525 SYSTEMS TEST Flashcards

1
Q

Engine type & Mfg & Bypass Ratio

A

FJ44-1A WILLIAMS 1900 lbs thrust…3.3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What components are driven from the accessory gear section.

A

Fuel pump, Fuel Control Unit, Oil Pump, Hydraulic Pump, Starter-Generator, N2 tachmeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which engine instruments will you still have with a complete DC power failure?

A

Standby N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When will the spark igniters automatically activate if the ignition switches are in the NORM position?

A

Engine start when throttles are brought out of idle-cutoff & when engine anti-ice is selected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

At what point during the start sequence does the starter/generator cease being a starter and become a generator?

A

45% of N2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the quantity of the oil tank?

A

2.5 quarts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When would you check the oil level?

A

Within 10 to 30 minutes after shut down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How can you tell if the oil filter has been bypassed?

A

A bypass warning indicator on the oil filter is extended (popped out) during the exterior preflight by feeling the indictor button thru the access panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the starter limitations?

A

3 starts in 30 minutes with 60 second rest period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the limitations for the Battery on starts?

A

3 starts in 60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pushing the LH or RH ENG FIRE switch accomplishes what?

A

1) Arms bottles 2) Closes fuel & hydraulic firewall shut-off valves 3) Generator field relay is tripped open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Emergency fuel shutoff activates under what condition?

A

If the n1 shaft moves more than .050 inches (fore & after)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do the fire loops operate?

A

Flex stainless steel tube containing a fixed volume of inert helium gas, an increase in temp on any part of the tube creates an increase in the pressure & trips the detector unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the total fuel capacity in pounds and gallons?

A

3220 lbs/476 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When will the electric boost pumps automatically operate if the boost pump switches are in the OFF position?

A

The electric boost pump will not operate automatically when the boost pump switches are in the off position, only in the NORM position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Do you have the ability to TRANSFER fuel when you are operating in the electrical EMER mode?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In normal position, how is the electric-driven fuel pump fed?

A

Primary Ejector Pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance for emergency operations?

A

600 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do you know that you have a faulty fuel gauge?

A

“FUEL GAUGE” annunciator light will illuminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If you experience a total loss of DC power while in TRANSFER, will you be able to continue to transfer fuel?

A

No, transfer valve de-energizes closed & electric fuel pumps stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can you tell if the fuel filter has been bypassed? And what action should you take if this occurs in flight?

A

Both “FUEL FLTR BYPASS” annunciators lights will illuminate, land as soon as possible…if only one side indicates land as soon as practical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A properly services reservoir will contain how much hydraulic fluid? And, what is the kind of hydraulic fluid used in this aircraft?

A

2 quarts / .54 gallons / MIL-H-83282

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which subsystems are operated by t he open-centered hydraulic system?

A

1) Landing Gear 2) Speed Brakes
3) Flaps 4) Attenuators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How much pressure is continuously flowing thru the open-centered hydraulic system?

A

60 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Once activated, how much pressure does the open-center hydraulic system bring to bear on one of its subsystems?

A

1500 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which subsystem can be operated normally without electrical power?

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which subsystem have a pneumatic backup?

A

Brakes & Landing Gear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the Emergency Gear blow down procedure?

A

1) Slow to 186 kts 2) Pull RED T-handle rotate 45 degrees clockwise to lock 3) pull red knob on handle (blow down) 4) Confirm 3 green down & locked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When will the gear warning audible alert activate?

A

1) Flaps up, throttles below 70% N2 & airspeed below 130 kts (CAN CANCEL) 2) Flaps 15 degrees, throttles below 70% N2 & airspeed before 130 kts (CAN CANCEL) 3) Flaps beyond 15 degrees (CAN NOT CANCEL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Under what 3 conditions will the speed brakes automatically retract?

A

1) Both throttles above 85% N2 2) Flaps move from GROUND TO 35 degrees 3) Loss of DC power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If you experience a total DC power failure with the speed brakes extended, what will the speed brakes do?

A

Safety valve de-energizes open & speed brakes blow to trail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the max output of one hydraulic pump?

A

3.25 GPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

“HYD FLOW LOW” light will illuminate when pump volume output drops below what value?

A

As the flow decreases below .35 to .55 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do you know if you develop a hydraulic leak in flight?

A

“LH & RH HYD FLOW LOW” annunciators will illuminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do you know the system bypass valve is powered closed?

A

HYD PRESS ON annunciator light will illuminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If both hydraulic pumps fail, will you have a working hydraulic brake system?

