5/26 Flashcards

1
Q

The purpose of sending standard confirmation requests to financial institutions with which the client has done business during the year is

A

Corroborate information regarding deposit and loan balances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Before applying substantive tests to the details of asset accounts at an interim date, an auditor should

A

Assess the difficulty in controlling the incremental audit risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is true about the auditor’s observation of physical inventory counts

A

It can provide evidence supporting the existence assertion

It can provide evidence supporting the completeness assertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What evidence would an auditor likely examine to determine whether internal controls are operating as designed

A

Client records documenting the use of EDP programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What component of an entity’s internal control includes the development of personnel manuals documenting employee promotion and training policies?

A

Control environment. Relates to the tone of the organization, HR policies and practices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Before reissuing the prior year’s auditor report on the FS of a former client, the predecessor auditor should obtain letters of representation from the

A

Successor auditor and the former client’s management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An entity with a large number of customer remittances by mail could most likely reduce the risk of employee misappropriation of cash by using

A

A bank lockbox system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In evaluating the adequacy of the allowance for doubtful accounts, an auditor most likely reviews the entity’s aging of receivables to support management’s FS assertion of

A

Valuation and allocation. Are net receivables properly valued.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Previous audit expressed qualified opinion due to a scope limitation. You decide to include a separate paragraph in the year 2 review report because comparative FS are being presented. This separate paragraph should include

A

Substantive reasons for the prior year’s qualified opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to the SEC, other audit partners should rotate off the engagement after

A

7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

According to the SEC, lead partners and concurring partners are subject to a ____ time out period

A

5 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Under SEC rules covered persons include those in the chain of command who provide ____ or more hours of non-audit services

A

10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The PCAOB will conduct annual inspections of registered public accounting firms that regularly provide audit reports for more than

A

100 issuers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When there are numerous property and equipment transactions during the year, an auditor who plans to assess control risk at a low level usually

A

Performs tests of controls and limited tests of current year property and equipment transactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A successor auditor should request the new client to authorize the predecessor auditor to allow a review of the predecessor’s

A

Work papers

no review of EL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PY CPA had doubt about going concern. It is removed this year. What is the responsibility if presenting comparative FS

A

Separate going concern section included in the PY report. Do not repeat in CY

17
Q

Reporting standards for financial audits under Government Auditing Standards differ from reporting standards under generally accepted auditing standards in that Government Auditing Standards require the Auditor to

A

Describe the scope of the auditor’s tests of compliance with laws and regulations

18
Q

Section 404 of the Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002 requires each annual report of an issuer to includes

A

Management’s assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting

19
Q

After obtaining an understanding of internal control and performing risk assessment procedures, an auditor decided not to perform tests of controls. The auditor most likely concluded

A

Additional evidence to support a reduction in control risk was not cost beneficial

20
Q

What professional services would be considered an attest engagement covered by Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements SSAE

A

An engagement to report on management’s discussion and analysis

21
Q

The degree of audit risk always present in an audit engagement is referred to as a combination of nonsampling and sampling risks. What is an example of nonsampling risk

A

The auditor selecting inappropriate auditing procedures.

using inappropriate audit evidence, failure to recognize misstatements in documentation.

22
Q

According to ethical standards, a CPA’s independence would most likely be impaired if

A

Contracted with a client to supervise client office personnel.

Impaired if you make management decisions on behalf of the client.

23
Q

Auditor decides to perform substantive tests on PPE as of interim date. What additional work must be performed to extend the audit conclusions from interim to BS date

A

Substantive procedures for the period between the interim and BS date.

24
Q

For classic variable sampling for estimates, an auditor normally evaluates sampling results by calculating the possible error in either direction. This concept is

A

Precision.

25
Q

What is the best type of visualization when performing a trend analysis

A

Line chart

26
Q

What is a concept difference between the attestation standards and generally accepted auditing standards?

A

Attestation standards provide a framework for the attest function beyond historical FS.

27
Q

What documentation is not required for an audit in accordance with GAAS

A

The basis for the auditors decision to not perform tests of controls concurrently with obtaining an understanding of internal control.

Auditor is not required to evaluate operating effectiveness

28
Q

What is true for a CPA may or may not disclose the names of its clients without permission

A

Firm may disclose unless disclosure would suggest that the client may be experiencing financial difficulties.

29
Q

When there is substantial doubt paragraph, the section must include the terms

A

Substantial doubt & Going Concern.

30
Q

Under Government Auditing Standards, when a clients audit committee takes no action to report fraud

A

The auditor has the responsibility to communicate fraud to individuals contracting for or requesting the audit