delivery of the fetus

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100
Q

Immobilize a shoulder injury with

A

a sling and swath

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101
Q

Patient left unattended at the ER to respond to another call

A

abandonment

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102
Q

Emphysema SX

A

pink puffer

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103
Q

AAA treatment

A

2 big IV’s

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104
Q

Disadvantages of thrombolytic therapy

A

cost and uncontrollable bleeding

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105
Q

Flattened neck veins

A

possible hypovolemia

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106
Q

MVC; airbag did not deploy

A

disconnect battery cables

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107
Q

Patient with rales; SOB; no pedal edema

A

pulmonary edema

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108
Q

Hypercarbia

A

increasesed CO2 in the blood

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109
Q

Carotid artery perfuses

A

the head

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110
Q

Nasal Cannula delivers

A

28% O2

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111
Q

BP decreases during

A

pregnancy

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112
Q

C1 vertebrae is known as

A

the atlas

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113
Q

The upper area of the uterus is the

A

fundus

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114
Q

Where to cut the cord

A

8 inches from navel; then 2 inches

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115
Q

Anaerobic metabolism is caused by

A

lack of O2

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116
Q

Heat cramps SX

A

cramps; hot; sweaty; normal BP; tachy

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117
Q

Heat exhaustion SX

A

cool; clammy; nausea; vomiting; orthostatic BP

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118
Q

Heat stroke SX

A

dry skin; syncope; weak pulse; hypotension

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119
Q

Patient is tachy and talking fast suspect

A

amphetamines

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120
Q

Pink puffers

A

emphysema

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121
Q

Blue bloaters

A

Chronic bronchitis

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122
Q

Both pink puffer and blue bloaters

A

COPD

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123
Q

ASA overdose SX

A

tinnitus; headache; hyperventilation; agitation; confusion; lethargy; diarrhea; sweating

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124
Q

Boy held dry ice for 5 minutes; treatment

A

immerse in warm water (100-105)

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125
Q

Medic gives med’s per who’s orders

A

written protocols or on-line direction

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126
Q

The incident commander is in charge of

A

an MCI

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127
Q

Index of suspicion is based on

A

mechanism of injury (MOI) in relation to the extent of patient injuries

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128
Q

Adult male sitting at a 45 degree angle with distended neck veins

A

possible right heart failure

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129
Q

Beta 2 stimulation

A

increased respirations/Bronchodilation

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130
Q

The glottic opening is the narrowest part of the

A

adult airway

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131
Q

Ventilate a head injury

A

20-24 times a minute

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132
Q

Grava

A

number of pregnancies

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133
Q

Para

A

number of births

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134
Q

EPI does not increase

A

myocardial O2 demand

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135
Q

Amenorrhea (absent of menstruation) is an early sign of

A

pregnancy

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136
Q

Atropine can cause

A

blurred vision

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137
Q

Tendons connect

A

muscle to bone

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138
Q

Dialysis is the removal of

A

toxins through a semi-permeable membrane

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139
Q

Hemotoxin

A

toxin in the blood

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140
Q

White pallor to skin color

A

peripheral vascular constriction

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141
Q

Atelectasis

A

collapse of alveoli

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142
Q

Adenosine slows conduction where

A

in the AV node

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143
Q

Wide bizarre QRS in monitor

A

V-Tach

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144
Q

Saltwater drowning can cause

A

PE and CO2 retention

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145
Q

Sympathetic stimulation

A

vasoconstriction and increased HR

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146
Q

Effusion

A

the escape of fluids into a cavity

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147
Q

DT’s time frame is

A

24-48 hours

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148
Q

Bicarb is the body’s

A

principle buffer

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149
Q

Death generally occurs

A

1 hour after MI (maybe 2-3)