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Can you take off with the thrust attenuators in the stow position? Explain?

A

YES /..ALTHOUGH..take offs PROHIBITED for FLAPS ZERO degrees and for FLAPS 15 degree with corrected field length greater then 4500 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If you experience a total DC power failure with the flaps extended, what will the flaps do?

A

Stay in their current position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If you experience hydraulic system failure with the flaps extended, what will the flaps do?

A

Stay in their current position. To retract flaps, move the handle to the up position and the flaps will move to the retract position because of air (wind) pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Will anti-skid system function without a working power brake system.

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the sheer level for the Tower Shaft on the Accessory Drive? How to prevent?

A

1500 in-lbs / 1st engine must be at idle before attempting a cross-generator start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is on the EMER BATT BUS?

A

1) Flap Controls 2) Flood lights 3) Nav 1 4) Comm 1
5) Voltmeter 6) N1 Fan 7) Gear Warning & Control
8) Pilot & Copilot Audio Panel 9) Co-pilot Pitot Static Heat 10) Standby HSI 11) Standby Gyro 12) Standby Airspeed 13) Standby Altitude 14) Copilot AHRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is on the HOT BATT BUS?

A

1) Emergency Exit Lighting 2) Baggage Compartment Lights 3) Nose Compartment Lighting 4) Voltmeter 5) Ignition Power 6) ELT 7) Emergency Battery Pack 8) PAX Advisory Lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Will the BATTERY DISCONNECT switch work in “EMER” position?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the minimum voltage for engine start?

A

24 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which relay opens when you move the battery master switch from BATT to EMER?

A

Battery Relay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Should you use the battery disconnect switch instead of physically disconnecting the battery after a flight? WHY?

A

NO / it will drain the battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How long will the battery provide power in the EMER mode with the loss of both generators?

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What busses are powered with the battery master switch in the OFF position?

A

Hot Battery Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In what position should the generator switches be when starting from a ground power unit (EPU)?

A

OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What (3) valves fail closed?

A

1) Transfer Valve
2) Cross Flow Valve
3) Emer Pressurization Valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What (2) ways can you close a field relay?

A

Starting an engine with the generator switches in the GEN ON position, & reset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Will the BATTERY charge when plugged into a EPU with the BATT switch in the OFF position?

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How do you know that a power relay has opened?

A

GEN OFF annunciator light will illuminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is locked when you engage the control lock?

A

Primary flight controls to neutral and throttle idle cut off – ailerons, rudder, elevator & throttles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How would you stop a runway trim?

A

Push electric trim disconnect & pull circuit breaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Can you take off if a stall strip is missing?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the MAX SPEED for Flaps 15 degrees?

A

200 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many wicks can be missing?

A

None from movable surfaces, (1) on a non-moving surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When are icing conditions considered to exist?

A

+10C with visible moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the limitation of the pitot static heat system on the ground?

A

2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do you illuminate the windshield ice detection lights on the glare shield?

A

Turn on the dimmer switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

At what temp should you select the HIGH position on the windshield bleed switch?

A

-18C or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When you select engine anti-ice, how can you verify the engine anti-ice valve opened?

A

Drop in N1 & rise in N2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the minimum airspeed for flight in sustained icing conditions when anti-ice systems are operating?

A

160 kts

66
Q

Describe how the tail boots cycle once you have selected the switch to AUTO?

A

Still looking for exact answer.

67
Q

What is the minimum temp which the boots may be operated?

A

-35 degrees

68
Q

How can you verify the oxygen bottle is turned on before a flight?

A

Don Cockpit Mask and draw O2

69
Q

Can you stop the flow of oxygen to the pax? If so, how?

A

Yes. move the oxygen gauge to CREW

70
Q

When will the PAX O2 masks deploy?

A

13,500 feet

71
Q

How would you communicate with a crew member and/or ATC while using the crew oxygen masks?

A

Push to talk - mic

72
Q

Where is the oxygen overboard discharge indicator located?

A

Disc is located on the right side of the nose section

73
Q

Can the PAX oxygen masks be deployed without DC power?

A

Yes, pull the Oxygen Release handle (manual drop)

74
Q

What is the purpose of the PRECOOLER?

A

Cools N2 air from 800 to 500

75
Q

How is airflow distributed when the COCKPIT AIR DIST knob is in the NORM position?

A

40% cabin & 60% cockpit

76
Q

What annunciator light(s) illuminated when FRESH AIR is selected using the pressurization source selector knob? And will the airplane pressurize normally if you take off?

