2 Flashcards

1
Q

Know the S/S of increased intercranial pressure

A

HIGH BP and LOW HR

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2
Q

Guarding the opening of the trachea is a thin, leaf-shaped valve called the

A

Epiglotitis

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3
Q

A patient with a long bone fracture may suffer from a

A

Fat embolism

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4
Q

The pulmonary arteries carries

A

deoxygenated blood to the lungs

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5
Q

One pint of blood is

A

500cc’s

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6
Q

Minute volume’s

A

Respiratory rate x Tidal volume

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7
Q

Kidney’s rely on perfusion during the

A

systolic phase of blood and blood pressure

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8
Q

Sudden onset of wheezing in one lung is

A

Foreign Body Inspiration

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9
Q

The medical term for coughing up blood (pink, blood filled sputum) is

A

Hemoptysis

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10
Q

All are microorganism except

A

Erythrocytes

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11
Q

In a patient with myocardial infarction, the information the doctor can obtain over the radio is

A

Present complaints and history

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12
Q

Dehydration has the following signs except

A

JVD

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13
Q

A patient presents with rapid onset dyspnea, Urticaria (hives), tachypnea, and a blood pressure of 80/60. This patient is suffering from

A

Anaphylactic Shock

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14
Q

Vomiting usually occurs during removal of an

A

EOA

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15
Q

Pulse pressure is the

A

Difference between the systolic and diastolic

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16
Q

If there is a question about which of the 5 or 6 P’s pick

A

Pressure (it was on the test but cannot remember the question but other people have told me the answer is Pressure)

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17
Q

The whistling sound associated with asthma is called

A

Wheezing

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18
Q

The purple colored lesions on the face and body from AIDS is called

A

Karposi Sarcoma

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19
Q

Pale skin (pallor) is caused by

A

Vasoconstriction

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20
Q

All are clinical signs of shock except

A

Constricted pupils

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21
Q

Usual MAST deflation sequence is

A

Abdomen, right leg, left leg (inflation is left leg, right leg, abdomen)

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22
Q

The rate of KVO is

A

10mL/hour

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23
Q

When starting a tourniquet (venous constricting band) it is applied so

A

That it occludes venous return, but allow arterial flow

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24
Q

The oxygen delivery device used for emphysema is the

A

Nasal cannula or venturi mask

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25
Q

The technique that will not help distend a vein for Venipuncture is to

A

Elevate the arm

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26
Q

A mini drip IV set delivers

A

60gtts/min

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27
Q

Carpal pedal spasm are caused from

A

Respiratory alkalosis and hyperventilation

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28
Q

Do not give a subQ injection to a patient that is in

A

Shock

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29
Q

The patient has blood gases of pH is 7.15, PCO2 is 60, PO2 is 60. The patient is in

A

Respiratory acidosis

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30
Q

Use an EOA when patient had overdosed on

A

Valium

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31
Q

The major hazard involved in a catheter through the needle system is the chance of

A

Catheter embolus

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32
Q

A patient has been intubated and only breath sounds are heard on the right side of the chest. You should attempt to fix this by

A

Pulling back the tube slightly and listening again

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33
Q

External jugular vein is not a

A

Central line

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34
Q

When intubating a child under 8, you should use an

A

Uncuffed tube

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35
Q

When you intubate a patient, it is not a must to

A

Use a Miller laryngoscope

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36
Q

A local complication of using an IV does not include

A

Causing sepsis

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37
Q

The patient has blood gases of pH-7.00, PCO2-35, PO2-95, HCO3-12. The most appropriate immediate action is to give

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

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38
Q

One of the indications for the MAST suit is

A

A pelvis fracture

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39
Q

The correct placement of a laryngoscope blade is

A

The Valecula

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40
Q

The patient with COPD has his respiratory drive triggered by

A

Decreased oxygen levels

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41
Q

A patient in a motorcycle accident. He has lacerations to his head that is actively bleeding. His vitals are, BP 80/40, P 110. Treat him by giving

A

actated Ringers wide open.

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42
Q

Hyperventilation helps to correct

A

Respiratory acidosis

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43
Q

The IV solution closest to blood plasma is

A

Lactated Ringers

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44
Q

A common side effect of Bretylium is

A

Postural hypotension

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45
Q

Common side effects of EPI subQ (SQ) or IV are

A

Palpations and high blood pressure

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46
Q

You are to draw up 400mg Dopamine that comes 25mg/cc. The number of cc’s you will draw up to put in the bag is

A

16cc’s

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47
Q

A major side effect of certain types of diuretic therapies is

A

Hypokalemia

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48
Q

The drug of choice for treating hyperkalemia is

A

Calcium Chloride

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49
Q

One of the adverse reactions of Isuprel is not

A

Bradycardia

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50
Q

Atropine works by

A

Blocking the effects of the vagus nerve

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51
Q

A 60 y/o patient complains of palpitations. His P-145, BP-110/60, R-24. He also has wide complex tachycardia. Treatment would be

A

Lidocaine 1-1.5mg/kg

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52
Q

In a chronic heroin user, the use of Narcan can cause

A

A withdrawal reaction

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53
Q

All of the following are true regarding Lidocaine, except that it

A

Decreases cardiac function

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54
Q

A 9-month pregnant pt has seizures. The treatment should be

A

Valium 5-10mg

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55
Q

A migrant worker has been picking tomatoes. He suddenly complains of a headache and dizziness. Upon a physical exam, he has a strong, bounding pulse and hot, flushed, dry skin. He also begins to have seizures. Treatment of this pt would not include using

A

Diazepam 15mg IV (Heat Stroke)

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56
Q

The most appropriate indication for ammonia ampules would be to

A

Terminate a syncopal episode

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57
Q

Narcan is used to reverse the respiratory depression of

A

Darvan

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58
Q

An individual with unknown drug is in respiratory distress, hypotensive, and in a stupor. He also has pinpoint pupils. The paramedic might suspect a

