51 - 100 Flashcards

1
Q

51 An efficient Formulary and Therapeutics Committee in many hospitals evaluates all of the following except:

a. Symptoms of adverse reactions.
b. Patients’ current medication effectiveness.
c. Contraindications.
d. Specific drugs in terms of appropriateness to caseload.

A

b. Patients’ current medication effectiveness.

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2
Q

52 Healthcare organizations often utilize special purpose software which allows rapid access to large archives of integrated data to assist management with decision making. This is typically referred to as a (an):

a. System analysis program.
b. Report writer.
c. Decision matrix management tool.
d. Executive decision support system.

A

d. Executive decision support system.

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3
Q

53 Which of the following would represent the most common cause of adverse drug events (ADEs)?

a. Lack of standardization.
b. Lack of knowledge of drug.
c. Preparation errors.
d. Transcription errors.

A

b. Lack of knowledge of drug.

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4
Q

54 What is the primary advantage of the corporate form of organization for a healthcare provider?

a. It exists by virtue of a statute providing for its formation.
b. It has powers granted to it by its charter.
c. Its continued existence is not affected by the death or disability of an owner.
d. It has limited liability.

A

d. It has limited liability.

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5
Q

55 Law and tradition have established basic criteria for healthcare governing boards. One criteria is that:

a. All members agree to receive care at the governed organization.
b. Board members provide a specified amount of financial support.
c. The actions of the board are reasonable and prudent.
d. The board must meet a minimum of two times each year.

A

c. The actions of the board are reasonable and prudent.

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6
Q

56 Continuous quality improvement assumes that:

a. The achievement will be rewarded.
b. There is the direction from top management.
c. There is no upper limit to excellence.
d. Interconnected work teams are in place.

A

c. There is no upper limit to excellence.

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7
Q

57 Which of the following best describes the responsibility of a hospital with an emergency department (ED) when a person comes to the ED for Examination or treatment?

a. The hospital must admit the patient for observation and treatment if an emergency condition exists.
b. The hospital must provide an appropriate medical screening to determine whether an emergency condition exists and, if so, stabilize the condition.
c. The hospital may inquire as to the individual’s method of payment or insurance status prior to rendering services.
d. If the individual is uninsured, the hospital must transfer the patient to the nearest public hospital designated for the care and treatment of medically indigent persons.

A

b. The hospital must provide an appropriate medical screening to determine whether an emergency condition exists and, if so, stabilize the condition.

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8
Q

58 What was the first major law to have a significant impact on individual privacy in the workplace?

a. Civil Rights Act
b. Fair Credit Reporting Act
c. Polygraph Protection Act
d. Privacy Act

A

a. Civil Rights Act

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9
Q

59 How does physician self-referral or Stark laws apply to Medicare payments?

a. The law applies to private party insurance and does not apply to Medicare payments.
b. The law establishes an additional payment to the normal Medicare payment fees due to the added complexity of referrals.
c. The law allows a claim to be filed with Medicare for a service provided by a physician who has a financial interest in the DHS.
d. The law prohibits a provider from presenting a claim to Medicare or to any person or other entity for a prohibited DHS referral.

A

d. The law prohibits a provider from presenting a claim to Medicare or to any person or other entity for a prohibited DHS referral

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10
Q

60 Which of the following is not an advantage of an effective Corporate Compliance Program for a healthcare organization?

a. Initiating immediate and appropriate corrective actions.
b. Costs of implementation and operations.
c. Developing processes to allow employees to report potential problems
d. Identifying and preventing criminal and unethical conduct.

A

b. Costs of implementation and operations.

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11
Q

61 A privilege of confidentiality exists in a physician-patient relationship when the physician-acquired information is:

a. Documented in the patient’s medical records.
b. Substantiated by the patient’s nurse.
c. Related to the care and treatment of the patient.
d. Confirmed and documented by the patient.

A

c. Related to the care and treatment of the patient.

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12
Q

62) Participating providers in the federal Medicare program must:
a. Be accredited by the Joint Commission.
b. Serve Medicaid beneficiaries.
c. Meet the Conditions of Participation.
d. Be in compliance with state Certificate of Need laws.

A

c. Meet the Conditions of Participation.

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13
Q

63) Which physician organization is responsible for accrediting residency training programs?
a. ACGME
b. AAMC
c. CAT
d. BPQA

A

a. ACGME

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14
Q

64) Which of the following are important aspects to consider when establishing a joint venture?
a. Joint ventures involve independent management teams and independent governance structures.
b. Joint ventures involve capital investment by all parties, can be difficult to dissolve, and are usually expected to be permanent.
c. Joint ventures are managed like an internal organization and are usually renegotiated annually.
d. Joint ventures are developed to acquire portions of the parent organizations and are generally accepted as irreversible.

A

b. Joint ventures involve capital investment by all parties, can be difficult to dissolve, and are usually expected to be permanent.