A

“FRESH AIR” light / NO

77
Q

How can you tell when air conditioning compressor is operating?

A

Green light shows up on the A/C switch face

78
Q

If a GEN OFF annunciator light illuminates in flight, should you immediately turn off the air conditioning compressor? If so, why?

A

NO / a/c automatically turns off

79
Q

How can you control the RAM AIR MODULATING VALVE?

A

Select manual & toggle the switch (called a Cherry Picker)

80
Q

With the pressurization source selector in the BOTH position, how much air is used to pressurize the cabin?

A

8 ppm

81
Q

With pressurization source selector in the LH or RH position, how much air is used to pressurize the cabin?

A

8 ppm

82
Q

With the pressurization source selector in the EMER position, how much air is used to pressurize the cabin?

A

6 ppm of unconditioned air

83
Q

What is the MAX cabin pressure differential?

A

8.6

84
Q

What is the NORMAL cabin pressure differential?

A

8.3

85
Q

When are both outflow valves fully opened?

A

When the LH squat switch is activated and the throttles are below 85% N2

86
Q

The cabin altitude limit valve will prevent the cabin from depressurizing above what altitude?

A

13,000 ft +/-

87
Q

How should you set the pressurization rate controller using the isobaric mode?

A

Amber light illuminates on the face of the instrument.
Push “FL” and set flight level, on the descent push the “FL” again to set the field elevation plus 200ft of destination.

88
Q

If you do experience a DC power failure at altitude, how should you control the cabin pressure during the cabin?

A

Manually using the toggle switch (Cherry Picker)

89
Q

In what situation would you need to use the cabin dump? And, is DC power required to dump the cabin?

A

Over-pressurization / Smoke & Fumes / YES

90
Q

IF you use the cabin dump at FL350, will the cabin completely depressurize? Explain.

A

It will decompress to 13,000 ft cabin pressure due to Limit Valve.

91
Q

The cockpit floodlights are powered from what BUS?

A

Emergency Battery Bus (EMER)

92
Q

How would you adjust the intensity of the map lights?

A

Rheostat

93
Q

Where are the emergency exit lights?

A

Main entry door, the light over the EMER EXIT, & Emergency Exit light / Sign

94
Q

The baggage compartment lights receive power from what BUS?

A

Hot Battery Bus

95
Q

Which position provides the greatest lighting intensity, LANDING or RECOG/TAXI?

A

Landing

96
Q

With the switch in the PAX SAFETY position, what lights are illuminated inside and outside of the aircraft?

A

Seat Belts / No-smoking / Emergency Exit Lights / Shark Lights

97
Q

Can you do a cross-gen start airborne? WHY?

A

NO – To protect the load limiter – Battery disable relay will not open airborne

98
Q

What are the different sections of the Jet Engine?

A

Intake/Fan, Combustion, Compression, Exhaust, Diffuser, Accessory Drive

99
Q

What components make up the Accessory Drive?

A

Fuel Pump, Fuel Control Unit, Oil Pump, Hydraulic Pump, Starter-Generator, N2 Tachmeter

100
Q

What is the START SEQUENCE?

A

Push Starter-Generator Button (disconnect button illuminates), notice a drop on the VOLTMETER, N2 RPM begins rising (when it reaches 8-10%), N1 indication, Throttle to Idle (ignition), monitor ITT rising (max is 1000 degrees in 5 seconds-then retreats), 45% N2 start sequence terminates, 56.2% N2 (Idle RPM), set IDLE speed on 1st engine before starting 2nd engine

101
Q

Pushing the ENGINE FIRE button does what?

A

Fuel shut-off, Hydraulic Firewall in pylon shut-off, Trips FIELD RELAY generator, Arms Fire Bottles.

102
Q

(3) Lights to the Hydraulic System?

A

1) Hyd Flow Low Light 2) Hyd Pressure ON 3) Firewall Shut-Off (Engine Fire)

103
Q

(3) Solenoid Valves for the Speed Brakes?

A

1) Control Valve 2) Thermal Valve 3) Safety Valve

104
Q

What is specifically important before connecting Battery - First flight of the day?

A

Check accumulator pressure before connecting Battery

105
Q

What trips or illuminates the GEN OFF Light?

A

Power Relay

106
Q

What does the Generator Control Unit (GCU) do?

A

Its Regulates, Parallels (keeps both generators balanced), and Protects the Generator

107
Q

What is the temp differences for the Windshield heat? Hi/Low / what temp trips sensor?