A

Morphine overdose

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59
Q

Narcan is effective in reversing the effects of

A

Narcotics and Opiate based derivatives

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60
Q

The pharmacological treatment of anaphylactic shock is

A

EPI and Benadryl

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61
Q

The fastest route of administration of the following IM, SQ, SC, ET is

A

ET

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62
Q

A side effect of a small pupils is not an affect of

A

Valium

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63
Q

Isuprel is used in

A

Bradycardia

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64
Q

You give 25gm of Dextrose from a 100cc amp of 50% Dextrose

A

50cc’s of Dextrose will be given

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65
Q

A drug used to decrease intracranial pressure is

A

Mannitol

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66
Q

An adult dose of activated charcoal is

A

1gm/kg

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67
Q

Lasix does not

A

Increase preload

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68
Q

Mallaril and Thorazine are in the category of

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

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69
Q

Common treatment of Tricyclic antidepressant overdose is

A

Sodium Bicarb

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70
Q

Two common Tricyclic antidepressant are

A

Elival and Tofranil

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71
Q

The first drug pediatric bradycardia is

A

Oxygen

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72
Q

Early signs of Lidocaine toxicity are

A

Tremors and parasthesia

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73
Q

A side effect that is not common of Atropine is

A

Bradycardia

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74
Q

The pediatric dose of subQ EPI is

A

0.01mg/kg

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75
Q

Isuprel is a

A

Beta stimulator

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76
Q

A doctor orders 1000mg of a drug. The drug comes packaged as 0.5gm/cc. the number of cc’s given will be

A

2cc’s

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77
Q

All of the following are acceptable indications for the administration of IV Nitro except

A

Ventricular Dysrhythmia’s (pain relief in unstable angina, PE, MI were the other choices)

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78
Q

The route that is not a parenteral route of drug administration is

A

Oral

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79
Q

A pt chief complaint is midsternal chest pain. The monitor shows sinus bradycardia with PVC’s, P 40, BP 90/60, and R 22. The first drug to administer is

A

Atropine

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80
Q

Do not use Lidocaine for

A

Bradycardia with PVC’s

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81
Q

Narcan reverse the effect of all except

A

Valium

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82
Q

A needle inserted into connective tissue is called

A

Subcutaneous

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83
Q

The pediatric dose of Lidocaine (1mg/kg) for a 20 pound child is

A

9mg

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84
Q

Norepinephrine is classified as an

A

Alpha and beta stimulator

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85
Q

Mag sulfate is used to treat

A

Calcium channel blocker overdose

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86
Q

Death could occur if along with alcohol, a person takes

A

Morphine and/or Valium(potentiating)

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87
Q

A pediatric dosage of subQ EPI is 0.01mg/kg. The patient weighs 57 lbs. The amount of EPI given is

A

0.3mg

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88
Q

The Lidocaine dose for pulseless V-Tach (and V-Fib) is

A

1-1.5mg/kg

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89
Q

The need for increasing the amounts of a drug in order to achieve a desire effect is called

A

Tolerance

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90
Q

When beta-receptors are stimulated

A

The heart rate increases

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91
Q

All bronchodilators except

A

Benadryl

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92
Q

Verapamil is contraindicated for

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome (WPW)

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93
Q

An athlete has fallen and injured his ankle. His BP 120/80, P 50, and skin are warm and dry. Treatment is to

A

Splint the ankle and transport

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94
Q

A pediatric ingests lye by mouth. The best treatment is t

A

.Give milk (this question popped up on the State test in Nov. of 2008)

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95
Q

Verapamil and Adenocard are used to treat

A

VT

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96
Q

The adult dose of EPI in asthma is

A

0.3-0.5mg

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97
Q

In addition to Lasix, all of the following are used to treat pulmonary edema except

A

Solu-Medrol

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98
Q

The characteristic of an ectopic pregnancy can be all of the following except

A

Third trimester pregnancy

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99
Q

An appropriate action when dealing with a child is to

A

let the mother and father to travel with the baby

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100
Q

The common cause of convulsions in a child 6 months to 6 years is

A

Febrile illness

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101
Q

A child complains of “bells ringing in the head” and is hyperventilating. This can be caused by an

A

ASA overdose

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102
Q

In pediatric arrest, the initial dose of Sodium Bicarb is

A

1mEq/kg

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103
Q

When rescue arrives, a woman is found to be in childbirth with a prolapsed cord. You should not

A

Try to push the cord back inside.

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104
Q

The fundus is massaged after placental delivery in order to

A

Control bleeding

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105
Q

Pediatric weight in 6 months should

A

Be double the birth weight

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106
Q

The pediatric dose of Lidocaine is

A

1mg/kg

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107
Q

The most dangerous disorder causing upper airway stridor is

A

Epiglottitis

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108
Q

Abrupto placenta is presented by

A

Abdominal pain and dark red bleeding (if any)

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109
Q

Along with pitocin to help control postpartum hemorrhage, you should

A

Massage the fundus and place the baby on the mother’s breast

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110
Q

Care must be given when examining a child with a swollen epiglottis because this may cause

A

Laryngospasms that are common in children with Epiglottitis

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111
Q

SIDS occur in children most frequently under

A

6 months (range of SIDS is up to 1 year)

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112
Q

When the baby’s head is delivered, the paramedic should support the head by

A

Distributing his fingers evenly around the head

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113
Q

In normal delivery of a baby, the head should be

A

Face down

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114
Q

Using EPI to treat respiratory ailments

A

A “failure” suggests bronchiolitis and “success” suggest asthma

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115
Q

The paramedic should palpate the infant’s pulse by the

A

Brachial, carotid, or radial (depending on the child’s size)

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116
Q

When opening the airway of an infant do not exaggerate the head tilt because this

A

May obstruct the breathing passages

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117
Q

Normal delivery of a full-term infant 1 min. after delivery finds that it’s body is pink, extremities are blue, P 120, and is crying lustily while jerking it’s arms and legs. The APGAR score is

A

9

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118
Q

The stage whose ending is marked by the delivery of the placenta is the

A

Third stage

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119
Q

You are called at 3am to a female with pain in her lower abdomen, bloody urine, and fever of 2 days. The physical exam reveals tenderness over the bladder and otherwise normal vitals except for a temperature of 100 degrees F. She also states that she “may be pregnant.” Due to the signs and symptoms, you should suspect

A

Inflammation of the bladder

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120
Q

A 3 y/o is suffering from an asthma attack. The dose of EPI 1:1000 is

A

0.01mg/kg

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121
Q

A 6 y/o was burned. He has blisters on arms and hands, blistered chest and abdomen. The rule of nine states that his burn percentage is

A

0.27

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122
Q

You are transporting a multigravida whose last 2 childbirth were C-Sections. She appears near full term and has contractions every 3-4 min. apart. She complains of a tearing pain in her lower abdomen and she begins to go into shock. This suggest

