51-100 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. An Engineer claims to have created a heat engine that produces 15 kW of power for a 20 kW input while operating between energy reservoirs at 37degC and 400degC. Is the Engineer’s claim valid?

a) Valid
b) Not valid
c) Probably
d) May be valid

A

b) Not valid

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2
Q
  1. A process that the body uses to convert energy in food into heat and work, or it is the process that determines the rate at which energy is converted from chemical to thermal form within the body.

a) Metabolism
b) Eating
c) Body food processing
d) Blood circulation

A

a) Metabolism

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3
Q
  1. What is a body insulation that is usually described as a single equivalent uniform layer over the whole body?

a) Skin
b) Blood
c) Clothing
d) Water

A

c) Clothing

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4
Q
  1. What is the insulating value of clothing?

a) Btu unit
b) Clo units
c) Calorie unit
d) Frigorie Unit

A

b) Clo units

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5
Q
  1. What is the basic index used to describe the radiant conditions in a space, it is the mean temperature of an individual; exposed surfaces in the environment?

a) Index temperature
b) Mean radiant temperature
c) Space temperature
d) Dry bulb temperature

A

b) Mean radiant temperature

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6
Q
  1. In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of the following is true?

a) Installation NPSH is greater than or equal pump NPSH
b) Installation NPSH less than or equal pump NPSH
c) Installation NPSH < pump NPSH
d) Installation NPSH should be negative

A

a) Installation NPSH is greater than or equal pump NPSH

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7
Q
  1. What always accompanies an isentropic expansion of steam?

a) An increase in entropy
b) An increase in enthalpy
c) A decrease in entropy
d) A decrease in enthalpy

A

d) A decrease in enthalpy

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8
Q
  1. Those substance that are particularly variable in the moisture content that they can possess at different times.

a) Wet materials
b) Hygroscopic materials
c) Gross materials
d) Bone-dry-weight material

A

b) Hygroscopic materials

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9
Q
  1. The hygroscopic moisture content of a substance expressed as a percentage of the bone-dry-weight of the material.

a) Moisture content
b) Regain
c) Bone-dry-weight
d) Gross weight

A

b) Regain

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10
Q
  1. What is the advantage of a pressurized deaerator oven an atmospheric deaerator?

a) A boiler feed tank is no longer required
b) less over all energy will be required to produce the steam
c) It can be fitted at ground level
d) It removes more oxygen.

A

d) It removes more oxygen.

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11
Q
  1. In proximate analysis, the coal analysis is consisting of moisture content, fixed carbon. ash, and which of the following?

a) Sulfur
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Volatile matter

A

d) Volatile matter

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12
Q
  1. How do you call the heating value of the fuel if the water in the products of combustion is in the liquid state?

a) Higher heating value
b) lower heating value
c) Proximate heating value
d) Gravimetric heating value

A

a) Higher heating value

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13
Q
  1. What is the rate, in Btu/h or W, at which heat must be added to the conditioned space to maintain a constant temperature and sometimes a specified relative humidity?

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

c) Space heating load

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14
Q
  1. Space heat extraction rate Qex, Btu /h (W), is the rate at which heat is actually removed from the conditioned space by the air system. Its sensible heat rate component is equal to the sensible cooling load only when the space air temperature remains constant.

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

d) Space heat extraction rate

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15
Q
  1. It is the rate, in Btu/h or W, of heat transfer at the coil. Its cooling load component is the rate at which heat is removed by the chilled water flowing through the coil or is absorbed by the refrigerant inside the coil. What do you call this?

a) Coil load
b) Heating coil load
c) Refrigerating load
d) Cooling load

A

a) Coil load

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16
Q
  1. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is added to the conditioned air from the hot water, steam, or electric heating elements inside the coil.

a) Coil load
b) Heating coil load
c) Refrigerating load
d) Cooling load

A

b) Heating coil load

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17
Q
  1. absorbed by the refrigerant at the evaporator. For central hydronic systems, it is the sum of the coil load plus the chilled water piping heat gain, pump power heat gain, and storage tank heat gain. For most water systems in commercial buildings, the water piping and pump power heat gain is only about 5 to 10 percent of the coil load. In an air conditioning system using DX coil(s), it is equal to the DX coil load.