A

High is 280 degrees / Low is 260 degrees / 300 degrees

108
Q

If your airplane is not depressurizing on descent, what should you do?

A

Turn off your bleeds

109
Q

Memory Items for FIRE, FAULT or Loss of Directional control before V1?

A

Throttles to Idle, Brakes, Speed Brakes, check list

110
Q

Memory Items for Engine Fire RH or LH light illuminates?

A

Throttles to idle, (if the the light remains), ENG FIRE Button (push), either illuminate BOTTLE ARMED button – PUSH, check list

111
Q

Memory items for FIRE, FAULT above V1 (takeoff continued)?

A

Maintain direction control, Accelerate Vr, Vr rotate, climb at V2, Landing Gear UP, WING XFLOW switch OFF (if WING/ENGINE ANTI-ICE Switches are in WING/ENG), at 1500 ft AGL – FLAPS UP, V2+10, checklist

112
Q

Which MASTER light does the “BATT OTEMP” illuminate?

A

Master Warning

113
Q

Which MASTER light does the “CAB ATT 10000 FT” illuminate?

A

Master Warning

114
Q

Which MASTER light does the “OIL PRESS WARN” illuminate?

A

Master Warning

115
Q

Which MASTER light does the “FUEL GAUGE” illuminate?

A

None

116
Q

Which MASTER light does the “FUEL BOOST ON” illuminate?

A

None

117
Q

Which MASTER light does the “FUEL LOW LEVEL” illuminate?

A

Master Caution

118
Q

Which MASTER light does the “FUEL LOW PRESS” illuminate?

A

Master Caution

119
Q

Which MASTER light does the “FUEL FLTR BYPASS” illuminate?

A

Master Caution

120
Q

Which MASTER light does the “GEN ON” illuminate?

A

Master Warning (Only when BOTH LH/RH illuminate)

121
Q

Which MASTER light does the “FLAPS >35” illuminate?

A

Master Caution

122
Q

When the “OIL PRESS WARN” light illuminates, what does this mean?

A

Oil pressure has fallen to 25 psi or less

123
Q

What is the normal OIL PRESSURE for the engine?

A

45-90 psi

124
Q

What is important to KNOW about the memory items if the RH or LH ENGINE FIRE light illuminates?

A

After THROTTLES to IDLE, we are to pause/wait for a few seconds, if the light goes out you go to the checklist…and WILL NOT be continuing with the other memory items (pushing the ENGINE FIRE button, or pushing the BOTTLE ARMED button)

125
Q

What are the (3) times that the FUEL BOOST ON automatically?

A

1) Start 2) Transfer 3) Low Fuel Pressure

126
Q

Why would the FUEL LOW LEVEL light illuminate?

A

Fuel level is below 185 pounds (determined by a float switch)

127
Q

Why would the FUEL FLTR BYPASS light illuminate?

A

A fuel bypass is IMPENDING

128
Q

What conditions may be the cause of an FUEL FLTR BYPASS light?

A

FUEL BYPASS IS IMMINENT.
Contaminated fuel or ICE in the fuel (serious concern)

129
Q

Can the GEN OFF light be reset?

A

Yes, by accomplishing the checklist items

130
Q

What would be the reason for a GEN OFF light

A

The GCU has detected something unusual with the GENERATOR and commands the POWER RELAY to signal the light

131
Q

What are the limitations of the BLEED AIR on the ground?

A

1) Wings-1 minutes 2) Pitot Static-2 minutes 3) Engine-3 minute

132
Q

What has happen with a AFT J-BOX/LML light?

A

A 225 amp limiter went off line in the AFT compartment

133
Q

What is the significance about a AFT J-BOX LML illuminating?

A

The cross-tie buss will not supply power from the opposite generator during a generator failure

134
Q

What has happen with a AFT J-BOX/CB light?

A

Circuit Breaker tripped in the AFT J-Box

135
Q

What is the SEQUENCE of the HYDRAULIC SYSTEM?

A

1) Pilot selects a subsystem at cockpit control
2) SYSTEM BYPASS VALVE / Loading Valve closes, pressurizing the system, illuminating HYD PRESS ON light
3) Selected subsystem’s control valve (CV) opens, allowing the subsystem to pressurize
4) Selected subsystem cycle completes and the microswitch signals appropriate cockpit indications
5) Selected subsystem CV closes, locking pressure into the appropriate extend/retract plumbing
(NOTE: Some control valves “neutralize,” with no trapped pressure)
6) SBPV opens, reverting to a low-pressure / open-center system. The HYD PRESS ON annunciator extinguishes

136
Q

Why would the HYD FLOW LOW light illuminate?