A

uterine rupture

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123
Q

All of the following cause uterine bleeding during the first trimester except

A

Placenta Previa

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124
Q

A 23 y/o female who is obese and approximately 6 months pregnant just had a grand mal seizure. Her P 145, BP 240/130, and has edema of extremities. She can be diagnosed with

A

Eclampsia

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125
Q

Treatment of the #617 patient with all of the following except

A

Attempting to open her mouth with a padded tongue depressor

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126
Q

The normal time of labor for a women having her first baby is

A

18 hours

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127
Q

If a baby is having difficulty with shoulder delivery, assist by

A

Gently pressing the baby downward

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128
Q

Thrombi arising in deep veins of the legs are most likely to migrate to the

A

Lungs

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129
Q

Emesis should be induced for the ingestion of

A

Salicylate (ASA)

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130
Q

Rapid cooling of a heat stroke patient is done to prevent

A

Irreversible brain damage

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131
Q

As you assess your trauma patient, you determine his GCS. He is awake but confused; he obeys commands, but when not stimulated, he falls to sleep. He responds to voice by opening his eyes. What is his GCS?

A

13

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132
Q

A patient has sustained a stab wound of the neck that has lacerated the jugular vein. He is suspected of having an air embolism. The appropriate treatment is

A

Applying pressure to the wound and positioning on the left side

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133
Q

Which of the following decreases during the 3rd trimester of pregnancy

A

B/P

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134
Q

According to OSHA, what must be available on site where hazardous materials are stored?

A

MSDS

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135
Q

All of the following are true regarding electrical burns except

A

there is more external than internal damage (there is an entrance and exit wound, it may cause V-Fib, path of electricity may follow nerve pathways…where other answers)

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136
Q

When do you NOT give Lidocaine?

A

PVC’s with bradycardia

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137
Q

What is the most serious complication of a joint injury?

A

blood vessel damage

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138
Q

What is the best way for a paramedic to prevent an anaphylactic reaction when giving medications to a patient?

A

ask about allergy history

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139
Q

A telemetry system in which voice and an EKG can be transmitted from the field to the hospital at the same time is an example of a

A

multiplex system

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140
Q

A major side effect of Lasix is

A

Hypokalemia

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141
Q

Flat neck veins are common to all of the following except

A

cardiac Tamponade (dehydration, hypovolemia, Hemothorax…..where other answers)

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142
Q

The key to effective management in a disaster situation is:

A

the communication system

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143
Q

Which is corrected with hyperventilation?

A

respiratory acidosis

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144
Q

What do you do for a patient who has a partial upper airway obstruction (adult) with a good exchange?

A

encourage coughing

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145
Q

You have just delivered a newborn whose mother was hypovolemic due to blood loss. What is the recommended fluid replacement for this newborn?

A

10cc/kg

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146
Q

Narcan is used to reverse the respiratory depression of:

A

darvon

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147
Q

Poor airway compliance is found frequently in all of the following conditions except:

A

pleuritis

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148
Q

The pediatric dose for atropine is:

A

0.02mg/kg

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149
Q

A patient needs increased amounts of a drug to achieve the desire effect. This is known as

A

tolerance

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150
Q

Which of the following is NOT a normal part of the “fight-or-flight” response?

A

pupils constrict

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151
Q

What is the name of the tower that increases the transmission range of a portable or mobile radio?

A

repeater

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152
Q

You are called to treat a 22 y/o female with sudden onset of LLQ pain. She is 2 weeks late for her period, and is shocky. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

ectopic pregnancy

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153
Q

All of the following are side effects of Verapamil except:

A

tachycardia (hypotension, dilation of coronary arteries, bradycardia….where the other answers)

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154
Q

Pale skin (pallor) is caused by:

A

vasoconstriction

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155
Q

You are examining an EKG strip where the P-R interval progressively gets longer until a QRS is dropped. This rhythm is known as all of the following except:

A

complete heart block (mobitz I, 2nd degree heart block type I, wenkeback…..where the other answers)

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156
Q

Which of the following oxygen delivery devices are most frequently used for a patient with emphysema?

A

nasal cannula (NRM, simple mask, OPA…where the other answers)

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157
Q

The medical term for coughing up blood (pink, blood-tinged sputum) is:

A

hemoptysis

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158
Q

Neurological findings that occur during or after dialysis as a result of imbalance of intracellular and extracellular fluids in the brain is known as:

A

disequilibrium syndrome

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159
Q

You have a patient with apparent injuries from a bar fight. The patient is obviously under the influence of alcohol. The patient refuses treatment and signs a release. Is the release valid?

A

NO, because he is under the influence of alcohol

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160
Q

Granting of the privilege by physicians to paramedics to perform skills is called:

A

delegation of authority

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161
Q

Abruptio placenta is a true emergency. It is characterized by:

A

abdominal pain and dark red bleeding

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162
Q

Movement of air into and out of the lungs depends on:

A

pressure changes of the thoracic cavity

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163
Q

A legal document that indicates a patient’s end of life request regarding resuscitation is known as:

A

DNR order

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164
Q

After completing a patient care report, the paramedic realizes that he forgot to enter the drug dose. What should he do?

A

add a dated and signed written addendum

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165
Q

You are treating a patient in July with hot, dry skin, a temperature of 106 degrees, and unconsciousness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

heat stroke

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166
Q

Your 23 y/o male patient presents with a sharp chest pain of short duration, and SOB. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s problem?

A

spontaneous pneumothorax

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167
Q

Maintaining equilibrium can be characterized as:

A

homeostasis

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168
Q

All of the following are schedule I drugs EXCEPT:

A

COCAINE (heroin, mescaline, LSD…where other answers)

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169
Q

Which of the following bite is most neurotoxic?

A

coral snake

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170
Q

The most common cause of PID is:

A

gonorrhea

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171
Q

Treatment of abdominal evisceration should include all except:

A

replace and cover eviscerating organs

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172
Q

All of the following are signs or symptoms of organophosphate poisoning except:

A

dry mouth (ABD cramping, diarrhea, constricted pupils….where the other answers)

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173
Q

A fracture of the elbow should always be immobilized:

A

in the position it was found

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174
Q

A patient presents with pulmonary edema. She should be given:

A

nitroglycerine to reduce preload

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175
Q

A 55 y/o patient has a pulse rate of 50. There is a P for every QRS and the P-R interval is 0.16. The patient is cold and clammy and the B/P is 70/50. Indicate the rhythm and the initial treatment

A

sinus bradycardia and atropine 0.5mg

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176
Q

The proper adult dose of EPI for asthma is:

A

0.3-0.5mg

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177
Q

A seizure which presents the clonic movements of one hand, one arm or leg or one side of the face is called:

A

focal motor

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178
Q

Which of the following is usually NOT a sign or symptom of increased intracranial pressure?