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150
Q

OSHA regulates

A

disease control

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151
Q

In PED’s start the assessment from

A

Toe to Head

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152
Q

PH above 7.45

A

alkalosis

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153
Q

The most common type of rural MVC is

A

frontal

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154
Q

The alveoli are kept open by

A

surfactant

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155
Q

Toxemia of pregnancy treatment

A

Mag sulfate

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156
Q

Transport of a scuba diver

A

in the left lateral recumbent position

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157
Q

Restrain a patient prone

A

one arm overhead; one by the side and ankles together

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158
Q

Braxton-hicks or false labor cannot be determine where

A

in the field

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159
Q

TB SX

A

weakness; night sweats; fever; rapid weight loss; cough w/blood

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160
Q

To check for paralysis ask patient to

A

wiggle toes

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161
Q

Karposi’s sarcoma

A

purplish/blue lesions associated with HIV

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162
Q

The triage nurse is responsible for

A

sorting patients in the ER

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163
Q

Psychotic patients are not in touch with

A

reality

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164
Q

NPA inserted rapidly

A

bypasses tongue; used with gag reflex NOT with basilar skull FX

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165
Q

If a medic affected by an MCI

A

assign him a different single simple task

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166
Q

Decon patients in the

A

warm zone

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167
Q

Delivery imminent if

A

contractions are 1-2 mins apart

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168
Q

Primapara

A

1st delivered child

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169
Q

Ectopic pregnancy

A

implantation of a fertilized ovum outside the uterus. SX…….shoulder pain

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170
Q

Placenta previa

A

attachment of the placenta low in the uterus so it covers the internal cervical opening

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171
Q

Mania is a mood characterized by

A

great excitement/activity

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172
Q

Subluxation

A

dislocation of a joint

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173
Q

Cerebellum

A

motor control; balance; coordination

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174
Q

Medulla oblongata

A

pulse rate; respiration; BP

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175
Q

Narcan reverses the respiratory depression of

A

darvon

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176
Q

Arm muscle for IM injection

A

deltoid

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177
Q

Head injury with left pupil dilated; right pupil slow to respond to light

A

neuro crisis

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178
Q

Use the jaw thrust to open the airway of a

A

trauma/C-Spine patient

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179
Q

Epiglotitis SX

A

rapid onset; no bark; drooling; painful swallow; high grade fever; bacterial

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180
Q

Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis) SX

A

slow onset; barking cough; low fever; viral

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181
Q

Newborn treatment

A

position; suction; stimulation (Do What Seems Sensible—Dry; Warm; Suction; Stimulate)

