101 - 150 Flashcards

1
Q

The only law that mandates a particular type of payment for time not worked.

a. FMLA
b. EMTALA
c. ADA
d. CMS

A

a. FMLA

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2
Q

102) Which position is included in the NRLB Bargaining rules?
a. Physician independent contractor
b. Nurse supervisors
c. Pharmacists.
d. Certified accountants

A

c. Pharmacists.

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3
Q

103) One method for evaluating relative value of different jobs is:
a. Broad banding.
b. Gant charting.
c. Scalability.
d. Benchmarking.

A

d. Benchmarking.

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4
Q

104) When discharging a patient from a hospital, the institution can be held liable:
a. For providing post-discharge medications for ongoing care.
b. If the patient uses public transportation after discharge and is involved in an accident resulting in injuries.
c. For abandoning the patient if the patient is in need of further medical care.
d. When patients are transferred to a less costly setting where adequate care can be provided.

A

c. For abandoning the patient if the patient is in need of further medical care.

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5
Q

105) Under the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA):
a. Benefits only those who are uninsured and unable to pay.
b. Originated due to concerns of patient dumping.
c. Excludes women in active labor.
d. Does not require facility to forward medical records to the second facility.

A

b. Originated due to concerns of patient dumping.

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6
Q

106) Which of the following health maintenance organization models exerts maximum control over physician providers?
a. Closed panel.
b. Open panel.
c. Network.
d. Point of service.

A

a. Closed panel.

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7
Q

107) What is generally prohibited by Stark II Laws?
a. A hospital paying a physician for admissions.
b. A physician receiving payment from another physician for a referral.
c. A physician referring a patient to a service owned by the physician.
d. A hospital referring a patient to its own home health agency.

A

c. A physician referring a patient to a service owned by the physician.

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8
Q

108) Under HIPAA, Congress required the Secretary of HHS to adopt standards to:
a. Create Pay-for-Performance Standards for CMS.
b. Provide for standard data elements and code sets.
c. Require electronic health records by 2010.
d. Publish clinical outcome results on Medicare patients.

A

b. Provide for standard data elements and code sets.

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9
Q

109) Which is the Shewhart process for performance improvement?
a. Plan, check, do, act.
b. Plan, do, check, act.
c. Analyze, formulate, implement, evaluate.
d. Analyze, implement, control, evaluate.

A

b. Plan, do, check, act.

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10
Q

110) Which of the following are parts of the dimensions of the strategic balanced scorecard?
a. Financial performance.
b. New technology.
c. Competitor activity.
d. Board/management team.

A

a. Financial performance.

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11
Q

111) The CEO of a 125-bed hospital realizes that her hospital is surrounded by three similar institutions and determines that her institution has no competitive advantage. Which strategy should she pursue?
a. Target many market segments based on demographics.
b. Prioritize market segments and heavily promote to key groups.
c. Advertise broadly to increase general awareness.
d. Recruit more physicians to admit to the institution.

A

b. Prioritize market segments and heavily promote to key groups.

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12
Q

112) If the average daily census on an inpatient medical surgical unit is 19, and the productive hours per patient day target is 7.2, and the productive percentage calculation is 8.5, how many fulltime equivalents (FTEs) should be budgeted for the productive core staffing?
a. 24.
b. 26.
c. 30.
d. 35.

A

a. 24.

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13
Q

113) What in the revenue cycle process is a major impediment to prompt payment?
a. Payment receipt and posting.
b. Claims submission.
c. Poor financial counseling.
d. Claim denial.

A

d. Claim denial.

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14
Q

114) When evaluating capital budgeting performance, what is the best indicator of operating leverage?
a. Debt to capitalization ratio.
b. Expense ratio.
c. Average age of plant.
d. Depreciation ratio.

A

b. Expense ratio.

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15
Q

115) An analysis of proposed capital investment typically includes all of the following except:
a. Cost of capital
b. Cash flow projections
c. Liquidity ratio.
d. Risk assessment.

A

c. Liquidity ratio.

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16
Q

116) Revenue cycle billing management typically includes what broad activities?
a. Billing and collections for inpatient, outpatient and surgical services.
b. Claims processing, denial management and claims payment.
c. Processing accounts payables, denial management and billing for outpatient services.
d. Activities before services are rendered, activities that occur simultaneously with the services and activities after services are rendered.

A

d. Activities before services are rendered, activities that occur simultaneously with the services and activities after services are rendered.

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17
Q

117) Who gives final approval of the medical staff bylaws?
a. The board.
b. The medical staff.
c. The board executive committee.
d. The medical staff executive committee.

A

a. The board.

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18
Q

118) Which of the following courts is often given jurisdiction to hear cases involving such matters as surgery for an incompetent person or the involuntary commitment of a mentally ill person?
a. Family court.
b. Juvenile court.
c. Appellate court.
d. Probate court.

A

d. Probate court.