A

hypotension (bradycardia, irregular or unequal pupils, vomiting….where some of the other answers)

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179
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome is caused from:

A

pressure from the uterus on the vena cava

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180
Q

Which of the following is not a complication of an IV?

A

hypotension (thrombus formation, cellulitis, infection…..where some of the other answers)

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181
Q

In a patient with COPD, the respiratory drive is triggered by:

A

a decrease in O2

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182
Q

Which one DOES NOT produce small pupils?

A

valium (heroin, Demerol, organo phosphates….where some of the other answers)

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183
Q

When intubating a patient, you MUST DO all of the following except:

A

use a miller laryngoscope (check lung sounds after intubation, check cuff for leaks, ventilate by other means prior to intubation…….where the other answers)

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184
Q

The first compensatory mechanism to be used to maintain homeostasis is:

A

bicarbonate buffer system

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185
Q

You have an IV running at 50gtts/min. You are using a macro 10. The physician wants to know how many cc per hour your IV is running

A

300cc/hr

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186
Q

A 55 y/o fell while playing basketball. He injured his right ankle. The skin is warm and dry. B/P 110/80 and pulse rate is 50. All of the following are appropriate except:

A

atropine 0.5 mg IV (EKG monitor, splint leg, frequent circulation checks….where the other answers)

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187
Q

Narcan reverses the effect of all of the following except:

A

valium (darvon, morphine, talwin…..where the other answers)

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188
Q

Which of the following is not a side effect of atropine:

A

sweating (tachycardia, blurred vision, dry mouth….where the other answers)

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189
Q

Hyperthyroidism which causes an increase in thyroid hormone circulating in the blood is also known as:

A

Graves’ Disease

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190
Q

A patient with a head injury suddenly has a left pupil that is fixed and dilated and the right is slow to respond to light. This is:

A

neurological crisis

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191
Q

All of the following are opportunistic infections associated with AIDS except:

A

appendicitis (thrush or monilia, TB, pneumonia….where the other answers)

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192
Q

A 40 y/o female presents with a two week loss of appetite, general malaise and RUQ tenderness. She tells you her stools are clay-colored and her urine is tea colored. What do you think is causing these symptoms?

A

hepatitis

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193
Q

A psychiatric patient is crying. What should you do?

A

listen and let him cry

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194
Q

The mechanism of injury can tell the paramedic about the patient’s condition. Of the injuries below, which would most likely occur with a collapsed steering column?

A

flail chest (basilar skull fracture, ruptured spleen, fractured pelvis……where the other answers)

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195
Q

Atropine works by:

A

blocking the effects of the vagus nerve

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196
Q

Which of the following infectious diseases are spread by droplets?

A

measles, mumps, chicken pox

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197
Q

Which of the following is false regarding burns?

A

there is insignificant damage to underlying soft tissue

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198
Q

When BETA receptors are stimulated, what happens?

A

heart rate increases

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199
Q

Verapamil is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

A

W-P-W

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200
Q

Paradoxical chest wall movement that lessens respiratory efficiency may suggest a

A

flail chest

201
Q

Which of the following is an isotonic crystalloid?

A

Normal Saline

203
Q

A patient has lost feeling below the nipple line. This would indicate a spinal injury at the level of:

A

T4

204
Q

By 4 to 6 months, a child should have:

A

doubled the birth weight

205
Q

A crackling sensation in the neck due to air under the skin is called:

A

SQ emphysema

206
Q

A patient complains of SOB. He has, upon assessment, a barrel chest and pursed lips. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

emphysema

207
Q

The pulmonary artery carries:

A

deoxygenated blood to the lungs

208
Q

The patient has been exposed to dry lime all over his body. Your action would be:

A

brush off chemical then flush with water

209
Q

A drug with a positive Inotropic effect will cause:

A

increased force of contraction

210
Q

A patient with blood gas values of pH-7.15, PC02-60, P02-60 is suffering from

A

respiratory acidosis

211
Q

The movement of gas from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is:

A

diffusion

212
Q

The kidneys are located:

A

retroperitoneal

213
Q

A whistling sound heard in inspiration and expiration while auscultating lung field is called

A

Wheezing

214
Q

The above strip represents:

A

1st degree block, W-P-W, Bradycardia, or NSR…(you figure it out)

215
Q

Your patient has the above rhythm. He has no pulse and is not breathing. All of the following could be causes except

A

hypocarbia (cardiac Tamponade, fluid loss, hypoxia….where the other answers)

216
Q

The above strip represents:

A

Sinus Bradycardia, Normal Sinus Rhythm, Bundle Branch Block, First degree AV block (you figure it out)

217
Q

A hyperglycemic condition that only occurs during pregnancy is known as:

A

gestational diabetes

218
Q

All of the following would have hyper resonant percussion sounds except:

A

Hemothorax (pneumothorax, asthma, emphysema…where the other answers)

219
Q

Furosemide has all of the following effects or side effects except:

A

hyperkalemia (venodilation, reducing preload, increased urine output….where the other answers)

220
Q

The term for stiffness and flexibility of airflow or airflow which occurs with minimal resistance is known as:

A

compliance

221
Q

The most common indication for a surgical cricothyrotomy is:

A

.massive facial trauma

222
Q

Polycythemia means

A

excessive RBC’s

223
Q

You are at a MCI and are using the S.T.A.R.T. triage system to evaluate the victims. A patient has a respiratory rate of 40. What category does this put him into?

A

RED

224
Q

The process by which the EMT sorts patients into categories of priority for care and transport is called:

A

triage

225
Q

The presence of pouch-like herniations through the muscular layer of the colon is known as:

A

diverticulosis

226
Q

The number one cause of bradycardia in newborns is:

A

hypoxia

227
Q

You are called to the workplace of a 20 y/o male who came to work feeling ill. He is c/o a stiff neck, high fever, headache and backache. He is most likely suffering from:

A

meningitis

228
Q

An individual with known drug abuse is in respiratory distress, hypotensive, and stuporous. He has pinpoint pupils. The paramedic might suspect:

A

morphine overdose

229
Q

After you attach your patient to the EKG monitor, you note quite a bit of 60-cycle interference. Which of the following maneuvers would be most likely to correct this problem?