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182
Q

Gel for paddles

A

decrease resistance

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183
Q

Babies double birth weight in

A

6 months

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184
Q

SIDS most prevalent from

A

1-12 months

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185
Q

Gestational diabetes

A

diabetic problems during pregnancy

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186
Q

Antepartum

A

prior to delivery

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187
Q

Diffusion

A

substance from high to low

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188
Q

Osmosis

A

fluid from low to high

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189
Q

SQ injection goes into the

A

fatty tissue

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190
Q

Flail chest

A

free movement of a segment of ribs

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191
Q

SX respiratory distress

A

nasal flaring; tracheal tugging

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192
Q

Contrecoup injury occurs

A

opposite the side of impact

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193
Q

Parenteral route of med administration

A

SQ; IM; IV; IO; ET

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194
Q

A thrombus from deep in the leg veins could migrate to the

A

lungs. DVT; P embolus

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195
Q

Diving air embolism SX

A

joint pain; tingling in the legs; abdominal pain

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196
Q

Organophosphate poisoning SX

A

SLUDGEM

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197
Q

Occipital lobe controls

A

vision

198
Q

Ped c/o headache; stiff neck; vomiting

A

meningitis

199
Q

T4 injury

A

paralysis below the nipple line

200
Q

T10 injury

A

paralysis below the umbilical line

201
Q

Increasing drugs to achieve desired effect

A

titrated

202
Q

Unable to Defib because you forgot to replace the battery

A

negligence

203
Q

Primagravida

A

1st pregnancy

204
Q

Chloecystitis SX

A

upper quadrant pain after eating fatty foods

205
Q

Mid-asthma treatment

A

Albuterol 2.5mg

206
Q

Eye injury treatment

A

cover both eyes

207
Q

Over hydrating due to IV therapy complication

A

pulmonary edema

208
Q

AIDS primary transmission

A

sexual contact

209
Q

Red dangerous placard

A

over 5000lbs. HAZMAT

210
Q

JVD is SX of

A

tension pneumo; right heart failure; cardiac tamponade

211
Q

Hypovolemic shock prehospital treatment

A

2000-3000mL fluid

212
Q

Federal food drug and cosmetic act

A

ensures safe manufacture of drugs

213
Q

Band

A

group of similar frequencies

214
Q

Intrinsic ventricular rate

A

20-40 BPM

215
Q

Intrinsic Junctional rate

A

40-60 BPM

216
Q

Intrinsic AV node rate

A

60-100 BPM

217
Q

EPI stimulates the heart in

A

asystole

218
Q

CHF treatment

A

decrease preload; decrease workload

219
Q

EGTA

A

esophageal gastric tube airway

220
Q

Rye syndrome

A

unexplained viral illness in children

221
Q

NorEpi causes

A

vasoconstriction

222
Q

Liver produces

A

bile

223
Q

Bile stored in the

A

gallbladder

224
Q

To give fluids to a neonate use the

A

umbilical vein

225
Q

START system

A

Resp.; Pulse; Motor/mental function

226
Q

BVM complications

A

distended abdomen; pushes diaphragm; causes vomiting

227
Q

Start compressions on an infant if

A

HR<60 BPM

228
Q

Ventilate infant if

A

HR<100 BPM

229
Q

Prior to birth

A

prenatal; Antepartum

230
Q

Shingles is not

A

contagious

231
Q

Pulse oximetry measures O2 sat in

A

Peripheral tissues

232
Q

The urge to push is a sign of

A

imminent delivery

233
Q

Penetrating wound to the abdomen treatment

A

wet; sterile; occlusive dressing

234
Q

There is no such thing as a

A

slow code

235
Q

Causes of dehydration in a child

A

vomiting; diarrhea; fever; burns

236
Q

Rescue breathing pushes

A

the diaphragm; increases ventricular rate

237
Q

SQ EPI…

A

0.3-0.5mg 1:1000

238
Q

Delusions

A

false beliefs

239
Q

SX of hyperglycemia

A

polyphagia; Polyuria; polydipsia

240
Q

Morphine is a

A

vasodilator

241
Q

Common ped long bone FX

A

greenstick

242
Q

Endocrine system acts by releasing hormones into the

A

bloodstream

243
Q

Decreased HR is NOT a sign of

A

dehydration

244
Q

Verapamil AKA

A

Calan; Isoptin

245
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant OD treatment

A

Sodium Bicarb

246
Q

American with disabilities act protects those with

A

communicable disease

247
Q

The master endocrine gland is the

A

pituitary gland

248
Q

Valium routes

A

rectal; IV; IM

249
Q

Earliest detectable sign of shock

A

tachycardia

250
Q

Cardiac output

A

blood pumped in one minute

251
Q

Increased then decreased Resp followed by apnea

A

Cheyne-Stokes

252
Q

Complication of knee or elbow DX

A

loss of distal circulation

253
Q

Place for decompression

A

2nd and 3rd intercostals Midclavicular; or 4th or 5th intercostals Midaxillary

254
Q

Sellick maneuver

A

pressure on the cricoid cartilage

255
Q

Lung compliance

A

stiffness or elasticity

256
Q

Patient taking valium required a larger dose

A

tolerance

257
Q

Severed C4

A

total paralysis and respiratory paralysis

258
Q

Reasonable confinement is NOT

A

elderly abuse

259
Q

Size of ET tube for an infant

A

size of little finger

260
Q

Routes of med administration from slowest to fastest

A

PO; SQ; IM; ET; IV

261
Q

Spontaneous abortion SX

A

bright red blood and cramping in first trimester

262
Q

Wernicke’s syndrome

A

chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency

263
Q

Hep A is an

A

oral/fecal disease

264
Q

1000 grams in a kilogram

A

???