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19
Q

119) To guard against the loss of assets, an administrator should do which of the following?
a. Encourage off-site storage of equipment.
b. Allow service directors to determine the frequency of asset inventories.
c. Ensure that billing and collections are handled by the same team.
d. Implement detailed procedures, risk control and annual outside audits.

A

d. Implement detailed procedures, risk control and annual outside audits.

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20
Q

120) A food service director is assigned responsibility for environmental services. This is an Example of:
a. Redundant management.
b. Matrix management.
c. Oversight management.
d. Service line management.

A

b. Matrix management.

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21
Q

121) Which of the following management styles allows the highest subordinate freedom and lowest personal authority?
a. Autocratic.
b. Participative.
c. Democratic.
d. Laissez-faire.

A

d. Laissez-faire.

22
Q

122) Under the regulations of the IRS, a tax exempt entity:
a. Must provide a private benefit to those institutions operating or affiliated with the entity.
b. Must limit the benefit to any private individual.
c. Must provide a public benefit to the community.
d. Can minimize penalties if it limits private benefits to less than 50%.

A

c. Must provide a public benefit to the community.

23
Q

123) Network of hospitals, physicians and other healthcare providers that provide services for a negotiated fee are called:
a. HMOs.
b. PSOs.
c. PPOs.
d. MSOs.

A

c. PPOs.

24
Q

124) The practice of a provider seeing a patient more often than is medically necessary, primarily to increase revenue through an increased number of services, is called:
a. Cost shifting.
b. Buffering.
c. Turfing.
d. Churning.

A

d. Churning.

25
Q

125) Which of the following regulations exempted self-funded employersponsored health insurance plans from state insurance regulation?
a. BBA
b. TEFRA
c. COBRA
d. ERISA

A

d. ERISA

26
Q

126) Hospitals that were acquired by hospital systems generally have which characteristic?
a. They operate at a net gain.
b. They incur higher debt levels.
c. They are located in markets with a smaller number of HMOs.
d. They are younger, not-for-profit hospitals with higher occupied beds

A

b. They incur higher debt levels.

27
Q

127) Hospitals known for their ability to attract and retain nurses despite the significant nursing shortages are called:
a. Professional excellence centers.
b. Shared Governance facilities.
c. Magnet hospitals.
d. Baldrige award winners.

A

c. Magnet hospitals.

28
Q

128) The reimbursement method that was first adopted by Medicare and later by most third party payers is known as:
a. ICD-9.
b. RBRVS.
c. RUG.
d. DRG.

A

d. DRG.

29
Q

129) The principal goal of a Health Service Organization’s medical/hospital model is
a. Security.
b. Disease treatment.
c. Quality of life.
d. Comfort.

A

b. Disease treatment.

30
Q

130) Which segment of the healthcare delivery system is exclusively dedicated to terminally ill patients?
a. Level I trauma centers
b. Tertiary care centers
c. Hospice programs.
d. Pastoral care services.

A

c. Hospice programs.

31
Q

131) Emerging physician organizations are usually private, for-profit corporations. In order to gain not-for-profit status, such organizations must:
a. Give 50% of profits to charity.
b. Have a community-dominated board of governance.
c. Create a partnership with a nonprofit hospital.
d. Minimize double taxation to members by passing proceeds directly to the members.

A

b. Have a community-dominated board of governance.

32
Q

132) Which of the following is a key responsibility of a governing board?
a. Recruit and select the CEO.
b. Operationalize the organization’s strategic plan.
c. Assist the CEO with evaluation of the rest of the management team.
d. Develop a physician recruitment plan

A

a. Recruit and select the CEO.

33
Q

133) Which of the following networks is intended to reduce costs and improve quality by giving access to financial, clinical and administrative information?
a. Community health information network (CHIN)
b. Local area health network (LAHN)
c. Virtual private health network (FPHN)
d. Health file transfer network (HFTN)

A

a. Community health information network (CHIN)

34
Q

134) When introducing a new information technology system to a healthcare organization, resistance can be effectively addressed by:
a. Eliminating existing social groups that appear within the organization.
b. Employing a policy of mandated use throughout the organization.
c. Focusing on the system users and being responsive to their needs.
d. Rapidly introducing the system changes to allow the staff to see the cost savings.

A

c. Focusing on the system users and being responsive to their needs.

35
Q

135) Which of the following would be a discrete measure in continuous improvement?
a. Gender.
b. Weight.
c. Height.
d. Temperature.

A

a. Gender.

36
Q

136) The qui tam provision of the federal False Claims Act is a statute aimed at those who commit fraud against the government:
a. Have minimal impact in the healthcare industry.
b. Prohibits the citizen from sharing in the recovered funds.
c. Allows any citizen to bring suit in the name of the United States.
d. Can be generated from news media reports.

A

c. Allows any citizen to bring suit in the name of the United States.

37
Q

137) Which of the following activities is illegal for tax-exempt health organizations?
a. Allowing an employee to testify before a legislative body regarding pending decisions which would affect organizations.
b. Lobbying members of Congress for healthcare reform.
c. Endorsing a candidate for public office.
d. Sponsoring a political action committee in a for-profit subsidiary.