A

disconnect any electrical appliances in the vicinity

230
Q

The depth of compressions for a child is:

A

1/3 to ½ the depth of chest wall

231
Q

What types of frequencies are used for medical communications?

A

UHF, VHF

232
Q

The master gland responsible for excreting oxytocin and ACTH is:

A

pituitary

233
Q

A patient has been burned on the front of both legs and front of both arms. What % burn is it?

A

0.27

234
Q

Two common Tricyclic antidepressants are:

A

Elavil and Tofranil

235
Q

The pediatric dose of Lido is:

A

1mg/kg of body weight

236
Q

You are called to the scene of a construction site accident. A 31 y/o male was working in a trench when the walls collapsed. His co-workers have freed his abdomen, chest, and head, but he is still trapped from the waist down. The patient appears to be purple from the shoulders up and is having marked difficulty breathing. His eyes are bulging, and his lips appear swollen. You suspect

A

traumatic asphyxia

237
Q

In a case of malpractice, the courts will compare the actions of the defendant to the actions his peers would have taken under the same circumstances. This comparison is known as the:

A

standard of care

238
Q

Heat stroke is caused by:

A

failure of the heat-regulating mechanisms

239
Q

A child has overdosed on ASA. You would expect to see all of the following except:

A

hypoventilation

240
Q

A liquid drug which is prepared using an alcohol process and which usually has some of the alcohol in the final preparation is a(n):

A

tincture

241
Q

The primary concerns in treating a near-drowning victim are management of:

A

hypoxia and acidosis

242
Q

Cribbing is most often used to:

A

stabilize a vehicle

243
Q

You are assessing a pregnant patient in labor. She tells you this is the 4th time she has been pregnant and she had 2 miscarriages and one live birth. She is considered to be:

A

G4 P1(G means # of pregnancy and P means how many live births)

244
Q

A 55 y/o female who is a mother of four complains of RUQ pain with nausea and vomiting you suspect:

A

cholecystitis (REMEMBER: lower quadrant pain usually means ectopic pregnancy)

245
Q

When responding to a call lights and siren on a four lane highway, it is best to:

A

drive in the left lane so traffic can move to the right

246
Q

The blue or purple colored lesions found on the face, mouth and other parts of the body of the AIDS patient is usually:

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

247
Q

A 16 y/o male was hit in the head with a baseball bat and has suffered a closed head injury. Which IV fluids are appropriate for this patient?

A

NS & LR

248
Q

When is it NOT necessary to reassess ET tube placement?

A

after attaching a pulse oximetry unit

249
Q

Your trauma patient is exhibiting signs of a tension pneumothorax. What would be your order of treatment?

A

Oxygen, Pleural decompression, Transport, IV

250
Q

Which of the following is not a type of muscle?

A

involuntary

251
Q

Fluid replacement for an adult trauma patient is based on:

A

20mL/kg bolus

252
Q

Do not give a SC injection to a patient who:

A

.is in shock

253
Q

The inner most layer of the uterus is the:

A

endometrium

254
Q

You are called to the scene of a 70 y/o patient with SOB. His wife sts he has been having difficulty sleeping in a flat position for the last 2 nights. The patient has dried blood on his lips. Which of the following conditions is most likely the cause of his SOB?

A

pulmonary edema

255
Q

Cardiac output

A

HR x stroke volume

256
Q

The section of the brain which controls posture is called the:

A

cerebellum

257
Q

The major extracellular cation is:

A

sodium

258
Q

Endocrine glands do what?

A

excrete hormones into blood stream

259
Q

Front windshields are made from:

A

laminated safety glass

260
Q

Clinical signs of tension pneumothorax are all of the following except:

A

flat neck veins

261
Q

Ms. J. is in DKA. Her breathing pattern is hypernea and tachypnea. What is this respiratory pattern called?

A

Kussmauls

262
Q

What PPE should be worn during delivery?

A

gloves, mask, gown, protective eyewear

263
Q

Which is the most appropriate sequence of treatment for a victim of an explosion?(REMEMBER: your ABC’s)

A

assess adequacy of airway, ventilate and oxygenate as indicated, stop arterial bleeding from a radial artery, treat a closed fracture of the femur(REMEMBER: restore the breathing, stop the bleeding, protect the wound)

264
Q

A group of frequencies close together is called:

A

band

265
Q

What is Urticaria?

A

hives

266
Q

A patient with major burns has hypovolemic shock because of:

A

plasma loss

267
Q

An extrapyramidal reaction is caused by what classification o0f drugs?

A

antipsychotics

268
Q

A patient presents as follows – bizarre acting, cool, clammy skin, slurred speech, and staggers. The diagnosis for this patient is:

A

hypoglycemia

269
Q

Radio frequencies are measured in:

A

megahertz

270
Q

A drug that can be used instead of EPI to treat V-Fib is:

A

vasopressin

271
Q

The senior citizen has special problems inherent to this aging process. The correct description of a body change due to the aging process is:

A

diminished vision

272
Q

Metabolic acidosis occurs in all of the following except:

A

hyperventilation syndrome

273
Q

You are called to the scene of a 2 y/o with difficulty breathing. He is using accessory muscles, has grunting respirations, and nasal flaring. Which of the following is the best treatment regime for this patient?

A

leave the child in mother’s lap, use a NRM and monitor progress

274
Q

Which of the following is true regarding a basilar skull fracture?

A

raccoon’s eyes is a late sign

275
Q

During a fire your partner falls down a flight of stairs. What method would you use to remove him from the burning building?.

A

clothes drag

276
Q

Rescue arrives to find a woman in childbirth and upon examination finds the cord is prolapsed. Treatment would include all except:

A

push the cord back into the canal

277
Q

What is the appropriate dose of EPI for asthma in an adult?

A

0.3 to 0.5 mL of a 1:1000 solution administered SQ

278
Q

You are using an IV set with 15 drops per mL to administer 50mL per hour. How many drops per minute do you give?

A

13

279
Q

The time from conception until delivery is known as:

A

prenatal

280
Q

What type of cerebral hemorrhage usually occurs rapidly due to an arterial bleed?