265
Q

Bronchoconstriction is NOT a

A

beta effect

266
Q

Use the talk down method on an

A

LSD PT

267
Q

For CP after O2 morphine gives

A

the most pain relief

268
Q

Aminophylline dose…

A

5-6mg/kg

269
Q

Ped w/flu; not acting right; nausea; vomiting

A

possible Reye’s syndrome

270
Q

Wide QRS with no P waves

A

idioventricular

271
Q

EOA removal can cause

A

vomiting

272
Q

Most critical PT at an MCI

A

amnesia; crying; AMS

273
Q

Cribbing

A

is used to stabilize things

274
Q

Before administrating D50

A

check glucose; consider thiamine

275
Q

Piece of glass stuck in the neck TX

A

stabilize glass and transport

276
Q

Routes for EPI

A

IV; ET; SQ

277
Q

In a ambulance crash the court will try and prove

A

lack of due regard for the ambulance driver

278
Q

Chest compression for a child

A

1-1 ½ inches

279
Q

6 y/o w/unilateral wheezes

A

FBAO

280
Q

Gave birth 24 hours ago; sudden dyspnea and chest pain

A

pulmonary embolism

281
Q

A repeater

A

retransmits

282
Q

A simplex system cannot transmit and receive

A

at the same time

283
Q

20 y/o cardiac arrest at an MCI

A

continue triage

284
Q

Chief extracellular cation

A

sodium

285
Q

Chief intracellular cation

A

.potassium

286
Q

IO placement

A

tibial tuberosity; anterior tibia

287
Q

Liable

A

writing something derogatory

288
Q

No DNR

A

.start CPR

289
Q

Percentage of RBC in blood

A

Hematocrit

290
Q

PED Defib at

A

1 joule/kg

291
Q

Cardiac tamponade SX

A

JVD; narrowing pulse pressure; clear lung sounds

292
Q

The stylet

A

makes intubation easier

293
Q

ECG over the radio

A

biotelemetry

294
Q

Most unstable rhythms start in the

A

ventricles

295
Q

3 systems that regulate acid-base balance

A

buffer; respiratory; renal

296
Q

No SQ in

A

hypovolemic shock

297
Q

Tricyclic OD SX

A

anticholinergic; coma; seizure; tachy

298
Q

Atropine is not used for

A

sinus tachycardia; pulse 120

299
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the START triage system

A

pupil size

300
Q

You have been called to the scene of a GSW and you are told by dispatch that the patient has been shot twice in the chest. Your first concern will be

A

scene safety

301
Q

Select the correct order for assessing a patient after scene size up

A

initial assessment; focused assessment; complete assessment; ongoing assessment

302
Q

You and your partner; an EMT; have been called to the scene of a head-on collision on a rural road. There are five patients listed below. Prioritize the five PT’s

A

33 y/o w/snoring resp.; 29 y/o w/a sucking chest wound; 16 y/o diabetic who is tachy and confused; 55 y/o w/compound femur FX; 2 y/o w/no pulse or resp.

303
Q

What is the Pedi dose of SQ EPI for asthma

A

0.01 mg/kg

304
Q

You are treating a 3 y/o asthma PT. The PT weighs 33 lbs. Calculate the SQ EPI dose using the recommended 0.01 mg/kg

A

0.15 mg (notice this question answered question 2813…look out for those questions on the TEST.)

305
Q

Your PT has suffered a head injury; which of the below signs would indicate increased ICP

A

decreased pulse; increased B/P

306
Q

Which of the following most correctly identifies the signs and symptoms of Hemorrhagic shock

A

N/V; pupils dilates; pale

307
Q

Emergency Medical Service Act

A

Chapter 401

308
Q

Rules and regulations of the State EMS

A

64J-2

309
Q

If a patient loose blood what do they need

A

BLOOD (if not an answer then Colloid-pre-hospital setting crystalloid)

310
Q

Mitochondria

A

energy source of cell

311
Q

Homeostasis

A

maintain internal balance; equilibrium

312
Q

Metabolic acidosis

A

cardiac or resp. arrest; DKA; aspirin overdose; try increased ventilation with O2 and if not resolved; use Bicarb; treat the underlying cause

313
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

too much Bicarb; let it wear off; treat the underlying cause

314
Q

You have a 15gtts/ml drip set; you must infuse medication for ONE HOUR; and you are running it at 45gtts/min

A

180cc

315
Q

Orthostatic hypotension can be taken

A

supine and seating or seating and standing up

316
Q

A pt suffering from orthostatic hypotension will best benefit from

A

put them in sitting position

317
Q

Pt in a MVA with soft tissue injury; and excessive pain in the LUQ; what injury you expect and how you treat it

A

spleen injury; hold cervical spine; put an IV etc…

318
Q

Pt with Unilateral wheezing; most probable condition

A

F.B.A.O.

