6/2 Flashcards

1
Q

The objective of tests of details of transactions performed as substantive tests is to

A

Detect material misstatements in the FS

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2
Q

Which of the following activities most likely could be perpetrated due to lack of effective internal controls in the revenue cycle

  • Obsolete items included in inventory balances are rarely reduced
  • Write off of receivables by personnel who receive cash permits
  • Fictitious transactions are recorded that cause an understatement of revenue and overstate AR
  • Merchandise received is not promptly reconciled to the outstanding purchase order file
A

Write off of receivables by personnel who receive cash permits the misappropriation of cash.

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3
Q

A person identified as an audit committee financial expert of an issuer generally must have acquired the attributes of a financial expert through any except

  • As a principal financial officer, principal accounting officer, controller, public accountant, or auditor
  • Serving on at least one other issuer’s audit committee or disclosure committee of the board of directors
  • Actively supervising a principal financial officer or principal accounting officer
  • Assessing the performance of public accountants with respect to preparation, auditing or evaluation of FS
A

Serving on at least one other issuer’s audit committee or disclosure committee of the board of directors

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4
Q

Which of the following would an auditor least likely consider with respect to fair values

  • Effect on fair value measurement and disclosures of information available subsequent to the audit
  • Segregation of duties between entry of transactions and valuations of those transactions
  • Role of information technology in determining fair value measurements and disclosures
  • Whether the valuation methods used are appropriate in relation to the industry in which the entity operates
A

Effect on fair value measurement and disclosures of information available subsequent to the audit

key is subsequent to the audit.

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5
Q

How is the scope, procedures, and purpose of tests of controls in an audit of the internal control of a nonissuer compare to those for obtaining and understanding of internal control and assessing risk as part of a FS audit of a nonissuer

A

They are all different. In an audit of internal control the scope and procedures are more extensive and the purpose is directed primarily toward internal control report.

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6
Q

Concerning an auditor’s communication of significant deficiencies identified during the FS audit of a nonissuer

A

Any report issued should indicate that providing assurance on internal control was not the purpose of the audit.

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7
Q

In performing a FS audit in accordance with GAS, and auditor is required to report on the entity’s compliance with laws and regulations. This report should

  • Provide negative assurance of legal compliance
  • Provide an opinion on overall compliance with laws and regulations
  • Describe the laws and regulations that the entity must comply with
  • State the audit should be planned to obtain reasonable assurance about whether noncompliance could have a material effect on the entity programs
A

State the audit should be planned to obtain reasonable assurance about whether noncompliance could have a material effect on the program audited.

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the SEC’s partner rotation rules?

  • Other audit partners are subject to a two year time out period
  • All audit partners must rotate off the audit engagement after five years
  • The lead and concurring partners are subject to a five year time out period
  • Small firms may be exempted from the partner rotation requirement
A

All audit partners must rotate off the audit engagement after five years

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9
Q

Which of the following reporting options is least likely with regard to supplementary information that is required by GAAP

  • The auditor’s report on the financial statements include both an opinion on the supplementary information and a statement restricting the use of the report
  • The auditor report on the FS includes a separate section stating that the auditor has applied the required procedures
  • A disclaimer of opinion is issued on supplementary information
  • The auditor report on the FS includes an opinion regarding the supplementary info is fairly stated
A

The auditors report on the FS includes both an opinion on the supplementary info and a statement restricting the use of the report

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10
Q

Which is true regarding communication requirements an auditor must follow when providing tax services to an audit client who is an issuer under SOX

  • Auditor must communicate to the audit committee, in writing, regarding the proposed tax services and related fees
  • Auditor must communicate to the audit committee, in writing, when the proposed tax services involve contingent fees
  • Auditor must discuss with audit committee the potential effects of the proposed tax services on firm independence
A

1 and 3

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11
Q

Which of the following should a practitioner include in an AUP report

  • negative assurance whether subject matter is fairly stated
  • Statement that nothing came to my attention that caused me to believe subject matter is not presented based on criteria
  • All findings from application of AUP
  • Positive assurance about whether the subject matter is fairly stated
A

Practitioner should include all findings from the AUP in the report

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12
Q

What is true about negative confirmation requests

A

Unreturned negative confirmation requests rarely provide significant evidence

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13
Q

The primary purpose of a bank acting as a registrar of capital stock is to

A

Verify the stock is issued in accordance with authorization from BOD and company articles of incorporation

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14
Q

For a combined report on compliance and internal control over compliance reporting. Does the auditor express an opinion on internal control over compliance?

A

No, the report should include a statement that the auditor does not express an opinion over internal control over compliance.

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15
Q

What situation will a practitioner disclaim an opinion on an examination of prospective FS

  • FS fail to disclose significant assumptions
  • Not able to perform certain procedures deemed necessary
  • FS depart from AICPA presentation guidelines
  • significant assumptions do not provide a reasonable basis for the statements
A

Not able to perform certain procedures deemed necessary

This is a scope limitation that could be material and pervasive thus disclaim an opinion.

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16
Q

For the audit of an issuer, the auditor is required to provide an opinion on

A

The FS and effectiveness of internal control

17
Q

Nonissuer client commits illegal acts, which have a material effect on the FS. They have not been properly accounted or disclosed. Depending on the pervasiveness the auditor should express

A

A qualified or adverse opinion

18
Q

Auditor discovers several significant deficiencies when testing client internal controls, the auditor most likely will

A

Increase control risk and increase substantive testing

19
Q

What risk exists of material misstatement occurring in absence of controls

A

Inherent Risk

20
Q

In an audit for an Issuer, the auditor deems the client FS are fairly stated in all material respects. The auditor will issue

A

An unqualified opinion

21
Q

Client reports sales of 100 yr1, 150 yr2, and 225 yr3. Following this trend the CPA predicts sales will be 337 yr4.

What source of information would Richard use to perform analytical procedures

A

Financial information for comparable periods.

22
Q

For an initial audit, what would be an unlikely procedure for opening balances?

A

High level analytical procedures comparing the previous period to the current TB

23
Q

What would be risk assessment procedures to gain an understanding of the entity in preparation for an audit?

A

Inquiries of key personnel
Analytical procedures
Selecting a transaction and tracing it through the entity system

24
Q

What documents the procedures applied and the conclusions reach in the audit engagement

A

Working Papers

25
Q

Average gross margin in the client industry is 20%. The CPA expected the client gross margin to be 20%

What source of information would CPA have used to perform the analytical procedure

A

Information regarding the client industry

26
Q

When an accountant compiles projected FS, the accountant report should include a separate paragraph that

A

Describes the limitations on the usefulness of the projection