A

Epidural DRUGS

281
Q

1 side effect of Bretylium

A

Hypotension

282
Q

0.3 mg Epinephrine SQ for

A

Mild allergic reaction

283
Q

110 lbs patient, What is the Lidocaine dose

A

50 mg, then 2 - 4 mg / min

284
Q

17 lbs Pedi Lidocaine dose

A

8 mg

285
Q

1st drug in PEA

A

EPI

286
Q

20 drop set in 30 minutes running at 50 drops

A

75 ml

287
Q

21 yr old Asthma patient, what drug

A

Albuterol 2.5 mg via Nebulizer

288
Q

60 Drop Set in 30 minutes Running at 20 Drops

A

10 ml

289
Q

60 gtts Set Run 15 gtts/min How much in one hour

A

15

290
Q

60 gtts Set Run 20 gtts / min How much in one hour

A

30

291
Q

60 mg

A

1 grain

292
Q

60 yr. Old patient weighing 100 lbs. complains of palpitations. P 145, BP 110/60, R 24. Wide complex Tachycardia. Treatment

A

Lidocaine 1 – 1.5mg /kg, 50 mg IVP

293
Q

65 kg patient, how much Epinephrine for allergic reaction

A

0.3 - 0.5 ml (1:1000) SQ

294
Q

80 kg patient with PVC

A

100 mg Lidocaine

295
Q

A 9 month pregnant patient has seizures. The treatment should be

A

Valium 5 - 10 mg

296
Q

A common side effect of Bretylium is

A

Postural Hypotension

297
Q

A complication from starting an IV is

A

Air Embolism & Phlebitis

298
Q

A contraindication for Lidocaine is

A

Sinus Bradycardia with multifocal PVC’s

299
Q

A Doctor orders 1000 mg of a drug. The drug comes packaged as 0.5 gm / cc. The number of cc’s given will be

A

2 cc’s

300
Q

A drug used in the field to counteract a severe Tricyclic OD is

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

301
Q

A drug used to Decrease Intracranial Pressure is

A

Mannitol

302
Q

A local complication of using an IV does NOT include

A

Causing Sepsis

303
Q

A major side effect of certain types of diuretic therapies

A

Hypokalemia

304
Q

A mini solution drip set is how many drops per minute

A

60

305
Q

A Needle Inserted into Connective Tissue is called

A

Subcutaneous

306
Q

A patient that has been taking Haldol & is exhibiting extra pyramidal reactions should be treated by giving

A

Benadryl

307
Q

A patient’s Chief Complaint is Midsternal Chest Pain. The monitor shows Sinus Bradycardia with PVC’s, P 40, BP 90/60, RR 22, the 1st drug to admin.

A

Atropine

308
Q

A Pediatric Dosage of SQ Epinephrine is 0.01 mg / kg. The patient weighs 67 lbs. The amount of Epinephrine given is

A

0.3 mg

309
Q

A Pediatric Ingests Lye by Mouth. The Best Treatment

A

Give Milk

310
Q

A side effect of a Diuretic is

A

Hypokalemia

311
Q

A side effect of small pupils is NOT an effect of

A

Valium

312
Q

A side effect that is Not common of Atropine is

A

Bradycardia

313
Q

Acetylcholine / Oxytocin

A

Secreted by the pituitary gland (pea shaped)

314
Q

Acute Asthma

A

0.3 - 0.5 mg 1:1000 epi SQ

315
Q

Adenosine

A

PSVT associated with WPW syndrome refractory to vagal maneuvers

316
Q

Adenosine

A

Slows conduction through the AV node

317
Q

Adenosine for SVT patient

A

6 mg, 12 mg, 12 mg, Rapid IV Push

318
Q

Administration of drugs through a

A

Mini drip set

319
Q

Administration of IV Hypertonic Solution on a Hydrated patient will

A

Draw Water from Cells to Vascular Space

320
Q

After administering Naloxone, Paramedic should see

A

Combativeness

321
Q

After O2, Monitor, and IV, in Acute Pulmonary Edema, what is Next most Appropriate

A

NTG 0.4 mg (1/150 gm) SL

322
Q

After O2, what is the #1 for Chest Pain Relief

A

(MS) Morphine

323
Q

Albuterol for asthma patient

A

2.5 mg / 3 ml NS

324
Q

All are Bronchodilators, Except

A

Benadryl

325
Q

All of the following are Acceptable Indications for the Administration of IV Nitro, Except

A

Ventricular Dysrhythmias (other choices: Pain relief in unstable angina, PE, MI)

326
Q

All of the following are True Regarding Lidocaine, Except

A

It decreases Cardiac Function

327
Q

Aminophylline dose

A

5 - 6 mg / kg

328
Q

Amount of ringers if you lost 300 ml of blood

A

1200 cc (3 x amount lost)

329
Q

An 80 kg. Patient who needs Lidocaine (scenario calls for Lido as treatment of choice Not Cardioversion due to description they give of the patient)

A

100 mg. Lido Bolus (best answer)

330
Q

An Adult Dose of Activated Charcoal is

A

1 gm / kg

331
Q

An individual with Unknown Drug is in Respiratory Distress, Hypotensive & in a Stupor. He also has Pinpoint Pupils. The Paramedic might Suspect

A

Morphine Overdose

332
Q

Anti-depressants

A

Elavil (amitriptyline), Tofranil (imipramine)

333
Q

Anti-psychotic

A

Haldol, Mellaril

334
Q

ASA Overdose

A

Patient will Hyperventilate

335
Q

Atropine

A

Blurred vision

336
Q

Atropine works by

A

Blocking the Effects of the Vagus Nerve

337
Q

Atropine does what

A

Blocks Vagus Nerve (parasympathetic)

338
Q

Atropine pushed too slow at a too low a dose will cause

A

Paradoxical Bradycardia

339
Q

Atropine under .5 mg

A

Paradoxical Bradycardia

340
Q

Best Drug to Give in Cardiogenic Shock

A

Dopamine

341
Q

Best place for IV cannulation, to avoid joints

A

Forearm

342
Q

Beta Agonist

A

Tachycardia

343
Q

Beta stimulation will cause all except

A

Vasoconstriction

344
Q

Bicarb for Tricyclic (TCA)