319
Q

Which is a sign of UNCOMPENSTATED shock

A

?decreased BP

320
Q

Which one is a contraindication of a nasal gastric tube

A

basilar skull FX

321
Q

Complications of nasal gastric tube

A

it makes intubations more difficult

322
Q

In a MVA there is a MULTITRAUMA pt; what is the FIRST thing to control

A

HEMORRHAGE (other choices: airway)

323
Q

PPE is the same as

A

BSI or Assumption that all blood and other body fluids are infectious. ??? tricky

324
Q

Man was cleaning the bathroom with bleach and fainted; a co-worker pulled him out and upon arrival you notice the man has RALES. What is his condition

A

Pulmonary Edema

325
Q

S/S of HYPERglycemia

A

deep; rapid; gasping respirations associated with Ketoacidosis.

326
Q

High pitch MUSICAL sound heard on Expiration due to bronco-constriction from mucus plugging

A

wheezing

327
Q

Harsh; high pitch sound heard on inspiration that indicate partial airway obstruction

A

stridor

328
Q

Burn pt with anterior chest and abdomen; and one whole arm

A

0.27

329
Q

Burn pt with anterior chest and abdomen; and both arms

A

0.36

330
Q

Pediatric with broncholitis; do all except

A

DO NOT Lay Supine

331
Q

What is the LOWEST APGAR score

A

0 (highest 10)

332
Q

All ambulance in a MCI should report to the

A

command post

333
Q

Put 1gm in 250cc of D5W; how much do you give

A

4mg/ml

334
Q

The EOA (combitube) causes

A

vomiting

335
Q

What happens in the 3rd trimester

A

?Decreased BP

336
Q

Occipital part of the brain controls

A

vision

337
Q

You expect to see FLAT NECK veins on what

A

hypovolemia

338
Q

When you see CLEAR FLUIDS coming out from nose and mouth; you expect

A

basilar skull FX

339
Q

Transporting a pregnant pt in 3rd trimester

A

LEFT lateral recumbent supine 10-15°

340
Q

PT in a pool hall has a Right Orbital Eye injury; what do you do

A

cover both eye

341
Q

21 y/o wheezing and asthma; you give

A

Albuterol 2.5mg via nebulizer

342
Q

What is the best med for hypotensive pt

A

give Dopamine 5mcg/kg/min or Dobutamine 2-20mcg/kg/min

343
Q

Rapid cooling for heat stroke pt to prevent

A

irreversible brain damage

344
Q

Diabetic Ketoacidosis S/S

A

?HYPERglycemia; dizziness; HOT and DRY skin

345
Q

Compensated shock (1st Tachycardia; Increased pulse; cool; clammy; anxious)

A

?Increased blood and ?Decreased Peripheral Perfusion

346
Q

Decompensated shock (begins with decreased BP; unpalpable pulse; resp slows; lethargic)

A

Falling BP; thirst; decreased LOC

347
Q

Epinephrine causes

A

?increased BP; palpitation; tachycardia

348
Q

Pt in a MVA has a lacerated scalp and low BP; what should you do

A

Lactated Ringers IV WIDE OPEN

349
Q

Replacement prehospital fluid for bleeding

A

Ringers Lactated

350
Q

Enlarged liver; distended neck veins and PE

A

heart failure

351
Q

Treatment for COPD PT is

A

nasal cannula or venture

352
Q

Pregnant women say she has only one kid; and two miscarriages

A

Gravida 4; Para 1; Abortions 2

353
Q

Laryngotracheobronchitis presents with

A

stridor

354
Q

Pt with Dyspnea; Urticaria; Tachypnea; BP 80/60 has

A

Anaphylactic Shock

355
Q

Pediatric with SPo2 78%; breathing 40bpm you should

A

assist ventilation

356
Q

Pt with chest pain; P-72 10 mins later Pulse decreases to 38. If stroke volume DOESN’T change

A

cardiac output DECREASES

357
Q

Narcan for what type of OD

A

Opioids (EXCEPT: VALIUM)

358
Q

In S.T.A.R.T. system a PT breathing 40bpm

A

critical PT

359
Q

Which one is true about Coral Snake

A

Neurotoxin “Black; Yellow; Red” (other INCORRECT choices: black; white; red)

360
Q

Blood that lacks in oxygen

A

hypoxemia

361
Q

ICP S/S

A

?Increase BP; ?Decrease pulse

362
Q

6 P’s for Musculoskeletal test

A

the answer is PRESSURE

363
Q

Spinal Injury to C4

A

Quadriplegic and pt wont breath on his own (C3; C4; C5 keep the diaphragm ALIVE!)