A

c. Endorsing a candidate for public office.

38
Q

138) Which statement best describes the status of health organizations under antitrust law?
a. The medical staff appointments are exempt from antitrust litigation.
b. They are subject to antitrust law relative to price fixing and boycotts.
c. They are exempt from most antitrust principles because they are “charitable.”
d. They are subject to antitrust law, just as any other industry is.

A

d. They are subject to antitrust law, just as any other industry is.

39
Q

139) Which of the following best summarizes the legal status of the physicianpatient relationship?
a. It is based on an expressed or implied contract, from which certain elements of duty arise.
b. It is based on acceptance of remuneration for services rendered unless charity care is designated.
c. It has no legal status in that it is a private business relationship, unless the patient is a Medicare beneficiary.
d. It is governed by the hospital or health system’s medical staff bylaws.

A

a. It is based on an expressed or implied contract, from which certain elements of duty arise.

40
Q

140) A major advantage of capitation for primary care gatekeepers is it:
a. Guarantees primary care physicians will make more money than they ever made in fee-for-service.
b. Encourages primary care physicians to be more judicious in their referrals to specialists.
c. Elevates the primary care physician’s status in the eyes of his/her patients.
d. Makes it easier for health plans to collect utilization data from physicians.

A

b. Encourages primary care physicians to be more judicious in their referrals to specialists.

41
Q

141) Bundled pricing (paying a single fee for all services) for such services as total hip replacement or coronary artery bypass surgery affects physicianhospital
relationships by:
a. Reducing the need to devote administrative effort to measuring outcomes and performance indicators.
b. Putting the physician and hospital at each other’s throat fighting over the distribution of the fee
c. Promoting efforts to collaborate and integrate efforts to provide more efficient care.
d. Guaranteeing that only top quality physicians will be allowed to participate in such programs.

A

c. Promoting efforts to collaborate and integrate efforts to provide more efficient care.

42
Q

142) A healthcare executive is serving on the board of a community mental health center. The mental health center board is evaluating proposals for inpatient psychiatric services. Proposals were received from the executive’s facility and several other facilities. The healthcare executive should:
a. Participate in the discussion and the vote if the benefits to the community outweigh possible conflicts of interest.
b. Not participate in the discussion or the vote.
c. Declare a potential conflict-of-interest and excuse himself or herself from participating in both the discussion and the vote.
d. Participate in the discussion but not vote on the proposals.

A

d. Participate in the discussion but not vote on the proposals.

43
Q

143) What is a primary reason for conducting continuing education for staff?
a. Staff will think the organization cares about them.
b. There are significant short-term operating efficiencies.
c. It is a long-term commitment to the patient.
d. The Joint Commission and NCQA required it.

A

c. It is a long-term commitment to the patient.

44
Q

144) What is the first effect of demographic trends on a health services organization’s strategic planning process?
a. Appraising financing sources and payment levels for programs.
b. Establishing future staff by type and estimating staffing levels.
c. Determining the locations of delivery units for the next period.
d. Determining the range and types of services to be offered.

A

d. Determining the range and types of services to be offered.

45
Q

145) Managers who use their authority to greatly enhance their salaries, benefits, and accoutrements of office may be causing a disbenefit to patients. This personal aggrandizement is known as self dealing and can:
a. Be seen most commonly in for-profit HMOs.
b. Occur only in for-profit organizations.
c. Occur in any health service organization.
d. Be seen only in non-health services field charities.

A

c. Occur in any health service organization.

46
Q

146) The primary stimuli that causes educational programs to be made available to and required of staff are the:
a. Legal demands resulting from medical malpractice.
b. Regulations issued by governments at all levels.
c. Demands and expectations of stakeholders.
d. Increasingly stringent expectations of consumers

A

c. Demands and expectations of stakeholders.

47
Q

147) Research in behavioral science has consistently found that once basic needs are met, staff is motivated most:
a. By an incentive payment program.
b. Only by a significant increase in salary.
c. By factors such as being kept informed.
d. When performance sets them apart from the group.

A

c. By factors such as being kept informed.

48
Q

148) Resource allocation in health services organizations involves balancing the needs of organization, staff, and patients. However, the essential primary focus on patients can be met only if the:
a. Strategic planning process has been effective and thorough.
b. Mission and vision statements are appropriate to the task.
c. Organizational culture makes a basic commitment to it.
d. Basic needs of the organization and staff are addressed first.

A

d. Basic needs of the organization and staff are addressed first.

49
Q

149) Which of the following best describes a healthcare organization’s recognized service reputation that has been earned over the long-term within its market?
a. Soft assets.
b. Market share.
c. Brand equity.
d. Community perception.

A

c. Brand equity.

50
Q

150) Which technique would provide the most beneficial information to a healthcare organization about customer satisfaction?
a. Direct mail surveys.
b. Mall intercepts.
c. Focus groups.
d. Competitor analyses.

A

a. Direct mail surveys.