A

OD with cardiac abnormalitities

345
Q

Blood you don’t have to worry about cross contaminating

A

Frozen Plasma

346
Q

Brady with PVC’s

A

Atropine

347
Q

Cardiac arrest patient IV to KVO, Anticipate med. admin, What tubing

A

Mini drip

348
Q

Cardiogenic shock, give

A

Dopamine

349
Q

Chest pain, after O2, #1 pain relief

A

Morphine Sulfate

350
Q

Chronotropic Drugs

A

Affect the heart rate

351
Q

Cocaine is in what Drug Class

A

Type II

352
Q

Common side effects of Epinephrine SQ or IV are

A

Palpations and High Blood Pressure

353
Q

Common treatment of Tricyclic antidepressants overdose is

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

354
Q

Complication of an IV

A

Air Emboli

355
Q

Complication of Thrombolytic Therapy

A

Bleeding Out

356
Q

Complications from IV administration

A

Phlebitis and Emboli

357
Q

Contraindication for Lidocaine

A

Sinus Brady with PVC

358
Q

Contraindication of SQ route is

A

Hypovolemic Shock

359
Q

Contraindication for Verapamil

A

Pulmonary Edema, Cardiogenic Shock

360
Q

Contraindications for Verapamil

A

WPW Syndrome

361
Q

Contraindications for Verapamil, all except

A

Asthma

362
Q

Contraindications of SQ Route

A

Hypotension

363
Q

Contraindications of Verapamil

A

WPW Syndrome

364
Q

Conversions

A

60 mg 1 gm …. 1 pint 500 cc

365
Q

D5W main use

A

Medication Administration

366
Q

Death could occur if along with alcohol, a person takes

A

Morphine and / or Valium

367
Q

Diazepam for Status Epilipticus

A

2.5 mg - 10 mg Slow IVP

368
Q

Diuretic Therapy with Lasix

A

Hypokalemia

369
Q

Do Not give a Sub Q Injection to a patient that is in

A

Shock

370
Q

Do Not use D5W on patient with

A

Pitting Edema & Dialysis

371
Q

Do Not use Lidocaine for

A

Bradycardia with PVC’s

372
Q

Dopamine

A

15 gtts / min

373
Q

Dopamine

A

Drug of choice in Cardiogenic shock

374
Q

Dopamine

A

IV drip titrated to Pt. BP

375
Q

Dose 2 mg / min, 2 g drug, 500 ml bag, Mini drip set, How much

A

30 gtts / min

376
Q

Dose for Status Epilipticus of valium

A

2.5 mg - 10 mg IVP slow

377
Q

Dose of Bretylium

A

5 mg / kg

378
Q

Dose of Lidocaine

A

(#1) 1 – 1.5mg /kg, (#2) 0.5 - 0.75 mg/kg

379
Q

Dr. orders 25 mg of a drug which comes packaged 10 mg / 2 cc. How much do you give

A

5.0 cc. Divide by 1/2

380
Q

Drug Calculation

A

Ordered to run 20 ml over 30 minute with Microdrip

381
Q

Drug Calculation - Ordered to run 200 mg - You have a Vial containing 20 ml / 25 mg

A

-8

382
Q

Drug of choice for Cardiogenic Shock

A

Dopamine

383
Q

Drug that Causes Pinpoint Pupils

A

Heroin

384
Q

Drug that is a positive Inotropic

A

Increases force of cardiac contractions

385
Q

Drug used for ICP

A

Mannitol

386
Q

Drug used for increased ICP

A

Mannitol (diuretic)

387
Q

Early Signs of Lidocaine Toxicity are

A

Tremors and Parasthesia

388
Q

EKG Strip SVT Treatment

A

Adenosine 6 mg Rapid

389
Q

Elavil / Tofranil

A

Two common Tricyclic antidepressants

390
Q

EPI

A

Does Not decrease myocardial oxygen demand

391
Q

EPI

A

SQ 1:1,000

392
Q

EPI does Not do what

A

Decrease Myocardial O2 Demand

393
Q

EPI for Anaphylaxis

A

0.3 mg / 0.5 mg SQ

394
Q

Epi pediatric dose

A

1:1,000 - 0.1 mg / kg. Or 1:10,000 -0.01 mg / kg

395
Q

Epinephrine

A

Does Not increase Myocardial Oxygen demand

396
Q

Epinephrine

A

Vasoconstriction and Bronchodilator

397
Q

Epinephrine stimulates heart in

A

Asystole

398
Q

Epinephrine, Asthmatic

A

0.3 -0.5 mg SQ (1:1000)

399
Q

Exclusion Criteria from Thrombolytic Therapy, All Except

A

Hip Surgery 2 yrs. Ago

400
Q

External Jugular Vein is NOT a

A

Central Line

401
Q

Federal Food Drug Cosmetic Act

A

Ensure safe manufacture of drugs

402
Q

Female Overdose on Tricyclic

A

DO Not Give Ipecac

403
Q

Furosemide (Lasix)

A

Vasodilatation

404
Q

Furosemide (Lasix) can cause

A

Hypokalemia

405
Q

Furosemide dose

A

20 - 80 mg Slow IVP (Also, 40 -80 mg IVP)

406
Q

Given 25 mg/ml 20 cc Syringe comes 200 mg

A

ml 20g

407
Q

Glucagon

A

Releases glycogen from the liver

408
Q

Haldol is an Antipsychotic

A

Non - Antidepressant

409
Q

How many Grams are in a Kilogram

A

1000g

410
Q

Hypovolemic shock pre hospital fluid

A

2000 - 3000 ml

411
Q

ICP

A

Mannitol

412
Q

If you were to administer a drug what would you use

A

Mini Drip Set

413
Q

IM Injection Angle

A

90 degrees

414
Q

In a chronic heroin user, the use of Narcan can cause

A

A withdrawal reaction

415
Q

In addition to Lasix, all of the following are used to treat Pulmonary Edema, Except

A

Solu - Medrol

416
Q

In Adult Anaphylaxis what is the dose of EPI

A

0.3 - 0.5 mg 1:1,000 SQ

417
Q

In Hypovolemic patient, Fluid replacement is

A

3 x the loss

418
Q

In the field Adenosine is used for

A

PSVT

419
Q

Increase drug amounts to achieve a desired effect

A

Titrated

420
Q

Indications for Verapamil are all except

A

Cardiogenic Shock

421
Q

Indications for Verapamil are all, except

A

Patient with wide ____ Ventricular Tachycardia

422
Q

Inotropic Drugs

A

Increased Heart Rate Contractility

423
Q

Inotropic Drugs

A

Strengthen or increase the force of cardiac contraction ex: Epi

424
Q

Insulin

A

Protein released by Beta Cell

425
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Increases myocardial O2 consumption