364
Q

Injury to the Xiphoid Process; what region of spinal cord will it affect

A

Thoracic or Lumbar

365
Q

Routes from SLOWEST to FASTEST

A

PO; SQ; IM; ET; IV

366
Q

What is true about HIV pt

A

they appear NORMAL; can’t tell

367
Q

Measles; Mumps; Rubella are spread by

A

airborne droplets

368
Q

Which one is part of the narrative PCR

A

S.O.A.P. (other choices SAMPLE; OPQRST)

369
Q

When intubating you hear absent lung sounds on the left due to

A

RIGHT Mainstem Bronchus

370
Q

IV complications EXCEPT

A

slow infusion on site (other choices pain on site; air embolism)

371
Q

Pt in am MVA has a head injury; BP 80/60; Pulse 132; you suspect

A

HYPOvolemia

372
Q

Pt has scalp wound; BP 80/50; Pulse 120 the best IV choice is

A

LR Wide Open

373
Q

Pt has back tearing pain; has upper pulse and NO pedal pulse

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

374
Q

Writing malicious in the PCR

A

Libel

375
Q

Which one is NOT a sign of stroke

A

HYPOTENSION (correct choices: headache; aphasia; facial drooping)

376
Q

Fibrinolytic Therapy time frame

A

3 Hours

377
Q

Upper part of the uterus

A

fondus

378
Q

Guy went on vacation; and was diving

A

BLS Question

379
Q

In burn PT

A

there is fluid shift into the interstitial SPACE

380
Q

False statement referring to burn PT

A

there is INSIGNIFICANT damage to underlying tissue

381
Q

Absent P wave in lead ll means

A

SA node is not the pacemaker

382
Q

Heat stroke PT will have

A

temp 104°; HOT and DRY skin

383
Q

Signs of kidney stones EXCEPT

A

frequent urination (Polyuria)

384
Q

Child playing with ice for more than 5 minutes; what should you do

A

Immerse in warm water 100-105°

385
Q

The paramedic communicates all of the information to the doctor EXCEPT

A

Pt name and insurance policy

386
Q

To make changes in the PCR

A

draw a single line and Initial and make a notation at the end of report

387
Q

Pt was exposed to radiation once the PT is decontaminate; PT will have

A

Little or NO threat to paramedics

388
Q

Pt has angulated leg; LOW BP; high pulse; cool and clammy; you suspect

A

HYPOvolemia

389
Q

Starting an IV and interpreting ECG means you are using

A

Standing Orders

390
Q

Traumatic Asphyxia PT give

A

Sodium Bicarb 1 Meq/kg

391
Q

Pt MVA air hunger; confusion; JVD; ?pulse; ?BP (narrow); muffled heart sounds; may be suffering from

A

Pericardial Tamponade

392
Q

Heart cells that conduct electrical activity causing depolarization and contraction

A

Automaticity

393
Q

Glucagon

A

releases glycogen from the liver

394
Q

The spleen is located

A

LUQ

395
Q

All happens during the aging process EXCEPT

A

increase thirst

396
Q

Abdominal pain patients present in what position

A

FETAL

397
Q

What is a sign on organophosphate poisoning

A

abdominal cramping (GI disorders)

398
Q

Male at the gym feels an explosive HEADACH

A

.subarachnoid Aneurysm

399
Q

Kidneys relay on perfusion of what

A

Systolic BP

400
Q

In spinal injury it causes no diaphoresis below the level of injury because

A

loss of stimulation of sympathetic

401
Q

Catecholamines cause

A

cause ?increase vasoconstriction; ?increase heart rate

402
Q

Head trauma with signs of shock

A

shock is rare to see in head trauma alone

403
Q

Largest percentage of injury for 75 y/o PT and over

A

FALLS

404
Q

Traumatic Asphyxia occurs from what type of injury

A

CRUSH

405
Q

Apply Sellick Maneuver by

A

gentle pressure on the cricoid cartilage

406
Q

JVD are best observed by

A

SEMI Fowlers 45°

407
Q

What is correct about nasogastric tube on intubation

A

CANNOT get a good face seal

408
Q

Pulmonary Embolism

A

sudden chest pain and dyspnea

409
Q

The difference between Systolic and Diastolic is

A

Pulse Pressure

410
Q

What does QRS means on an ECG

A

Ventricular Depolarization

411
Q

You attempt to intubate FOUR times and was unsuccessful in a cardiac arrest PT; what should the paramedic do