A

Low Flow in Hydraulics. Its speaking about the Hydraulic Pump itself. Hydraulic Pump is running dry and cavitating.

137
Q

Which (2) systems are tied to the LEFT GEAR SQUAT switch?

A

1) Attenuators 2) Landing Gear

138
Q

Describe the SEQUENCE of the DE-ICE TAIL BOOTS during activation?

A

Runs on a 3 minute cycle (as follows)
1) 6 seconds left boot
2) 6 seconds off/dwell
3) 6 seconds right boot
4) 2:42 minute off

139
Q

Limitation of the TAIL BOOTS?

A

1) -35C degrees
2) Needs at least 16 psi to operate

140
Q

Is the TAIL DE-ICE BOOT system pneumatic?

A

YES. Serviced with 23 psi bleed air to inflate, with slip suction for deflation

141
Q

Why would the W/S AIR OHEAT light illuminate?

A

2 reasons:
1) Windshield Bleed air has reached 300 degrees or above
OR
2) The 5 psi sensor has noted a bleed air leak thru the Anti-ice valve

142
Q

What are the (2) reasons the W/S AIR OHEAT

A

1) 300 degree Bleed Air warning switch activated
2) 5 psi Switch activated (leak detected)

143
Q

Why would the 5 psi switch activate the W/S AIR OHEAT?

A

“Windshield Anti-ice Valve did not close all the way. (It detected a bleed air leak)

144
Q

Why would the ENG ANTI-ICE light illuminate?

A

Because of either UNDER TEMP or OVER Speed (in-flight only)

145
Q

What are the specific UNDER TEMP issues with the ENG ANTI-ICE light?

A

The engine will only tell you that your NOT HOT ENOUGH. 220 degrees F minimum. Throttles need to be increased so the ENGINE INTAKE ANTI-ICE will increase above 220 degrees. In-Flight it may be because you are in descent and have the throttles below 70%

146
Q

Why is the ENG ANTI-ICE flashing?

A

Because you have not addressed the STEADY ENG ANTI-ICE light within 1 minute…it flashes to get your attention to the condition…you will also get a Steady Master Caution

147
Q

What is the limitations for the ENGINE ANTI-ICE?

A

3 minutes on the ground

148
Q

Why would the WING ANTI-ICE light illuminate?

A

1) OVER TEMP…Temp in the fresh air duct (PURGE AIR) has exceeded (145F) most likely on ground…
2) UNDERSPEED…inflight only…if power is below 70% N2

149
Q

There are (2) temp limitations with the WING ANTI-ICE…what are they, and what do they apply to?

A

145F MAX (PURGE AIR)
230F MIN (Leading Edge AIR)

150
Q

Why would the PURGE AIR be exceeding 145F in the WING ANTI-ICE system?

A

A mud dobber or obstruction limiting RAM AIR flow

151
Q

Why would the LEADING EDGE AIR be under 230F?

A

When the N2 RPM is under 70%

152
Q

Why is the WING ANTI-ICE flashing?

A

Because you have not addressed the STEADY WING ANTI-ICE light within 1 minute…it flashes to get your attention to the condition…you will also get a Steady Master Caution

153
Q

Why would the BLD AIR O’HEAT light illuminate?

A

The BLEED AIR is at 540 degrees or above. The precooler is unable to cool the BLEED AIR TO 500 degrees. ANTI-ICE SHUT OFF VALVE is closed

154
Q

What is the MAX time for WINDMILLING?

A

15 minutes

155
Q

What is required when the AIR DUCT O’HEAT light illuminates?

A

Turn down the cabin heat

156
Q

When do you turn-on the IGNITION switches MANUALLY?

A

1) Take off 2) Landing

157
Q

When does the IGNITION turn-on AUTOMATICALLY?

A

1) ENG ANTI-ICE ON 2) START

158
Q

All valves fail OPEN except for these (3) Valves?

A

1) Transfer Valve
2) Cross Flow Valve
3) Emergency Pressurization Valve

159
Q

Can you RESET the ENGINE FIRE switch once pushed? / If so, how?

A

YES / Push a second time

160
Q

At what speed do the VORTEX GENERATOR on the top of the RUDDER provide rudder authority?

A

91 kts

161
Q

What is the primary reason the ENGINE FIRE light illuminates?

A

80% of the time its from a BLEED leak