426
Q

Isoproterenol dosing

A

2 - 10 mcg / min

427
Q

Isuprel is a

A

Beta Stimulator

428
Q

Isuprel is used in

A

Bradycardia

429
Q

IV for COPD at KVO rate

A

5% Dextrose in Sterile Water

430
Q

IV, Don’t forget Magnesium Sulfate

A

After Seizures

431
Q

Know about

A

Dopamine Dosages and Drip

432
Q

Know Dopamine

A

400 mg / 250 or 800 mg / 500

433
Q

KVO

A

10 cc / hr

434
Q

Lactated ringers

A

Buffer must like plasma

435
Q

Lactated Ringers

A

Replacement of Plasma ( Hypovolemia )

436
Q

Lasix (Furosemide)

A

Vasodilator, Diuretic, Causes Dehydration, can cause Hypokalemia

437
Q

Lasix does Not

A

Increase Pre - load

438
Q

LEAN

A

Lidocaine, Epinephrine, Atropine, Narcan

439
Q

Lidocaine

A

Toxicity is numbness and tingling

440
Q

Lidocaine 2 gm / 500 ml run at 2 mg / min

A

30 Gtts

441
Q

Lidocaine does for a 17 1/2 lb. Pediatric patient

A

8 mg

442
Q

Lidocaine dose for 130 lb. patient

A

60 - 90 mg, then 2 - 4 mg / min

443
Q

Lidocaine Doses

A

1st 1.0 - 1.5 mg / kg, 2nd. 0.5 - 0.75 mg /kg

444
Q

Lidocaine Drip

A

4 mg / min

445
Q

Lidocaine Drip

A

2 gm in 500 bag D5W at 30 gtts

446
Q

Lidocaine drip using 60 gtts at 20 drops per minute will deliver what amount in a 30 mins trip to the hospital

A

10 mL

447
Q

Lidocaine overdose or toxicity

A

Seizures, Hypotension, Muscle twitching & tremor

448
Q

Lidocaine pediatric dose

A

1 mg / kg

449
Q

Lidocaine side effect

A

Hypotension & Bradycardia

450
Q

Lidocaine side effects

A

Muscle twitching, Seizures

451
Q

Lidocaine Toxicity sign

A

Seizures

452
Q

Lidocaine, used for all, Except

A

Bradycardia with PVC’s

453
Q

Lidocaine Toxicity

A

Seizures & Tremors

454
Q

Magnesium Sulfate is used to treat

A

Calcium Channel Blocker Overdose

455
Q

Main concern with Thrombolytics

A

Bleed Out

456
Q

Main use of D5W

A

Medication Administration

457
Q

Maintenance dose of Lidocaine 2 g in 250 mL with 60 gtts/mL admin. Infusion rate

A

15 gtts/min

458
Q

Major complication of thrombolytic therapy

A

Bleeding Out

459
Q

Mannitol

A

Given to Decrease ICP

460
Q

Maximum amount of Crystalloid given to an adult trauma patient

A

2000 - 3000 ml

461
Q

Med - 1

A

463

462
Q

Medication for Organophosphate Poisoning

A

Atropine

463
Q

Mellaril and Thorazine are categories of

A

Antipsychotic drugs

464
Q

Mild Asthma

A

Albuterol 2.5 mg

465
Q

Morphine is a

A

Vasodilator

466
Q

Most common place for IO infusion

A

Proximal tibia

467
Q

Most desirable fluid replacement for hemorrhagic shock

A

Lactate Ringers

468
Q

Most severe complication of IV

A

Air Embolism

469
Q

Muscle for IM

A

Deltoid

470
Q

Narcan

A

Reverses respiratory depression of Darvon

471
Q

Narcan give to OD patient, how do they present

A

Combative, Anxious

472
Q

Narcan is effective in reversing the effects of

A

Narcotics and opiate based derivatives

473
Q

Narcan is medication for

A

Opiates

474
Q

Narcan is used to reverse the respiratory depression of

A

Darvon

475
Q

Narcan used for all overdose listed, Except

A

Valium

476
Q

Narcan will reverse

A

Darvon & OD

477
Q

Nor epinephrine causes

A

Vasoconstriction

478
Q

Nor epinephrine is

A

Alpha Sympathetic

479
Q

Nor epinephrine is classified as an

A

Alpha & Beta Stimulator

480
Q

One of the adverse reactions of Isuprel is NOT

A

Bradycardia

481
Q

One pint of blood

A

500 cc’s

482
Q

Other names for Verapamil

A

Isoptin & Calan

483
Q

Overdose of Tricyclic causes all, Except

A

Inverted P - Wave

484
Q

Parasympathetic blocker

A

Atropine

485
Q

Parental routes of drug administration

A

SQ, IM, IV, IO, ET

486
Q

Patient has taken 10 mg of valium, but normally needs 20 - 30 mg. What is this called

A

Tolerance

487
Q

Patient is taking Digoxin is in V -Tach with a pulse, Why does your treatment Not work

A

Because they are on Digoxin

488
Q

Patient is using diuretics, you can suspect

A

Hypokalemia

489
Q

Patient shows signs of PE, 2 IV’s have been started, next you

A

Administer .4 mg Nitro

490
Q

Patient with persistent Hypotension

A

“Dopamine” is in list at “2 mcg / kg / min” “Dobutamine 2 - 20 mcg / kg / min” (?)

491
Q

Person in SVT (shown strip) with WPW you give

A

Adenosine 6 mg (due to SVT)

492
Q

Positive Inotropic Drug

A

Increases Heart Contractility

493
Q

Preferred IM site in the field

A

Gluteus (Buttocks) (chose Deltoid first if given)

494
Q

Preferred site for IM in the field

A

Deltoid

495
Q

Pregnant with Seizures

A

5 - 10 mg Diazepam (Valium)

496
Q

Primary buffer system is

A

Bicarbonate

497
Q

Procainamide is used for the following conditions

A

Ventricular Dysrhythmias

498
Q

Pulmonary Edema, 1st Drug

A

0,4 mg NTG

499
Q

Route: Slowest to Fastest

A

PO, SQ, ET, IV

500
Q

Routes for administration of Valium

A

Rectally, IV. IM