A

Attempt other advance airway device by other means or Cricothyrotomy

412
Q

R on T phenomena can cause

A

V-Fib

413
Q

V-Tach presents how

A

Wide Bizarre QRS; Irregular

414
Q

Pt in MVA says he has radiating pain on left shoulder; you suspect

A

spleen injury

415
Q

Pt has stroke like signs & symptoms; but then they RESOLVE and become better; this is what

A

TIA (transient Ischemia Attack)

416
Q

Pt in an MVA develops peritonitis from what

A

spill of gastric juice content making lining irritated.

417
Q

Morphine help the pulmonary edema PT by doing what

A

Vasodilation

418
Q

Behavior emergency PT; you should

A

try to orient the PT

419
Q

“Man abused on CHILD” your partner knows the man; because the man is a friend of his father. The child has cigarette marks; multiple stages of healing and bruises. The man says; “He will NEVER DO IT AGAIN” what do you do

A

leave and do an anonymous call to the Child Abuse Hotline (other incorrect choices: take the child and transport to hospital; leave the scene and do nothing)

420
Q

Large amount of Lidocaine will cause

A

seizures

421
Q

Diabetes develop during pregnancy is called what

A

.Gestational Diabetes

422
Q

Family has a valid DNR; what treatment can you offer as a paramedic

A

comfort measures

423
Q

Early signs of shock

A

tachycardia (?HR)

424
Q

Pt suspected to taken Narcotics; has PIN POINT PUPILS

A

give Narcan and you can expect to see combative; aggressive behavior

425
Q

Part of the scene size up includes

A

number of PT on scene

426
Q

You are enroute to a scene of 2 ambulatory PT; and 1 injured PT; police secured the scene; there is a hospital nearby; what do you do in the meantime

A

Call 2 ambulance for back up or start rapid triage & provide rapid transport. (TRICKY!!!!!)

427
Q

A guy in an MVA; PT has subcutaneous emphysema on the right neck side; DYPNEA; ABSENT lung sounds on the right side and diminish lung sounds on the Left side

A

Tension Pneumothorax

428
Q

Tourniquet (Venous Constricting Band…as some like to call it) does what

A

restrict venous blood flow but allows Arterial blood flow

429
Q

At a crime scene; you have a PT that is viable; what do you do

A

treat the PT; and cooperate with law enforcement….”DO NOT DISTURB THE SCENE”

430
Q

What kind of stress is the type that builds up later; after in days

A

POST TRAUMATIC

431
Q

Breech presentation

A

BUTTOCK presents First of Baby

432
Q

When delivering a baby; if the umbilical cord is still bleeding; what do you do

A

clamp the cord AGAIN proximal to the last clamp

433
Q

Bus loaded with kids; bus crashes into Hazmat truck; what do you do first

A

scene safety

434
Q

Elderly PT mask MI

A

because they have DECREASED sensation to pain

435
Q

Excess thyroid hormone; ?increase metabolic rate; tachycardia; weakness; goiter

A

Grave Disease (incorrect choices: Myxedema “?level of thyroid hormones; HYPOthermia; bradycardia;” Thyrotoxic Crisis “Hyperthermia; Tachycardia; Nervous symptoms; Hypotension; High Fever.”

436
Q

The use of NPA intubation for who

A

PT with INTACT GAG REFLEX

437
Q

What is the best method to use on LSD PT

A

Talk down

438
Q

What is the Neurotransmitter for the Parasympathetic Nervous system

A

Acetylcholine

439
Q

3 types of Aphasia

A

Expressive (motor); Receptive (sensory); Global

440
Q

ST elevation on lead ll; lll; AVF

A

Inferior Wall MI “Firefighter Boot”

441
Q

ST elevation on V1-V6; l; AVF

A

Anterior Wall MI

442
Q

NORMAL PH balance

A

7.35-7.45 (7.45-base “ALKALOSIS”

443
Q

Chief Extracellular CATION

A

Sodium “Sweat Tastes SALTY on skin”

444
Q

Chief Intracellular CATION

A

Potassium “In my Pot”

445
Q

% of RBC in the whole Blood

A

Hematocrit (45%)