a) Coil load
b) Heating coil load
c) Refrigerating load
d) Cooling load

A

c) Refrigerating load

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18
Q
  1. It is a humidity sensor used to measure relative humidity, dew point, or absolute humidity of ambient or moving air. This device could be mechanical or electronic. How do you call this?

a) Hydrometer
b) Hygrometer
c) Psychrometer
d) Barometer

A

b) Hygrometer

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19
Q
  1. It is a device designed to control the flow of steam, water, gas, or other fluids. It can be considered a variable orifice positioned by an actuator in response to impulses or signals from the controller. It may be equipped with either a throttling plug, V-port, or rotating ball specially designed to provide a desired flow characteristic. How do you call this device?

a) Automatic Valve
b) Automatic flow meter
c) Thermostat
d) Pyrometer

A

a) Automatic Valve

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20
Q
  1. Assume that you are checking the water level in a boiler which is on the line in a power plant. Upon opening the gage cocks, you determine that the water level was above the top gage cock. Of the following actions, the best one to take first in this situation would be to:

a) Shut-off the fuel and air supply
b) Surface-blow the boiler
c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler
d) Increase the speed of the feed water

A

c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler

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21
Q
  1. It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs water hammer during load fluctuations and serves as an auxiliary reservoir during high load demands. What is this component?

a) Spillway
b) Dam
c) Surge tank
d) penstock

A

c) Surge tank

22
Q
  1. It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons, forming lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for forming carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What do you call this coal?

a) Coking or coking coal
b) Free burning coal
c) Peat coal
d) lignite coal

A

a) Coking or coking coal

23
Q
  1. It is the temperature at which the oil vapors will continue to burn when ignited.

a) Fire point
b) Flash point
c) Ignition temperature
d) Creep temperature

A

a) Fire point

24
Q
  1. It is the temperature to which oil has to be heated until sufficient flammable vapor is driven off to flash when brought into momentary contact with a flame. How do you call this temperature?

a) Fire point
b) Flash point
c) Ignition temperature
d) Creep temperature

A

b) Flash point

25
Q
  1. The color of a lubricating oil is obtained by reference to transmitted light; the color by reflected light is referred to as:

a) Bloom
b) Reflection
c) Deflection
d) Residue

A

a) Bloom

26
Q
  1. How do you call the material left after heating an oil under specified conditions at high temperature, and is useful as a quality control tool in the refining of viscous oils, particularly residual oils?

a) Ash
b) Color
c) Carbon residue
d) Coke

A

c) Carbon residue

27
Q
  1. Petroleum oils, when cooled, may become plastic solids, either from wax formation or from the fluid congealing. With some oils, the initial wax crystal formation becomes visible at temperatures slightly above the solidification point. When that temperature is reached at specific test conditions, it is known as the

a) Cloud point
b) Pour point
c) Creep point
d) Flash point

A

a) Cloud point

28
Q
  1. It is the temperature at which cooled oil will just flow under Specifc test conditions; and it indicates the lowest temperature at which a lubricant can readily flow from its container. How do you call this temperature?

a) Cloud point
b) Pour point
c) Creep point
d) Flash point

A

b) Pour point

29
Q
  1. It is a term indicating the measure of acidic components in oils; and was original intent to indicate the degree of refining in new oils, and to follow the development of oxidation in service, with its effects on deposit formation and corrosion. What is this?

a) Neutralization number
b) Total base number
c) Total acid number
d) Neutralization number and total acid number

A

d) Neutralization number and total acid number

30
Q
  1. How do you call a measure of alkaline components in oils, especially those additives used in engine oils to neutralize acids formed during fuel combustion?

a) Neutralization number
b) Total base number
c) Total acid number
d) Neutralization number and total acid number

A

b) Total base number

31
Q
  1. These are materials with low coefficients of friction compared to metals, and they are used to reduce friction and wear in a variety of applications. There are a large number of such materials, and they include graphite, disulfide, molybdenum polytetrafluoroethylene, talc, graphite fluoride, polymers, and certain metal salts. How do you call these materials?

a) Greases
b) liquid lubricants
c) Solid lubricants
d) Powder lubricants

A

c) Solid lubricants

32
Q
  1. These are engine oil additives used to help keep the engine clean by solubilizing and dispersing sludge, soot, and deposit precursors. How do you call these oil additives?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Corrosion inhibitors