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15
Q

65) A balanced scorecard is a set of performance measurements used to:
a. Assess patient satisfaction.
b. Ensure the organization does not exceed one performance metric at the expense of another.
c. Provide a scorecard for annual performance monitoring.
d. Gather and monitor financial data.

A

b. Ensure the organization does not exceed one performance metric at the expense of another.

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16
Q

66) What is the correct order, from bottom to top, of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?
a. Physiological, safety, esteem, belonging, self-actualization.
b. Safety, physiological, belonging, esteem, self-actualization.
c. Physiological, safety, belonging, esteem, self-actualization.
d. Safety, esteem, physiological, belonging, esteem, self-actualization.

A

c. Physiological, safety, belonging, esteem, self-actualization.

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17
Q

67) Communication Health Intranet Networks (CHINs) were developed for what purpose?
a. To provide a platform for an electronic medical record.
b. To provide a way to disseminate community-level health data.
c. To provide an inexpensive way of sharing health information.
d. To provide a community-based hub for sharing health information.

A

d. To provide a community-based hub for sharing health information.

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18
Q

68) Which organizational theory is illustrated by governing activities with explicit and specific procedures, arranging offices in a hierarchal fashion, and selecting candidates on the basis of their technical competency?
a. Bureaucratic
b. Contingency
c. Institutional
d. Technological

A

a. Bureaucratic

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19
Q

69) In planning for future community health services, it is important to understand population health needs. Which ethnic category tends to proportionally use physician services the most?
a. African-American
b. Asian
c. Latino
d. White

A

d. White

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20
Q

70) Which of the following limitations would cause a hospital OB unit to see no change in volume over a four year period?
a. Organizational
b. Market
c. Financial
d. Clinical

A

b. Market

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21
Q

71) According to CMS Conditions of Participation, under what circumstances, if any, is it permissible to deny a patient access to his or her medical record?
a. The information requested consists of psychotherapy notes.
b. The request comes from the patient’s personal representative instead of directly from the patient (if allowed under state law).
c. The provider organization will incur significant costs in copying or forwarding the requested records.
d. It is never permissible to deny a patient access to his or her records.

A

a. The information requested consists of psychotherapy notes.

22
Q

72) The overall goal of the HIPPA Act of 1996 is:
a. To ensure the privacy and confidentiality of patient medical records.
b. To standardize the sharing of clinical and administrative information.
c. To strengthen healthcare data security standards and practices.
d. Improve portability and continuity of health insurance, combat fraud.

A

d. Improve portability and continuity of health insurance, combat fraud.

23
Q

73) Congress enacted Stark II to prohibit which of the following?
a. A physician or an immediate family member from referring a patient to an entity with which they have a financial relationship.
b. Hospitals and physicians from partnering to build in-patient acute care facilities.
c. Hospitals and physicians from joint venturing in the offering of outpatient imaging centers.
d. A hospital from referring a patient to a wholly-owned entity of which it has total ownership

A

a. A physician or an immediate family member from referring a patient to an entity with which they have a financial relationship.

24
Q

74) Which of the following activities should be performed by the Board of Directors?
a. Calculating patient care fees.
b. Determining staffing patterns.
c. Recruiting new medical staff.
d. Hiring the CEO.

A

d. Hiring the CEO.

25
Q

75) Performance improvement teams should consist of:
a. Experts in process management.
b. Members from the involved Microsystems.
c. Middle managers with experience.
d. Physicians and other users.

A

b. Members from the involved Microsystems.

26
Q

76) The four important aspects of clinical support services are technical quality, patient satisfaction, continuity or integration, and:
a. Cost-benefit analysis.
b. Outcome.
c. Appropriateness.
d. Health promotion.

A

c. Appropriateness.

27
Q

77) A bar chart format, with the items rank ordered on a dependent variable,such as cost, profit, or satisfaction that Examines the components of a problem in terms of their contribution to it is known as:
a. A run chart.
b. A frequency table.
c. Pareto analysis.
d. Deming cycle.

A

c. Pareto analysis.

28
Q

78) Governing boards are typically more effective at what size?
a. 10 to 15 members.
b. 15 to 25 members.
c. 5 to 10 members.
d. More than 25 members.

A

a. 10 to 15 members.

29
Q

79) What type of review involves evaluation of management staff by their superiors, subordinates, and internal and external customers?
a. Annual review.
b. 360-degree review.
c. Competency review.
d. Peer review.

A

b. 360-degree review.

30
Q

80) The role of a not-for-profit healthcare organization’s governing board includes all of the following except:
a. Delineate clinical privileges.
b. Ensuring that quality healthcare is delivered.
c. Overseeing the day to day operations.
d. Setting broad institutional policy.

A

c. Overseeing the day to day operations.

31
Q

81) Medicare Conditions of Participation for hospitals require that a prescribing practitioner authenticate a verbal order within ________, if not defined by the state.
a. 24 hours.
b. 48 hours.
c. 7 days.
d. 30 days.

A

b. 48 hours.

32
Q

82) Cost accounting is an important tool which enables the CFO to:
a. Meet Joint Commission fiscal requirements.
b. Ensure supplies are competitively purchased.
c. Determine the actual cost of providing patient care.
d. Improve revenue cycle returns.