446
Q

For stroke PT use

A

”FAST” F-Facial Droop; A-Arm Drift; S-Smile or Speech; T-Time 3 hrs or AAOx4

447
Q

Early access; early CPR; Early Defibrillation; Early ACLS

A

Fast

448
Q

Contraindication for AED

A

<1 y/o infant and wet PT

449
Q

Bipolar leads

A

l; ll; lll

450
Q

Unipolar

A

AVR; AVL; AVF

451
Q

P wave

A

Atrial depolarization

452
Q

QRS wave

A

ventricular depolarization

453
Q

T-wave

A

repolarization of ventricles

454
Q

Chest lead

A

V1; V2; V3; V4; V5; V6

455
Q

Combitube

A

100ml of air-Blue; 15ml of air- White(clear)

456
Q

Enteral Routes

A

per Oral; Buccal; SL; GI Tube; Rectal

457
Q

Parenteral Routes

A

IV; IO; IM; SQ

458
Q

Pit Vipers

A

Rattle; Copper Head; Water Moccasin

459
Q

COPD

A

(ACE-Chronic Bronchitis; Emphysema; Asthma)

460
Q

Phases of stress

A

(“ARE”- Alarm; Resistance; Exhaustion)

461
Q

Types of shock

A

(“MR. C.H. SNAP”) M-Metabolic; R-Respiration Insufficiency; C-Cardiogenic; H-Hypovolemic; S-Septic; N-Neurogenic; A-Anaphylactic; P-Psychogenic

462
Q

Grieving PROCESS

A

(“DABDA”)D-Denial; A-Anger; B-Bargaining; D-Depression; A-Acceptance

463
Q

As you assess your trauma patient; you determine his GCS. He is awake but confused; he obeys commands; but when not stimulated; he falls to sleep. He responds to voice by opening his eyes. What is his GCS?

A

13

464
Q

According to OSHA; what must be available on site where Hazardous Materials are stored?

A

MSDS

465
Q

Flat neck veins are common to all of the following except:

A

Dehydration; Hypovolemia; Cardiac Tamponade; Hemothorax

466
Q

The EGTA

A

is used on a comatose PT.

467
Q

Input must equal output to maintain

A

homeostasis.

468
Q

Enlarged liver; distended neck veins and edema are signs of

A

heart failure.

469
Q

Administration of a hypertonic solution to a hydrated PT will

A

draw water from the PTs cells into the vascular space.

470
Q

A sealed flashlight is not an

A

ignition source.

471
Q

Vital signs are NOT part of

A

a primary survey.

472
Q

Hypoxemia

A

reduces partial pressure of O2 in the blood.

473
Q

An avulsion

A

is a soft tissue injury involving the SQ and fascia w/lots of blood loss.

474
Q

Pt fell from 3rd floor; (R) lung sounds absent; FX leg; after airway TX

A

BVM w/O2; decompress (R) side; PASG; IVs enroute.

475
Q

Orthostatic BP

A

prone; sitting; standing at 2mins intervals.

476
Q

Narcan can cause

A

withdrawal symptoms.

477
Q

Pulse is the best way to check

A

if the heart is pumping.

478
Q

Rule of thumb for HAZMAT

A

keep a safe distance.

479
Q

Low BP in shock is due to

A

vasodilation.

480
Q

Decerebrate posturing

A

brainstem injury.

481
Q

Decorticate posturing

A

injury above brainstem.

482
Q

The fundus is a muscular structure located

A

behind the cervix.

483
Q

Pulmonary Edema TX

A

O2; 40mg Lasix; 2mg morphine

484
Q

17 y/o male w/extreme headache enroute

A

possible aneurysm

485
Q

The Ligamentum Arteriosun connects

A

the Aorta to the spine

486
Q

Vomiting is

A

the most common problem w/BVM’s

487
Q

The 401 emergency services act provides

A

legislation governing all pre-hospital EMS

488
Q

In a MCI paralysis below the waist is a

A

LOW PRIORITY

489
Q

Voice and ECG can be transmitted to the hospital at the same time

A

multiplex system

490
Q

The organization that establishes qualifications for EMS providers nationally

A

NHTSA

491
Q

Normal systolic BP in males is

A

age plus 100

492
Q

Bright red frothy blood from the mouth (hemoptysis)

A

lung damage