A

b) Dispersants

33
Q
  1. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on sensitive bearing metals?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors.
d) Corrosion inhibitors

A

d) Corrosion inhibitors

34
Q
  1. These are engine oil additives used to prevent or reduce deposits and corrosion by neutralizing combustion byproduct acids. What are these additives?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Corrosion inhibitors

A

a) Detergents

35
Q
  1. What is the molecular attraction of layers of an unlike matter?

a) Adhesion
b) Cohesion
c) Advection
d) Convection

A

a) Adhesion

36
Q
  1. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on iron and steel surfaces by condensed moisture and acidic corrosion products, aggravated by low-temperature stop- and-go operation?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors.
d) Rust inhibitors

A

d) Rust inhibitors

37
Q
  1. How do you call these engine oil additives used to help enable adequate low-temperature flow, at at high along with sufficient viscosity temperatures?

a) Viscosity-index improvers
b) Pour point dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

a) Viscosity-index improvers

38
Q
  1. These oil additives are used to minimize wear under boundary lubrication conditions, such as cam and lifter, and cylinder-wall and piston- ring surfaces.

a) Anti-wear additives
b) Pour point dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

a) Anti-wear additives

39
Q
  1. These are engine oil additives used to allow air to break away easily from the oil.

a) Anti-wear additives
b) Defoamants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

b) Defoamants

40
Q
  1. These engine oil additives are used to improve fuel efficiency by reducing friction at rubbing surfaces. How do you call these oil additives?

a) Anti-wear additives
b) Friction modifiers
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

b) Friction modifiers

41
Q
  1. How do you call an opening where hot source of energy from the earth is harnessed?

a) Crater
b) Hot water source
c) Fumarole
d) Volcano opening

A

c) Fumarole

42
Q
  1. The speed of sound is also called as:

a) Sound velocity
b) Acoustic velocity
c) Subsonic velocity
d) Critical velocity

A

b) Acoustic velocity

43
Q
  1. This is the velocity at which a small pressure wave moves through a fluid. How do you call this velocity?

a) Sonic velocity
b) Subsonic velocity
c) Supersonic velocity
d) Hypersonic velocity

A

a) Sonic velocity

44
Q
  1. What can you say about entropy in the universe?

a) Entropy is always increasing
b) Entropy is decreasing
c) Entropy will zero at the end of time
d) Entropy is stagnating

A

a) Entropy is always increasing

45
Q
  1. Pressure Vessels, it is any boiler which does not exceed any of the following limits: 405 mm inside diameter, 1065 mm overall length of outside-to-outside heats at center, 1.85 m2 of water heating surface, and 7.03 kg/cm2 maximum allowable working pressure. What is this boiler?

a) Power boiler
b) Portable boiler
c) Miniature boiler
d) locomotive boiler

A

c) Miniature boiler

46
Q
  1. It is a closed vessel in which steam or other vapor (to be used externally to itself) is generated by the direct application of heat used for power generation. How do you call this boiler?

a) Power boiler
b) Portable boiler
c) Oil-fired boiler
d) Miniature boiler

A

a) Power boiler

47
Q
  1. It is a closed vessel intended for use in heating water of for application of heat to generate steam or another vapor to be used externally from it. What do you call this pressure vessel?

a) Boiler or steam generator
b) Fired pressure vessel
c) Unfired pressure vessel
d) Pressurized tank

A

a) Boiler or steam generator

48
Q
  1. What do you call a vessel in which pressure is obtained from external sources, or from an indirect application of heat?

a) Boiler or steam generator
b) Fired pressure vessel
c) Unfired pressure vessel
d) Pressurized tank

A

c) Unfired pressure vessel

49
Q
  1. installed, placed in operation but subject to annual inspection. What do you call this?

a) Miniature boiler
b) Existing installation
c) new boiler
d) Portable boiler

A

b) Existing installation

50
Q
  1. It is a boiler that has been inspected and declared unsafe to operate or disqualified, and marked indicating its rejection. How do you call this boiler?

a) Second hand boiler
b) Reinstalled boiler
c) Condemned boiler
d) Unfired boiler

A

c) Condemned boiler