A

c. Determine the actual cost of providing patient care.

33
Q

83 What is true about the relationship between acute care hospitals and longterm care organization?

a. Hospitals and patients frequently have difficulty arranging for nursing home care services.
b. Hospitals generally do not want to refer patients to nursing homes since part of the patient care revenue must be shared.
c. Nursing homes generally do not want to refer patients to hospitals since thisinterferes with state or federal length-of stay requirements.
d. Nursing homes are generally thought to be superior to hospitals at chronic disease management.

A

a.
Hospitals and patients frequently have difficulty arranging for nursing home
care services.

34
Q

84 The first step in any strategic management scenario planning is to:

a. Develop “what if” scenarios
b. Gather information from as many sources as possible.
c. Develop courses of action that fit within future organizational resources.
d. Conduct a make vs. buy analysis.

A

b. Gather information from as many sources as possible.

35
Q

85 Which of the following is the least serious limitation to decision analysis?

a. Oversimplifying the problem.
b. Inadequate data.
c. The decision maker’s values.
d. The statistical model.

A

d. The statistical model.

36
Q

86 In a unionized organization, what is the most effective contract disputeresolution finalization alternative?

a. Mediation.
b. Corporate Campaigns.
c. Arbitration.
d. Strike

A

c. Arbitration.

37
Q

87 What does a liquidity ratio measure?

a. A firm’s ability to meet its current obligations in a timely manner.
b. Size of dividends to be paid to shareholders.
c. The percent of total funds provided by creditors.
d. Days in accounts receivable.

A

a. A firm’s ability to meet its current obligations in a timely manner.

38
Q

88 The real value of financial statements lies in the fact they can be used tohelp:

a. Predict the firm’s future financial condition.
b. Compute total margin versus periodic gain.
c. Relate the industry average to net profit/loss over time.
d. Understand that a large portion of a hospitals net income may come from nonoperatinggains.

A

a. Predict the firm’s future financial condition.

39
Q

89 Facing struggles such as declining profit margins, nonprofit healthcareorganizations have become more dependent on what source for financingcapital needs?

a. Philanthropy.
b. Bond financing.
c. Capital leases.
d. Operational leases.

A

a. Philanthropy.

40
Q

90 You work for a county organization that has decided to issue bonds to funda new building. What type of bond would be sold on behalf of yourorganization?

a. Mortgage bond.
b. Corporate bond.
c. Capital bond.
d. Municipal bond.

A

d. Municipal bond.

41
Q

91 On a balance sheet, what does the difference between total current assets and total current liabilities indicate?

a. Cash on hand.
b. Net working capital.
c. Liquid assets.
d. Equity.

A

b. Net working capital.

42
Q

92 How should supervisors behave toward informal leaders in the organization?

a. Maintain a positive attitude toward informal leaders.
b. Ensure informal leaders remain at a moderately low status within the workgroup.
c. Grant informal leaders occasional favors.
d. Pass information on to informal leaders before giving it to formal leaders.

A

a. Maintain a positive attitude toward informal leaders.

43
Q

93 Budgets for new capital expenditures include requests for:

a. Infrastructure.
b. Wage adjustments.
c. New employee insurance plans.
d. New gain share agreement with staff physicians.

A

a. Infrastructure.

44
Q

94 The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), an equilibrium model, describes
the relationship between which of the following?
a. Market risk and required rate of return.
b. The expected rate of return and the actual rate of return.
c. Price and market risk.
d. The expected rate of return and required rate of return.

A

a. Market risk and required rate of return.

45
Q

95 What is the most common operating indicator used to measure overall staff productivity?

a. Full-time equivalents per occupied bed.
b. Total salaries and benefits as a percent of operating expenses.
c. Full-time equivalents per adjusted averaged daily census.
d. Nursing salary and benefits as a percentage of total expenses.

A

c. Full-time equivalents per adjusted averaged daily census.

46
Q

96 Determining whether the help desk function is effective and whether projects are well managed are examples of measuring an information system departments:

a. Strategic competency.
b. Political competency.
c. Vendor competency.
d. Operational competency.

A

d. Operational competency.

47
Q

97 When seeking information about fixed assets, payroll, regulatory and tax reporting, and accounts payable, an administrator will access what information management system?

a. Physician practice management.
b. Patient administration and management.
c. Home health management.
d. General financial management.

A

d. General financial management.

48
Q

98 The main role of the board is:

a. Selecting the CEO.
b. Overseeing operations.
c. Setting institutional policy.
d. Running the institution in the absence of the CEO.

A

c. Setting institutional policy.

49
Q

99 Which of the following is not considered part of the labor budget?

a. Staff salaries.
b. Hourly wages.
c. Employee benefits.
d. Contract staff expenses.

A

d. Contract staff expenses.

50
Q

100 Health Savings Accounts (HSAs), were established through which law?

a. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
b. Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act
c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
d. Americans with Disabilities Act

A

b. Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act